# Operational Procedures > 68 questions --- ### Q1: While flying near stall speed with the left wing dropping, what is the correct action to prevent a full stall? ^q1 - A) Apply right aileron, push the elevator slightly forward, accelerate, then neutralise all controls - B) Apply left rudder, push the elevator slightly forward, accelerate, then neutralise all controls - C) Push the elevator forward and keep the wings level using coordinated rudder and aileron inputs - D) Apply right aileron and right rudder, accelerate, then push the elevator slightly forward and neutralise all controls **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Near the stall, the primary recovery action is to push the elevator to reduce the angle of attack and prevent the full stall from developing. Using coordinated rudder and aileron inputs keeps the wings level without inducing adverse yaw, which near the stall could trigger a spin. Using ailerons alone in an asymmetric near-stall condition risks dropping the lower wing further and entering a spin. ### Q2: How is "flight time" defined for gliders? ^q2 - A) The duration from engine start for take-off to leaving the aircraft after engine shutdown - B) The total time from the first take-off until the last landing across one or more consecutive flights - C) The total time from the first movement of the aircraft until it finally comes to rest after the flight - D) The duration from the start of the take-off run to the final touchdown on landing **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Under EASA regulations, flight time for gliders is defined as the total time from when the aircraft first moves for the purpose of flight until it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. This includes taxiing and ground movement, not just airborne time. This definition is important for logging purposes and compliance with duty time regulations. ### Q3: What is the definition of wind shear? ^q3 - A) A meteorological downslope wind phenomenon in the Alps - B) A vertical or horizontal change in wind speed and direction - C) A change in wind speed exceeding 15 kt - D) A gradual increase in wind speed at altitudes above 13,000 ft **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Wind shear is defined as a variation in wind velocity (either speed or direction, or both) over a short distance, which can be either vertical or horizontal. It is not limited to any particular speed threshold. Wind shear is hazardous because it can cause sudden changes in lift, requiring immediate corrective action, and is particularly dangerous during takeoff and landing phases. ### Q4: Which weather phenomenon is most commonly linked to wind shear? ^q4 - A) Warm fronts in winter - B) Stable high-pressure systems - C) Thunderstorms - D) Fog **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Thunderstorms produce the most severe wind shear due to their strong updrafts, downdrafts, and outflow winds (microbursts). The gust front ahead of a thunderstorm can produce sudden wind direction reversals and speed changes of 50 knots or more in seconds. For glider pilots, thunderstorms represent an extreme hazard both for wind shear and for the risk of being drawn into the cloud. ### Q5: Under which atmospheric condition is wind shear most likely to occur? ^q5 - A) When passing through a warm front - B) During a temperature inversion - C) On a calm summer day with light winds - D) In calm, cold weather conditions **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A temperature inversion creates a stable layer that acts as a boundary between two air masses moving at different speeds or directions, producing wind shear at the inversion level. Inversions are common in the early morning before thermals break through and can significantly affect glider operations near the ground. Wind shear at low altitude during approach is particularly dangerous as recovery options are limited. ### Q6: During approach, the aircraft encounters a decreasing headwind without any pilot correction. What happens to the approach path and indicated airspeed? ^q6 - A) The path goes higher and IAS increases - B) The path goes lower and IAS increases - C) The path goes higher and IAS decreases - D) The path goes lower and IAS decreases **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When headwind decreases during approach, the aircraft's groundspeed increases but the airflow over the wings drops, causing IAS to decrease and lift to reduce. With less lift, the aircraft descends below the intended glidepath. This is a critical scenario for gliders on final approach, as the combination of low altitude, reduced airspeed, and a low path leaves very little margin for recovery. ### Q7: If an increasing headwind is encountered on approach with no correction applied, how are the approach path and IAS affected? ^q7 - A) The path goes lower and IAS decreases - B) The path goes higher and IAS decreases - C) The path goes higher and IAS increases - D) The path goes lower and IAS increases **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** An increasing headwind temporarily increases the airflow over the wings, causing both IAS and lift to increase, which pushes the aircraft above the intended glidepath. Although this initially appears benign, the pilot must be alert because when the headwind component stops increasing or decreases again, IAS will drop and the aircraft may sink rapidly below the desired path. ### Q8: When a decreasing tailwind is encountered during approach without correction, what effect does this have on the approach path and IAS? ^q8 - A) The path goes lower and IAS decreases - B) The path goes higher and IAS decreases - C) The path goes lower and IAS increases - D) The path goes higher and IAS increases **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When a tailwind component decreases during approach, the aircraft's momentum carries it forward while relative headwind effectively increases, causing IAS to rise and lift to increase. This pushes the aircraft above the glidepath. While temporarily safer than a decreasing headwind scenario, the pilot must respond promptly with spoilers/airbrakes to avoid overshooting the landing area — particularly important in off-field landings. ### Q9: What is the most effective way to avoid a wind shear encounter during flight? ^q9 - A) Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay over flat country - B) Avoid precipitation areas in winter and choose low flight altitudes - C) Avoid take-off and landing when heavy showers or thunderstorms are passing through - D) Avoid thermally active areas, especially in summer, or remain below them **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The most effective avoidance strategy is to defer takeoff or landing whenever heavy showers or thunderstorms are in the vicinity of the airfield, as these produce the most severe and unpredictable wind shear. Heavy precipitation is a visual cue for nearby microbursts and gust fronts. Glider pilots should wait until convective weather has passed the airfield before operating, as they have no go-around power to escape a shear encounter. ### Q10: During a cross-country flight, visibility is deteriorating toward VMC minima ahead. What should the pilot decide? ^q10 - A) Continue the flight based on favourable forecasts - B) Continue using radio navigation aids along the route - C) Continue with navigational assistance from ATC - D) Turn back along the previous track where VMC was confirmed **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When VMC conditions deteriorate ahead, the correct decision is to turn back toward the area where acceptable visibility was confirmed. Glider pilots are not instrument rated and may not continue flight into IMC conditions. Continuing forward based on forecasts, using radio navigation, or relying on ATC guidance are all inappropriate responses for a VFR-only glider pilot facing deteriorating weather. ### Q11: Two identical aircraft at the same weight and configuration fly at different airspeeds. Which one produces stronger wake turbulence? ^q11 - A) The one flying at higher speed - B) The one flying at greater altitude - C) The one flying at lower speed - D) The one flying at lower altitude **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Wake turbulence (wingtip vortices) intensity is determined by the lift being generated, which is proportional to the angle of attack. A slower aircraft requires a higher angle of attack to maintain level flight, generating stronger vortices. This is why wake turbulence is most severe during slow flight — at rotation on takeoff and during the landing flare — which are critical moments when following heavier aircraft. ### Q12: In a light crosswind, what is the primary hazard when taking off after the departure of a heavy aircraft? ^q12 - A) Wake turbulence rotates faster and climbs higher - B) Wake turbulence drifts across the runway at right angles - C) Wake turbulence is amplified and deformed - D) Wake turbulence remains on or near the runway **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In light crosswind conditions, wake turbulence vortices are not effectively displaced sideways and can settle onto the runway surface or linger near the runway centreline. With a stronger crosswind, one vortex would be blown clear while the other might remain, but a slight crosswind provides insufficient clearing effect. Gliders, being very light, are especially vulnerable to wake turbulence and require appropriate separation after heavy aircraft departures. ### Q13: Which type of terrain is most suitable for an off-field landing? ^q13 - A) A glade with long dry grass - B) A sports field in a village - C) A ploughed field - D) A harvested cornfield **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A harvested cornfield offers a firm, relatively flat, and obstacle-free surface with short stubble that provides reasonable ground roll conditions. Plowed fields have deep furrows that can cause nose-over accidents. Long dry grass conceals surface irregularities and can hide ditches or holes. A sports area in a village introduces the risk of obstacles, fences, and people, making it unsuitable for an emergency landing. ### Q14: What distinguishes a precautionary landing from an emergency landing? ^q14 - A) It is performed without engine power - B) It is forced by circumstances that make continued flight impossible - C) It is a proactive decision to maintain flight safety - D) It is performed with flaps retracted **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A precautionary landing is a deliberate decision by the pilot to land before conditions force an emergency landing — it is proactive rather than reactive. The pilot chooses to land while still having options and altitude to select a suitable field and conduct a proper circuit. In gliding, the precautionary landing is a key safety concept: landing with margin is always better than pressing on until an emergency situation develops. ### Q15: Of the following options, which landing area is best for an off-field landing? ^q15 - A) A light brown field with low crops - B) A field with ripe, waving crops - C) A lake with a smooth, undisturbed surface - D) A meadow with no livestock present **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** A light brown field with short crops (typically a recently harvested or low-growth grain field) provides a firm surface and clear visual indication of the terrain. Ripe waving crops indicate tall plants hiding surface irregularities and can cause the glider to nose over. A meadow without livestock may have hidden ditches, molehills, and soft ground. A lake surface is dangerous as the glider would sink immediately upon water contact. ### Q16: How does wet grass affect take-off and landing distances? ^q16 - A) Take-off distance increases while landing distance decreases - B) Both take-off and landing distances decrease - C) Take-off distance decreases while landing distance increases - D) Both take-off and landing distances increase **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Wet grass increases rolling resistance during the takeoff run, slowing acceleration and extending the distance needed to reach flying speed. During landing, wet grass dramatically reduces braking friction, extending the ground roll significantly. Both effects are compounded for gliders because they are not powered and cannot accelerate out of trouble, making wet grass conditions a serious operational consideration especially for off-field landings. ### Q17: What adverse effects may occur when thermalling over industrial facilities? ^q17 - A) Strong electrostatic charging and degraded radio communication - B) Extended downdraft areas on the lee side of the facility - C) Health hazards from pollutants, reduced visibility, and turbulence - D) Poor visibility of only a few hundred metres and heavy rain **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Industrial facilities emit pollutants, smoke, and particulates that can reduce visibility and create thermal turbulence from heat sources. Direct exposure to industrial emissions at low altitude presents genuine health hazards through inhalation. Glider pilots sometimes use the thermal updrafts above factories and industrial buildings but should be aware of the reduced visibility, unpleasant air quality, and irregular turbulence these sources produce. ### Q18: What is the most common cause of accidents during off-field landings? ^q18 - A) Conducting the approach with distinct segments - B) Making the landing decision above the minimum safe altitude - C) Making the decision to land off-field too late - D) Choosing a harvested cornfield for the landing **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Late decision-making is the primary cause of off-field landing accidents. When the decision is delayed, the pilot arrives too low over the intended field with insufficient height to conduct a proper circuit, assess the surface, check the wind, and set up a safe approach. Rushed approaches made in desperation often lead to misjudged landings, collisions with obstacles, or landing with too much speed. The golden rule is to commit to an off-field landing while still having adequate altitude. ### Q19: How can collisions be avoided when multiple gliders share a thermal? ^q19 - A) Circle in alternating directions at different heights - B) Follow the movements of the glider directly ahead - C) Coordinate circling direction with all other aircraft in the same thermal - D) Approach the updraft quickly and pull up sharply to reduce speed **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When multiple gliders share a thermal, the internationally agreed convention is that all aircraft circle in the same direction as the first glider already established in the thermal. This coordination eliminates head-on conflict. Pilots should visually acquire all other aircraft before entering the thermal and maintain safe separation by adjusting their circle radius and altitude. Circling in opposite directions at different heights is prohibited as it creates crossing conflicts. ### Q20: During a cross-country flight, your altitude approaches circuit height with no thermal in reach. What is the safest course of action? ^q20 - A) Search for thermals on the lee side of a potential landing field - B) Attempt to reach distant cumulus clouds for their thermals - C) Commit to an off-field landing while you still have adequate height - D) Maintain radio communication until after stopping on the chosen field **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When altitude approaches circuit height and no reliable thermal is immediately available beneath the glider, the correct decision is to commit to an off-field landing rather than gambling on reaching distant thermals. Attempting to glide to a far-off cumulus cloud risks running out of altitude entirely, removing all landing options. Landing deliberately while height and options remain is always safer than pressing on and being forced into an emergency. ### Q21: What must a pilot consider before entering a steep turn? ^q21 - A) After reaching the bank angle, push the elevator to increase speed - B) Increase speed to match the intended bank angle before entering the turn - C) Reduce speed to match the intended bank angle before entering the turn - D) After reaching the bank angle, apply opposite rudder to reduce yaw **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Steep turns increase the load factor and raise the effective stall speed significantly — at 60 degrees of bank, stall speed increases by 41%. The pilot must enter a steep turn with sufficient airspeed to maintain safe margin above this elevated stall speed. For gliders with no engine, entering a steep turn too slowly risks a stall from which recovery requires losing altitude, which may not be available near the circuit. ### Q22: A glider is about to stall with one wing dropping. What control inputs can prevent a spin? ^q22 - A) Maintain wings level using rudder pedals alone - B) Pull the elevator slightly and apply ailerons opposite to the lower wing - C) Hold ailerons neutral and apply strong rudder toward the lower wing - D) Apply rudder opposite to the lower wing and release the elevator **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** At the point of stall with a wing low, the correct recovery is to simultaneously release back pressure on the elevator (to reduce angle of attack and unstall the wings) and apply rudder opposite to the direction of the lowering wing (to prevent autorotation into a spin). Using ailerons to lift the low wing at the stall is dangerous because the down-going aileron on the low wing increases its angle of attack further, potentially deepening the stall on that wing and triggering a spin. ### Q23: When aerotowing with a side-mounted release hook, what tendency does the glider exhibit? ^q23 - A) A tendency to roll rapidly around the longitudinal axis - B) Particularly stable flight characteristics - C) A pronounced pitch-up moment - D) An enhanced tendency to yaw toward the hook side **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When the tow cable is attached to a side-mounted release hook rather than the central nose hook, the cable pull has an off-centre line of action that creates a moment arm relative to the glider's centre of gravity. This produces a pitch-up tendency as the cable pulls the nose upward and sideways. The pilot must be aware of this and apply appropriate forward pressure to maintain the correct tow position behind the tug. ### Q24: During aerotow, the glider climbs excessively high above the tug. What should the glider pilot do to correct this safely? ^q24 - A) Initiate a sideslip to lose the excess height - B) Push the elevator firmly to bring the glider back to the normal position - C) Gently extend the spoilers and guide the glider back to the correct position - D) Pull up strongly and then release the cable **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When the glider climbs excessively high in aerotow, gently extending the spoilers/airbrakes increases drag and reduces lift, helping to bring the glider back down to the normal tow position. Pushing strongly risks overshooting below the tug's slipstream into the dangerous low position, and could cause the cable to droop and tangle. The spoilers allow a controlled, smooth descent back to the correct position without violent pitch changes. ### Q25: In a winch launch cable break, what is the correct sequence of actions? ^q25 - A) Decouple the cable, then push the nose down; below 150 m AGL, land straight ahead at increased speed - B) Push the nose down firmly, release the cable, then decide on straight-ahead landing or short circuit based on altitude - C) Initiate a 180-degree turn and land in the opposite direction, releasing the cable before touchdown - D) Maintain elevator back pressure, stabilise at minimum speed, and land in the remaining field length **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In a winch launch cable break, the immediate priority is to lower the nose to prevent a stall, as the glider is at a high pitch attitude with rapidly decaying airspeed. Once the nose is down and speed is recovered, the cable is released if not already automatically released, and the pilot then decides based on altitude whether to land straight ahead (below approximately 150m) or attempt a circuit. A 180-degree turn at low altitude after a cable break is extremely dangerous and has caused many fatal accidents. ### Q26: If a wing touches the ground during the initial roll of a winch launch, what must the glider pilot do? ^q26 - A) Pull back on the elevator - B) Apply opposite aileron - C) Release the cable immediately - D) Apply opposite rudder **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If a wing touches the ground during the winch launch roll, the immediate and only correct response is to release the cable immediately. The launch must be aborted because a wing-down attitude on a winch launch can cause the aircraft to veer off the runway, ground loop, or cartwheel if the winch cable continues to pull. There is no safe way to continue the launch with a wing already dragging, and attempting corrections while still under cable tension risks making the situation catastrophically worse. ### Q27: During aerotow, the glider exceeds its maximum permitted speed. What should the glider pilot do? ^q27 - A) Pull the elevator to reduce speed - B) Radio the airfield controller for assistance - C) Release the cable immediately - D) Open the spoiler flaps to slow down **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If VNE (never exceed speed) is exceeded during aerotow, the glider pilot must release the tow cable immediately. Exceeding VNE risks structural failure of the glider. Extending spoilers might worsen the structural loading. Pulling the elevator while connected could pitch the glider up violently or cause further control problems. Releasing the cable allows the glider pilot to independently manage the speed and return to safe flying conditions without being dragged faster by the tug. ### Q28: After a cable break during aerotow, a long section of cable remains attached to the glider. What is the correct action? ^q28 - A) Release the cable immediately and continue with the hook unlatched - B) Once at a safe height, drop the cable over empty terrain or the airfield - C) Fly a normal approach and release the cable immediately after ground contact - D) Fly a low approach and ask the controller to assess the cable length, then release if necessary **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A long cable trailing from the glider is extremely hazardous — it could snag obstacles, people, or aircraft on the ground, and alters the glider's flight characteristics and centre of gravity. The correct procedure is to gain safe altitude and then release the cable over empty terrain or the airfield where ground crews can retrieve it safely. A low approach to check the cable length is unnecessary and dangerous; the overriding priority is to jettison the cable as soon as it is safe to do so. ### Q29: During aerotow, the tug aircraft disappears from the glider pilot's view. What must the pilot do? ^q29 - A) Turn alternately left and right to search for the tug - B) Open the spoiler flaps and regain normal flight attitude - C) Release the cable immediately - D) Alternate pulling and pushing on the elevator **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the tug aircraft is lost from sight during aerotow, the glider pilot must release the cable immediately. Without visual contact with the tug, the glider pilot cannot anticipate turns or attitude changes, creating an extreme risk of a collision with the tug aircraft or of being pulled into an uncontrolled attitude. After release, the glider pilot should manoeuvre to the right to clear the tug's flight path, then establish normal gliding flight. ### Q30: During aerotow in a turn, the glider drifts to the outside. How should the pilot correct this? ^q30 - A) Match the tug's bank angle and gently use rudder to return to the position behind the tug - B) Use a tighter radius with strong rudder inputs to fly back behind the tug - C) Use a sideslip to let the increased drag pull the glider back behind the tug - D) Apply rudder and aileron to correct the attitude, then extend spoilers to reduce speed **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** When the glider drifts to the outside of a turn in aerotow, the correct technique is to match the tug's bank angle and then gently use rudder (with coordinated aileron) to reduce the radius and return to the position directly behind the tug. Using a smaller radius alone risks swinging the glider through the correct position and into an inside offset. Spoilers or sideslip would change the speed relationship and make position control harder. ### Q31: During a winch launch at full climb attitude, the cable tension suddenly drops. What should the pilot do? ^q31 - A) Signal the winch driver by alternating aileron inputs - B) Push the elevator firmly and release the cable immediately - C) Pull the elevator to restore cable tension - D) Push slightly and wait for the tension to resume **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A sudden loss of cable tension during the steep climb phase of a winch launch is treated identically to a cable break — it may be a winch malfunction, engine failure, or cable break. The glider is at a high nose-up attitude with potentially critically low airspeed. The immediate response is to push the nose down firmly to recover flying speed and simultaneously release the cable. Waiting for cable tension to resume or pulling further on the elevator risks a stall at low altitude from which recovery is impossible. ### Q32: Before launching with a parallel-cable winch, you notice the second cable lying close to your glider. What should you do? ^q32 - A) Launch while monitoring the second cable and release after take-off if necessary - B) Complete a normal take-off and inform the controller after landing - C) Release the cable immediately and inform the airfield controller by radio - D) Proceed with the launch using opposite rudder to avoid the second cable **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A loose second cable near the glider before launch presents a severe entanglement hazard. If the second cable wraps around the glider or its own cable during the launch, it could cause loss of directional control, structural damage, or a catastrophic accident. The only safe action is to abort the launch immediately and inform ground controllers so the hazard can be cleared before any launch proceeds. This is a strict no-go situation. ### Q33: What is the purpose of a weak link on a winch cable? ^q33 - A) To limit the rate of climb during the launch - B) To trigger automatic cable release after the winch launch - C) To protect the winch from being pulled over by the glider - D) To protect the glider's airframe from excessive stress **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Winch cables incorporate a weak link or breaking point designed to fail at a specific load, protecting the glider's airframe from being overstressed by excessive cable tension. If the winch driver applies too much power or the glider's nose pitches up steeply, the cable tension rises rapidly. The breaking point fails before the structural limits of the glider are reached, preventing in-flight structural damage. It is a passive safety device built into every winch launch cable. ### Q34: During the final phase of a winch launch, the pilot maintains back pressure and the cable auto-releases under high load. What is the consequence? ^q34 - A) This technique compensates for poor wind correction - B) Extreme structural loads are imposed on the glider's airframe - C) This technique allows the glider to reach a higher altitude - D) This sudden jerk is the only way to guarantee cable release **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** If the pilot holds back pressure at the moment the cable releases — whether manually or via the automatic weak link — the sudden removal of cable tension while the elevator is still deflected can cause a violent pitch-up moment, creating extreme structural loads on the airframe. The correct technique is to progressively relax back pressure as the launch reaches its peak and the cable begins to go slack, allowing a smooth transition to free flight without dangerous load spikes. ### Q35: You must land on a steeply inclined slope in mountainous terrain. How should the approach be conducted? ^q35 - A) Approach at minimum speed with a gentle flare upon reaching the landing site - B) Approach along the ridge into the headwind, regardless of slope direction - C) Approach at increased speed and perform a quick flare to match the slope angle - D) Approach downhill at increased speed, pushing the elevator to follow the terrain during landing **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Landing on a steeply inclined slope requires increased approach speed to provide a safety margin and improve control authority on the uneven terrain. A quick, decisive flare is needed to match the glider's attitude to the slope gradient at touchdown, preventing the nose from striking the uphill slope first. Approaching at minimum speed on a slope leaves insufficient margin for the turbulence and wind gradients common in mountainous terrain and increases the risk of a stall during the flare. ### Q36: At 6,000 m MSL, you realise your oxygen supply will be depleted within minutes. What should you do? ^q36 - A) Wait for the first signs of hypoxia before beginning the descent at maximum speed - B) Open the spoilers and descend at maximum permitted speed immediately - C) Remain at altitude for no more than 30 minutes after the oxygen runs out - D) Reduce oxygen flow by breathing slowly **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** At 6000m MSL, hypoxia becomes rapidly incapacitating — a pilot may have only a few minutes of useful consciousness without supplemental oxygen. The immediate priority is to descend as rapidly as possible to a breathable altitude (below approximately 3000m). Using spoilers and maximum permissible speed achieves the fastest descent rate. Waiting for hypoxia symptoms before acting is dangerous because hypoxia impairs judgment, and the pilot may not recognize their own deteriorating condition until incapacitated. ### Q37: What colour is the emergency canopy release handle? ^q37 - A) Blue - B) Green - C) Yellow - D) Red **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Emergency release handles in aircraft are universally colour-coded red to ensure immediate identification in an emergency, even under stress or in poor lighting conditions. The red colour follows international aviation convention for emergency and danger-related controls. Glider cockpit canopy emergency releases must be instantly locatable for rapid egress in the event of a fire or post-crash situation where the normal canopy opening mechanism may be inoperative. ### Q38: Why must trim masses or ballast weights be firmly secured inside a glider? ^q38 - A) To prevent exceeding the maximum permitted mass - B) To protect the pilot from injury in turbulence - C) To prevent them from blocking controls or shifting the centre of gravity - D) To ensure the pilot's comfort during flight **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Ballast weights and trim masses placed in gliders to adjust the centre of gravity must be rigidly secured because any movement in flight can cause sudden shifts in the CG, altering the handling characteristics unexpectedly and potentially making the aircraft uncontrollable. Additionally, if a weight works loose and slides into the tail, it could jam the control linkages, preventing rudder or elevator movement. Proper securing with approved fastening systems is an airworthiness requirement before every flight. ### Q39: During a winch launch, the airspeed indicator fails after reaching full climb attitude. What should you do? ^q39 - A) Push the elevator, release the cable, and fly a short circuit at minimum speed - B) Complete the launch to normal height, then use horizon reference and airstream noise to continue the planned flight - C) Complete the launch to normal height, then use horizon reference and airstream noise for an immediate circuit and landing - D) Try to restore the ASI reading by making abrupt speed changes during the launch **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** An ASI failure during a winch launch does not require immediate cable release if the launch is otherwise proceeding normally. The pilot can use visual reference to the horizon for pitch attitude and auditory cues (airstream noise) to estimate speed. The correct response is to complete the launch to normal altitude and then land immediately, using the same visual and audio cues for the approach and landing rather than attempting further cross-country flight without a functioning airspeed indicator. ### Q40: Why is it prohibited to launch with the centre of gravity beyond the aft limit? ^q40 - A) Because structural limits could be exceeded - B) Because the maximum permitted speed would be significantly reduced - C) Because the elevator may be insufficient to control the flight attitude - D) Because the increased nose-down moment could not be compensated **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When the centre of gravity is at or beyond the aft limit, the elevator becomes progressively less effective at controlling pitch because the moment arm from the elevator to the CG is reduced. In extreme cases, the pilot may not be able to push the nose down to recover from a pitch-up or stall, making the aircraft effectively uncontrollable in pitch. This is particularly dangerous during winch launch where pitch attitudes change rapidly and full elevator authority is essential. ### Q41: What effect does ice accretion on the wings have? ^q41 - A) A decrease in stall speed - B) An increase in stall speed - C) Improved slow-flight characteristics - D) Reduced friction drag **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Ice accretion on wings disrupts the smooth airfoil shape, increases weight, and drastically reduces the lift coefficient of the wing. This means the wing must fly at a higher angle of attack to generate the same lift, which means it will stall at a higher airspeed than normal. Additionally, ice increases drag significantly. For gliders, even small amounts of ice can cause dramatic performance degradation and render the aircraft dangerous to fly, as the increased stall speed may approach normal flying speeds. ### Q42: The landing gear can be extended but not locked despite several attempts. How should you land? ^q42 - A) Land normally while holding the gear handle firmly - B) Retract the gear and perform a belly landing at minimum speed - C) Retract the gear and perform a belly landing at increased speed - D) Land normally with the unlocked gear **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** An unlocked undercarriage that collapses on touchdown can cause the aircraft to veer violently, potentially causing a ground loop or nose-over injury. A controlled belly landing on a retracted gear at minimum speed is safer because it provides a predictable, stable deceleration on the fuselage belly. Minimum speed is used to reduce the impact forces and sliding distance. The pilot should select a smooth surface and prepare for the landing as normal, minus the gear extension. ### Q43: When flying into heavy snowfall, what is the most immediate danger? ^q43 - A) Rapid increase in airframe icing - B) Sudden and severe loss of visibility - C) Sudden blockage of the pitot-static system - D) Sudden increase in aircraft mass **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In heavy snowfall, the most immediate and dangerous effect is the sudden and dramatic reduction in visibility, which can reduce from adequate VMC to near-zero in seconds. A glider pilot who suddenly cannot see terrain, obstacles, or other aircraft is in immediate danger, particularly at low altitude during approach or cross-country flight. While icing and pitot blockage are also concerns, loss of visual reference is the most acutely life-threatening effect for a VFR-only glider pilot. ### Q44: An off-field landing with a tailwind is unavoidable. How should the approach be flown? ^q44 - A) Approach at increased speed with spoiler flaps retracted - B) Approach at reduced speed and expect a shorter flare and ground roll - C) Approach at normal speed; upon reaching the landing site, extend spoilers and push the elevator down - D) Approach at normal speed and expect a longer flare and ground roll **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A tailwind landing significantly increases groundspeed for the same airspeed, requiring a much longer ground roll to decelerate. The approach should be flown at normal indicated airspeed (not groundspeed), but the pilot must plan for an extended flare and ground roll and ensure the field is long enough to accommodate this. Using spoilers is important to steepen the approach angle and increase drag during the ground roll. Under no circumstances should speed be reduced below normal approach speed — the airspeed margin above stall must be maintained regardless of groundspeed. ### Q45: When landing with a tailwind, how should the approach be conducted? ^q45 - A) Increase the approach speed - B) Land with the gear retracted to shorten the ground roll - C) Approach at normal speed on a shallow angle - D) Compensate for the tailwind using a sideslip **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In a tailwind landing, the pilot maintains normal indicated approach speed (the stall margin must be preserved) but recognises that the groundspeed will be higher, resulting in a longer, shallower approach trajectory relative to the ground. The approach path will appear flatter because the aircraft is moving faster over the ground. Increasing airspeed further would worsen the landing distance problem, and sideslip does not compensate for tailwind ground speed. ### Q46: Tower reports "Wind 15 knots, gusts 25 knots" during your approach. How should you perform the landing? ^q46 - A) Approach at minimum speed and correct attitude changes with gentle control inputs - B) Approach at normal speed using spoiler flaps for speed control - C) Approach at increased speed and avoid using spoiler flaps - D) Approach at increased speed and correct attitude changes with firm control inputs **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In gusty conditions, the pilot should add a gust allowance to the normal approach speed — typically half the gust excess (in this case, half of 10 knots = 5 knots) above normal approach speed. The increased speed provides a better margin above stall when the gust drops out and airspeed temporarily decreases. Firm, prompt rudder and aileron inputs are needed to correct rapid attitude changes caused by gusts. Spoilers remain available and should be used normally for glidepath control. ### Q47: While ridge soaring, you encounter a strong downdraft on the lee side. What should you do? ^q47 - A) Continue flying, as lee-side downdrafts near mountains are typically brief - B) Get closer to the ridge at higher speed - C) Increase speed and head away from the ridge - D) Increase speed and fly a landing parallel to the ridge **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In mountain flying, the lee-side downwind (rotor) zone is extremely dangerous — descending air can exceed the glider's best glide rate, meaning the aircraft loses altitude faster than it can glide away from terrain. The immediate response is to increase airspeed to best penetration speed and turn away from the ridge, heading toward the valley or upwind side where lifting conditions and terrain clearance can be regained. Getting closer to the ridge or circling in the rotor zone dramatically increases the collision risk. ### Q48: While flying below a growing cumulus that is developing into a thunderstorm, the glider rapidly approaches the cloud base. What should you do? ^q48 - A) Reduce to minimum speed and exit the lift area in a gentle turn - B) Enter the thunderstorm cloud and continue on instruments - C) Extend spoilers within speed limits and leave the lift area at maximum permitted speed - D) Fasten seat belts and continue thermalling, expecting severe gusts **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When a cumulus cloud develops into a cumulonimbus (thunderstorm), the updrafts beneath and inside it can reach extreme values — far exceeding the glider's ability to descend out of it — risking involuntary cloud entry, loss of control, structural failure from turbulence, and lightning strike. The pilot must immediately open spoilers and accelerate to maximum permitted speed to maximise the descent rate and penetrate away from the lifting area as quickly as possible. Entering a thunderstorm cloud in a glider is potentially fatal. ### Q49: After landing, you realise a pen may have fallen loose in the cockpit. What must be done? ^q49 - A) Small, light loose objects in the fuselage are not a concern - B) Subsequent pilots must be informed about the missing pen - C) A flight without a pen on board is not permitted - D) The cockpit must be thoroughly inspected for loose objects before the next flight **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Any loose object in the cockpit is a potential flight safety hazard. A pen or other object rolling under a rudder pedal or into the control column well could jam the controls, preventing full deflection of critical flight controls at a critical moment. Before the next flight, the cockpit must be thoroughly searched and the object retrieved. This is an airworthiness issue — the aircraft should not fly until all loose objects have been found and secured or removed. ### Q50: Flying near the airfield at about 250 m AGL, you encounter strong sink and decide on a safety landing. What speed should you fly toward the airfield? ^q50 - A) Maximum manoeuvring speed (VA) - B) Best glide speed - C) Best glide speed plus an increment for downdrafts and wind - D) Minimum rate-of-descent speed **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When facing strong sink at low altitude and returning to the airfield, the pilot must fly best glide speed as the baseline to maximise the distance covered per unit of altitude lost. However, in strong sink or turbulent conditions, an additional speed increment is added above best glide to compensate for the reduced lift in the sinking air mass and to maintain control authority in turbulence. Flying minimum sink speed would result in covering less ground per unit altitude, which is exactly the wrong outcome when trying to reach a specific landing point. ### Q51: After passing the LAPL(S) skill test, may you immediately carry passengers once the licence is issued? ^q51 - A) Yes, without any restriction - B) No, passenger flights require the SPL licence - C) No, you must first complete 10 flight hours or 30 flights as PIC after the licence is issued - D) Yes, but only if recent experience requirements are met **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** EASA regulation (FCL.135.S) requires that before carrying passengers with a LAPL(S), the holder must have completed, after the issue of the licence, at least 10 hours of flight time or 30 flights as pilot-in-command on gliders. This practical consolidation requirement aims to ensure sufficient experience before taking responsibility for a passenger. ### Q52: On final approach to an out-landing field, you suddenly encounter a strong thermal. How do you react? ^q52 - A) Retract the airbrakes and circle gently to escape the thermal - B) Retract the airbrakes and reduce speed to minimum sink in order to exploit the thermal - C) Continue the approach unchanged, since a thermal is always followed by a downdraft - D) Fully extend the airbrakes and extend the approach path if necessary **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** On final approach to an out-landing field, an unexpected strong thermal may carry the glider above the intended touchdown point. The correct response is to fully extend the airbrakes to increase the sink rate and regain control of the approach path. If necessary, an overshoot correction (extending the approach path) can be made. Retracting the airbrakes or circling on final is dangerous at low altitude; continuing without correction risks overshooting the field. ### Q53: You land on a grass runway shortly after a brief rain shower. What should you expect? ^q53 - A) The glider will brake quickly on the wet surface without using the wheel brake - B) The glider will stop noticeably faster after touchdown - C) Reduced wheel adhesion and less effective braking, resulting in a longer ground roll - D) The glider will veer off the runway due to aquaplaning **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** On a wet grass runway, the coefficient of friction between the wheel and the ground is considerably reduced, making braking less effective and extending the ground roll distance after touchdown. The pilot must take this into account when selecting the field and managing the approach, ensuring that the available length is sufficient. A wet runway does not cause faster braking or spontaneous stopping — the effect is the opposite. ### Q54: Flying late in the day toward shaded slopes in a valley, what difficulty should you anticipate? ^q54 - A) Glare from the low sun on the horizon - B) Strong downdrafts - C) Severe turbulence - D) Difficulty spotting other aircraft in shaded areas **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Late in the day, shaded slopes present a strong luminosity contrast with areas still in sunlight. In shaded areas, it is much more difficult to visually detect other aircraft, which increases the collision risk, especially when flying in a valley. Anti-collision vigilance must be heightened during sun/shade transitions. ### Q55: On a cross-country flight with no thermals available, you decide to land out. Several fields look suitable. By what height must you have finalised your field selection? ^q55 - A) When you can positively identify the wind direction - B) For a glider, at 300 m AGL; for a motor glider, at 200 m AGL - C) For a glider, at 300 m AGL; for a motor glider, at 400 m AGL - D) For a glider, at 400 m AGL; for a motor glider, at 300 m AGL **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Swiss regulations (BAZL) set minimum decision heights for out-landings: for a pure glider, the field selection must be finalised no later than 300 m above the ground, leaving sufficient margin to fly a suitable circuit. For a motor glider, this limit is 400 m due to the option of using the engine, as well as the added complexity of managing the power unit. Deciding later compromises the safety of the circuit and approach. ### Q56: You are thermalling alone at 1,500 m AGL over flat terrain with no other glider nearby. In which direction must you circle? ^q56 - A) Always turn left - B) Search for the best lift by flying figure-eights - C) Left turns within 5 km of an aerodrome; otherwise free choice - D) There is no rule prescribing a direction in this situation **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In the absence of other gliders in the thermal, there is no regulation imposing a particular direction of turn. The direction of circling is free; the pilot chooses whichever seems most effective for working the core of the thermal. The rule to turn in the same direction applies only when another aircraft is already established in the thermal — in that case, the new arrival must adopt the direction of the first. ### Q57: During an aerotow with no wind, the towrope breaks just below safety height. What is the correct procedure? ^q57 - A) Push the nose down, release the rope, and land in the opposite direction - B) Extend airbrakes, push the nose down, and land straight ahead - C) Immediately release the cable once, then establish a glide and land straight ahead - D) Establish a glide, release the rope twice, and land straight ahead if possible **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In the event of a towrope break during aerotow before reaching safety height with no wind, the procedure is: immediately adopt a gliding attitude to maintain speed, activate the release (twice to ensure separation), then land straight ahead if possible. Landing in the opposite direction requires sufficient height for the turn; with no wind and insufficient altitude, landing straight ahead is the safest option. ### Q58: You are ready to depart in a glider with a strong crosswind blowing from the right. What should you arrange? ^q58 - A) Have the ground helper hold the right wing slightly lower during the take-off run - B) Hold the wheel brake until the engine reaches full power - C) Have the ground helper accompany the glider until you have enough speed to control bank angle - D) Pull the elevator fully back during the ground roll to lift off as quickly as possible **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** With a strong crosswind from the right, the right (upwind) wing tends to rise due to differential lift. The ground helper must hold the right wing slightly lower at the start of the takeoff roll to compensate for this effect and prevent the glider from weathercocking. This technique maintains the direction of travel and allows a controlled takeoff until the control surfaces become effective. ### Q59: During an aerotow departure, the acceleration is insufficient. What should you do at the abort point? ^q59 - A) Ease the stick slightly forward to reduce drag - B) Release the towrope - C) Pull back on the elevator to raise the glider - D) Extend the flaps **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** If during an aerotow the tug-and-glider combination is not accelerating sufficiently and the takeoff abort point (point of no return) is reached without adequate speed, the only correct action is to immediately release the towrope. Continuing the takeoff with insufficient speed risks an uncontrolled lift-off or a collision at the end of the runway. The glider will brake on its own over the remaining distance. ### Q60: What lateral clearance from a slope must you maintain when flying a glider in Switzerland? ^q60 - A) 150 m horizontally - B) It depends on the thermal conditions - C) 60 m horizontally - D) A sufficient lateral safety distance **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Swiss regulations for ridge soaring impose a minimum lateral clearance of 60 metres from the slope. This safety margin allows reaction time in the event of a sudden loss of lift or turbulence, and avoids any collision with the terrain. This is a minimum regulatory value, not a general recommendation — in adverse conditions, a greater clearance may be necessary. ### Q61: What is the primary hazard to be aware of when flying at high altitude in the mountains? ^q61 - A) Loss of GPS signal - B) Weather conditions changing faster than expected, including sudden thunderstorm development - C) Loss of radio contact - D) Erroneous FLARM signals due to reflections off rock faces **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In high mountains, weather conditions can deteriorate extremely rapidly — thunderstorms can develop within tens of minutes, lenticular clouds can form, severe wind shear or violent downdrafts can appear. The pilot must continuously monitor the sky and have an exit strategy prepared. The other answers describe real but secondary risks compared to the weather threat, which is the primary cause of accidents in mountain flying. ### Q62: When preparing the oxygen system for a flight in the Alps, what must you absolutely ensure? ^q62 - A) The rubber seal is undamaged - B) All components in contact with oxygen are free of grease - C) The coupling nut is tightened to the correct torque - D) The cylinder connector is well greased **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Pure oxygen in the presence of fatty substances (oil, grease, lubricants) forms a highly flammable or even explosive mixture. Every connector, seal or component of an oxygen system must be scrupulously free of any trace of grease or oil. Greasing an oxygen cylinder connector is a serious fault that can cause a fire or explosion when the valve is opened. Oxygen equipment must be maintained using only compatible special products. ### Q63: After a mid-air collision at approximately 400 m, you must abandon the glider. When should you open the parachute? ^q63 - A) Just before exiting the glider - B) 2 to 3 seconds after leaving the glider - C) Immediately after leaving the glider - D) When you reach a stabilised freefall phase **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** At a height of approximately 400 m, the available time is very limited. The parachute must be opened immediately after leaving the glider, without delay or freefall phase. Freefall is reserved for high-altitude jumps where there is sufficient time and height. At low altitude, a delayed parachute opening may not leave enough height for a complete and safe descent. The rule: below approximately 600 m, open immediately. ### Q64: During an out-landing circuit, you realise on short final that the field is too short. What should you do? ^q64 - A) Attempt a turn to find a longer field - B) Reduce speed to the minimum to shorten the landing distance - C) Maintain heading and land with full airbrakes to stop as early as possible - D) Extend full airbrakes and prepare for an emergency stop using all available means **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** On short final for a field that is too short, it is too late to look for another option — turning at low altitude is extremely dangerous. The only correct response is to use all available means to minimise the landing distance: full airbrakes, minimum safe approach speed, maximum wheel braking. The pilot must prepare for an emergency stop and accept a short-field landing. This situation underlines the importance of selecting the field and committing to the decision early enough to retain options. ### Q65: What does FLARM do? ^q65 - A) Recommends avoidance manoeuvres when a collision risk is detected - B) Shows the exact position of all aircraft equipped with FLARM or a transponder - C) Alerts to the presence of other FLARM-equipped aircraft that could pose a danger - D) Indicates the exact position of other gliders **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** FLARM is a traffic alerting system that detects the presence of other aircraft equipped with the same system and assesses potential collision risks. It alerts to threats but does not provide prescribed avoidance manoeuvres (unlike the TCAS fitted to airliners) and does not indicate an exact position but an approximate direction and distance. It only detects FLARM-equipped aircraft — not all aircraft, nor those fitted only with a conventional Mode C transponder. ### Q66: Landing at a high-altitude aerodrome with no wind, at what indicated airspeed should you fly the approach? ^q66 - A) About 5 km/h lower than the sea-level approach speed - B) The same indicated airspeed as at sea level - C) About 5 km/h higher than the sea-level approach speed - D) Increase the speed by 1% per 100 m of altitude above sea level **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The approach to a high-altitude aerodrome is flown at the same indicated airspeed (IAS) as at sea level. IAS is what matters for stall margins — lift depends on the dynamic pressure measured by the airspeed indicator, not on air density. At altitude, the true airspeed (TAS) will be higher for the same IAS, which will extend the landing distance, but the indicated approach speed remains the same. It is the longer ground roll that must be accounted for when selecting the field. ### Q67: What do you notice when flying into the centre of a downdraft? ^q67 - A) One wing lifts and the aircraft begins to turn - B) The glider accelerates and you feel a brief increase in g-load - C) The glider decelerates and you feel a brief decrease in g-load - D) The nose rises and you feel a brief increase in g-load **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When entering a downdraft (descending air mass), the air mass pushes the glider downward, momentarily reducing the effective lift. The pilot feels a brief decrease in g-load (a sensation of lightness or floating in the seat), and the indicated airspeed may drop slightly as the relative airflow changes. This is the opposite effect of entering a thermal (updraft), where an increase in g-load is felt (a sensation of increased weight). ### Q68: During a cross-country flight over the Jura, you notice cirrus clouds forming to the west. What should you expect? ^q68 - A) Increasing instability aloft promoting stronger thermals - B) A transition from cumulus-based thermals to blue (dry) thermals - C) Fewer thermals due to reduced solar radiation - D) The cirrus has no influence on thermal conditions below **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Cirrus to the west generally signal the approach of a warm front or a depression. The progressive thickening of the cloud veil reduces the solar radiation reaching the ground, which weakens surface heating and therefore thermal activity. The cross-country pilot must anticipate a deterioration in soaring conditions: fewer thermals, less powerful, and potentially a general weather deterioration in the hours ahead.