# Human Performance > 111 questions --- ### Q1: What is the primary cause of the majority of aviation accidents? ^q1 - A) Geographical influences. - B) Human failure. - C) Meteorological influences. - D) Technical failure. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Studies consistently show that approximately 70-80% of aviation accidents involve human error as a primary or contributing factor. This includes errors in judgment, decision-making, situational awareness, and task management. Technical failures account for a much smaller proportion, which is why human factors training is central to aviation safety curricula. ### Q2: The "Swiss cheese model" is used to explain which concept? ^q2 - A) The procedure for an emergency landing. - B) The optimal problem solution. - C) The error chain. - D) The state of readiness of a pilot. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** James Reason's Swiss Cheese Model illustrates how accidents occur when multiple layers of defence each have "holes" (latent and active failures) that align simultaneously, allowing a hazard to pass through all layers and cause an accident. Each slice of cheese represents a safety barrier, and an accident results from an error chain — not a single isolated failure. ### Q3: At 6000 ft altitude, what is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere? ^q3 - A) 12 % - B) 21 % - C) 18.9 % - D) 78 % **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The percentage composition of atmospheric gases remains constant at approximately 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen regardless of altitude. What changes with altitude is the partial pressure of oxygen: as total atmospheric pressure decreases, there are fewer oxygen molecules per breath, which is why hypoxia becomes a risk at altitude despite the unchanged percentage. ### Q4: What proportion of the atmosphere does nitrogen make up? ^q4 - A) 0.1 % - B) 1 % - C) 78 % - D) 21 % **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Nitrogen makes up approximately 78% of the atmosphere and is physiologically inert under normal conditions. However, at high pressures (such as during scuba diving), nitrogen dissolves into body tissues, and rapid decompression can cause nitrogen bubbles to form — the mechanism behind decompression sickness, which is also a concern for pilots who fly shortly after diving. ### Q5: At approximately which altitude is atmospheric pressure roughly half the sea-level value of 1013 hPa? ^q5 - A) 5000 ft - B) 22000 ft - C) 18000 ft - D) 10000 ft **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** At 18,000 ft (approximately 5,500 m), atmospheric pressure is roughly 500 hPa — half of the standard sea-level pressure of 1013.25 hPa. This means the partial pressure of oxygen is also halved, severely reducing the oxygen available to the body and making supplemental oxygen mandatory for unpressurised flight above this altitude. ### Q6: Air consists of oxygen, nitrogen, and other gases. What is the approximate percentage of other gases? ^q6 - A) 78 % - B) 0.1 % - C) 21 % - D) 1 % **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The remaining approximately 1% of the atmosphere is composed of trace gases, primarily argon (about 0.93%), with very small amounts of carbon dioxide, neon, helium, methane, and others. While these gases are present in only tiny amounts, carbon dioxide in particular plays a significant role in the body's respiratory drive and acid-base balance, relevant to hyperventilation physiology. ### Q7: What can cause carbon monoxide poisoning? ^q7 - A) Little sleep. - B) Unhealthy food. - C) Smoking. - D) Alcohol. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Carbon monoxide (CO) is produced by incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels and is present in cigarette smoke. CO binds to haemoglobin with an affinity approximately 200 times greater than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and preventing oxygen transport to tissues. In aviation, CO poisoning is also a risk from exhaust fume ingestion via heating systems, producing symptoms similar to hypoxia. ### Q8: What does the term "red-out" refer to? ^q8 - A) A rash during decompression sickness. - B) Distorted colour perception during sunrise and sunset. - C) Red-tinted vision during negative g-loads. - D) Anaemia caused by an injury. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Red-out occurs during sustained negative g-forces (e.g., in a pushover manoeuvre), which force blood toward the head and eyes. The increased blood pressure in the eye's vessels causes red vision, as the retina is flooded with blood. It is the opposite of grey-out and blackout, which result from positive g-forces draining blood away from the head. ### Q9: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilation? ^q9 - A) Tingling. - B) Cyanosis. - C) Spasm. - D) Disturbance of consciousness. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Hyperventilation — breathing too rapidly — causes excessive CO₂ to be expelled, leading to respiratory alkalosis. Symptoms include tingling (especially in the extremities and face), muscle spasms or tetany, dizziness, and disturbance of consciousness. Cyanosis (bluish skin discolouration from low blood oxygen) is a symptom of hypoxia, not hyperventilation, making it the exception here. ### Q10: Which symptom may indicate hypoxia? ^q10 - A) Blue marks all over the body. - B) Blue discolouration of lips and fingernails. - C) Muscle cramps in the upper body area. - D) Joint pain in knees and feet. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Cyanosis — the blue discolouration of lips, fingertips, and nail beds — is a classic sign of hypoxia, caused by deoxygenated haemoglobin in peripheral blood. Other hypoxia symptoms include euphoria, impaired judgement, headache, and loss of coordination. Joint pain is associated with decompression sickness, not hypoxia. ### Q11: Which human sense is most affected by hypoxia? ^q11 - A) Olfactory perception (smell). - B) Tactile perception (touch). - C) Visual perception (vision). - D) Auditory perception (hearing). **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Vision is the sense most sensitive to hypoxia because the retina has extremely high oxygen demands. Night vision is particularly affected first, with rod cell function degrading noticeably even at altitudes as low as 5,000-8,000 ft in the dark. Peripheral vision loss and reduced colour discrimination follow at higher altitudes, making hypoxia especially dangerous for flight. ### Q12: From approximately which altitude does the body begin to react to decreasing atmospheric pressure? ^q12 - A) 12000 feet - B) 10000 feet - C) 2000 feet - D) 7000 feet **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The body begins to show measurable physiological responses to reduced partial pressure of oxygen at around 7,000 ft, though healthy individuals can usually compensate through increased respiratory rate and cardiac output. Below this altitude, the body maintains adequate oxygenation without significant stress; above it, compensatory mechanisms become progressively taxed. ### Q13: At what altitude can the body no longer fully compensate for the effects of reduced atmospheric pressure? ^q13 - A) 5000 feet - B) 7000 feet - C) 12000 feet - D) 22000 feet **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Above approximately 12,000 ft, the body's compensatory mechanisms — increased breathing rate and heart rate — are no longer sufficient to maintain adequate blood oxygen saturation. Hypoxic symptoms become increasingly apparent and performance degradation is measurable. This is why EASA regulations require oxygen supplementation above 10,000 ft for extended periods, and above 13,000 ft at all times. ### Q14: What is the primary function of red blood cells (erythrocytes)? ^q14 - A) Blood sugar regulation. - B) Blood coagulation. - C) Immune defense. - D) Oxygen transport. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain haemoglobin, the iron-containing protein that binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it to tissues throughout the body. Any condition that reduces the number or function of red blood cells — such as anaemia, blood donation, or carbon monoxide poisoning — directly impairs the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and increases hypoxia risk at altitude. ### Q15: Which blood component is responsible for coagulation? ^q15 - A) Red blood cells (erythrocytes). - B) White blood cells (leucocytes). - C) Blood platelets (thrombocytes). - D) Capillaries of the arteries. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Blood platelets (thrombocytes) are small cell fragments that aggregate at sites of vascular injury and initiate the clotting cascade, forming a platelet plug to stop bleeding. They work together with clotting factors to form a stable fibrin clot. This function is distinct from the oxygen transport role of red blood cells and the immune role of white blood cells. ### Q16: What role do white blood cells (leucocytes) play? ^q16 - A) Blood coagulation. - B) Immune defense. - C) Oxygen transport. - D) Blood sugar regulation. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** White blood cells (leucocytes) are the cellular components of the immune system, defending the body against infections, foreign substances, and abnormal cells. They include lymphocytes, neutrophils, and monocytes, each with specialised roles. A pilot suffering from an active infection — indicated by elevated white blood cell count — may experience impaired cognition and should not fly until recovered. ### Q17: What is the function of blood platelets (thrombocytes)? ^q17 - A) Immune defense. - B) Blood sugar regulation. - C) Blood coagulation. - D) Oxygen transport. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Thrombocytes (platelets) are the primary agents of haemostasis — the process of stopping bleeding. They aggregate rapidly at injury sites and release chemical signals that activate the full coagulation cascade. Without adequate platelet function, even minor injuries can lead to excessive blood loss. This is relevant to pilots on anticoagulant medications, which require medical assessment. ### Q18: Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for hypoxia? ^q18 - A) Menstruation. - B) Diving. - C) Blood donation. - D) Smoking. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Scuba diving is a risk factor for decompression sickness (not hypoxia), due to nitrogen dissolving in tissues under high pressure and forming bubbles during ascent. Blood donation reduces red blood cell count (increasing hypoxia risk), smoking causes CO binding to haemoglobin (reducing oxygen transport), and menstruation can cause anaemia over time. Diving itself does not directly cause hypoxia at altitude. ### Q19: What is an appropriate response when a passenger suddenly feels unwell during cruise flight? ^q19 - A) Give additional oxygen and avoid low load factors. - B) Avoid conversation and choose a higher airspeed. - C) Adjust cabin temperature and avoid excessive bank. - D) Switch on the heater blower and provide thermal blankets. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A passenger feeling unwell in flight may be experiencing motion sickness, discomfort from temperature, or mild physiological stress. Adjusting cabin temperature to a comfortable level and minimising bank angle (reducing vestibular and acceleration stimuli) addresses the most likely causes without introducing new risks. Excessive bank aggravates motion sickness, and unnecessary oxygen administration can cause hyperventilation in some individuals. ### Q20: What is the correct term for an involuntary and stereotypical reaction to the stimulation of a receptor? ^q20 - A) Virulence. - B) Reduction. - C) Reflex. - D) Coherence. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A reflex is an involuntary, stereotyped neural response to a specific sensory stimulus, mediated through a reflex arc in the spinal cord or brainstem without conscious brain involvement. In aviation, understanding reflexes matters because some trained responses can become automatic (procedural memory), while unexpected reflexes — such as startle responses — can interfere with controlled aircraft handling in emergencies. ### Q21: What is the name of the system that controls breathing, digestion, and heart rate, among other functions? ^q21 - A) Critical nervous system. - B) Compliant nervous system. - C) Automatical nervous system. - D) Autonomic nervous system. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The autonomic nervous system (ANS) regulates involuntary physiological functions including heart rate, breathing rate, digestion, and glandular secretion. It has two branches: the sympathetic ("fight or flight") and parasympathetic ("rest and digest") systems. In high-stress flight situations, sympathetic activation increases heart rate and alertness but can also impair fine motor control and narrow attentional focus. ### Q22: What is the parallax error? ^q22 - A) Long-sightedness due to aging, especially at night. - B) Misperception of speed during taxiing. - C) A decoding error in communication between pilots. - D) Incorrect interpretation of instruments caused by the viewing angle. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Parallax error occurs when an instrument is read from an angle rather than directly face-on, causing the observer's line of sight to pass through the needle or pointer at an offset, giving a false reading. This is particularly relevant for analogue instruments with a gap between the pointer and the scale face. Pilots should always read instruments from directly in front to avoid this systematic error. ### Q23: What characteristic is most important when choosing sunglasses for use by pilots? ^q23 - A) Curved sidepiece. - B) Unbreakable lenses. - C) Non-polarised lenses. - D) No UV filter. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Pilots must use non-polarised sunglasses because polarised lenses eliminate horizontally reflected light, which can make LCD displays, glass cockpit instruments, and certain reflective surfaces — such as water or other aircraft — invisible or severely distorted. UV protection and good optical quality are desirable, but the non-polarised requirement is the safety-critical aviation-specific characteristic. ### Q24: What is the connection between the middle ear and the nose-throat region called? ^q24 - A) Cochlea. - B) Inner ear. - C) Eustachian tube. - D) Eardrum. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The Eustachian tube (auditory tube) connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing pressure equalisation between the middle ear cavity and the external environment. During altitude changes, it opens (usually when swallowing or yawning) to prevent the pressure differential that causes ear pain (barotitis media). Blockage due to congestion from a cold makes pressure equalisation impossible and can cause severe pain or eardrum rupture. ### Q25: In which situation is pressure equalisation between the middle ear and the environment impossible? ^q25 - A) When breathing only through the mouth. - B) During a light and slow climb. - C) When the Eustachian tube is blocked. - D) When all windows are completely closed. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When the Eustachian tube is blocked — typically due to a cold, sinus infection, or allergic congestion — the mucous membrane swells and prevents the tube from opening. This traps air in the middle ear at the previous ambient pressure, creating a painful pressure differential during ascent or descent. Pilots are advised not to fly with upper respiratory infections for this reason. ### Q26: After levelling the wings following a prolonged turn, what false impression may arise? ^q26 - A) Starting a descent. - B) Turning in the opposite direction. - C) Steady turning in the same direction as before. - D) Starting a climb. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** This is the "leans" or graveyard spiral illusion, rooted in semicircular canal adaptation. During a prolonged coordinated turn, the fluid in the relevant semicircular canal adapts to the rotation and ceases sending turn signals. When the pilot levels the wings, the canal detects a rotation in the opposite direction, creating the false sensation of turning the other way — which can cause a pilot to re-enter the original bank. ### Q27: Which of the following does NOT trigger motion sickness or disorientation? ^q27 - A) Non-accelerated straight and level flight. - B) Turbulence in level flight. - C) Head movements during turns. - D) Flying under the influence of alcohol. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Motion sickness is triggered by conflicting sensory signals — typically between the visual system and the vestibular (balance) system. Constant, non-accelerated straight-and-level flight produces no vestibular stimulation and no sensory conflict, so it does not provoke motion sickness. Head movements during turns, turbulence, and alcohol (which alters endolymph density) all create or amplify sensory conflicts. ### Q28: What optical illusion may result from approaching a runway with an upslope? ^q28 - A) The pilot feels the approach is too fast and reduces speed below normal. - B) The pilot feels the approach is too high and descends below the correct glide slope. - C) The pilot feels the approach is too slow and increases speed above normal. - D) The pilot feels the approach is too low and flies above the regular glide slope. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A runway that slopes upward away from the pilot appears shorter and steeper than a flat runway, giving the visual impression of being higher than the actual glide slope. The pilot, perceiving the approach as too high, instinctively descends below the correct approach path — creating a dangerous undershoot risk. This illusion is a well-documented cause of controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) on visual approaches. ### Q29: What perceived impression may arise when approaching a runway with an upslope? ^q29 - A) A hard landing. - B) An overshoot. - C) A landing beside the centerline. - D) An undershoot. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Note: this question asks about the impression (what the pilot feels), not the actual outcome. An upsloping runway makes the pilot feel too high, so they perceive an overshoot situation. In response, the pilot may descend below the correct glide path, which in reality leads to an undershoot — but the perceived impression driving that incorrect correction is of being too high and overshooting. ### Q30: When is vertigo most likely to occur from head movement? ^q30 - A) During a descent. - B) During straight horizontal flight. - C) During a turn. - D) During a climb. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Vertigo (specifically the Coriolis illusion) is most likely when the head is moved in a different plane during an ongoing turn. The semicircular canals are already stimulated by the turn, and adding a head movement (such as looking down at a chart) stimulates a second set of canals simultaneously, creating an overwhelming and disorienting sensation of tumbling or rotation. This is one of the most incapacitating spatial disorientation illusions. ### Q31: What causes a grey-out? ^q31 - A) Tiredness. - B) Positive g-forces. - C) Hypoxia. - D) Hyperventilation. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Grey-out is a progressive loss of colour vision and peripheral vision caused by positive g-forces pulling blood away from the head toward the lower body. As blood pressure in the retinal arteries drops, the retina (which has the highest oxygen demand of any body tissue) first loses colour perception (grey-out), then vision altogether (blackout), and finally consciousness (G-LOC — g-induced loss of consciousness). ### Q32: Visual illusions are primarily caused by... ^q32 - A) Colour blindness. - B) Misinterpretation by the brain. - C) Rapid eye movements. - D) Binocular vision. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Visual illusions occur because the brain actively constructs perception based on prior expectations, patterns, and assumptions rather than passively recording reality. When environmental cues are ambiguous, incomplete, or unusual (as is common in aviation — unfamiliar terrain, unusual lighting, featureless sky), the brain fills in gaps with "best guesses" that can be dangerously wrong. Recognising this active interpretive process is key to mitigating illusion risk. ### Q33: What is the average rate at which blood alcohol level decreases in an adult per hour? ^q33 - A) 0.3 percent. - B) 0.03 percent. - C) 0.1 percent. - D) 0.01 percent. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The liver metabolises alcohol at a roughly constant rate of approximately 0.01% (0.1 g/L) blood alcohol concentration per hour, largely independent of body weight or the amount consumed. This means that after a night of drinking, significant alcohol impairment can persist well into the following day. EASA regulations prohibit flying with a blood alcohol level above 0.2 g/L, and the "8-hour bottle to throttle" rule is a minimum — not a guarantee of sobriety. ### Q34: Which of the following is a risk factor for diabetes? ^q34 - A) Alcohol consumption. - B) Overweight. - C) Sleep deficiency. - D) Smoking. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Overweight and obesity are the primary modifiable risk factors for type 2 diabetes, as excess adipose tissue — particularly visceral fat — causes insulin resistance. Type 2 diabetes is a significant concern in aviation medicine because it can cause hypoglycaemic episodes that impair consciousness and cognitive function, and because many diabetes medications are incompatible with a medical certificate. ### Q35: What is a risk factor for decompression sickness? ^q35 - A) 100 % oxygen after decompression. - B) Scuba diving prior to flight. - C) Sports. - D) Smoking. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Scuba diving causes nitrogen to dissolve into body tissues under elevated ambient pressure. If the diver then flies before sufficient off-gassing time has elapsed (typically 12-24 hours depending on dive profile), the reduced cabin pressure causes nitrogen to come out of solution and form bubbles in tissues and blood — decompression sickness ("the bends"). Breathing 100% oxygen after decompression actually accelerates nitrogen elimination and is a treatment, not a risk factor. ### Q36: Which statement about short-term memory is correct? ^q36 - A) It can store 3 (plus or minus 1) items for 5 to 10 seconds. - B) It can store 10 (plus or minus 5) items for 30 to 60 seconds. - C) It can store 7 (plus or minus 2) items for 10 to 20 seconds. - D) It can store 5 (plus or minus 2) items for 1 to 2 minutes. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** George Miller's classic 1956 research established that short-term (working) memory has a capacity of 7 ± 2 chunks of information, retained for approximately 10-20 seconds without active rehearsal. In aviation, this limitation is critically important: ATC clearances, frequencies, and altitudes must be written down immediately because they will be lost from working memory within seconds if not rehearsed or recorded. ### Q37: For approximately how long can short-term memory retain information? ^q37 - A) 35 to 50 seconds. - B) 10 to 20 seconds. - C) 3 to 7 seconds. - D) 30 to 40 seconds. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Without active rehearsal or encoding, items held in short-term (working) memory fade within approximately 10-20 seconds. This is why read-back procedures in aviation communication are essential — they force the pilot to actively process and repeat information, moving it from passive short-term storage into a more durable encoded state, and simultaneously allow ATC to verify correct receipt. ### Q38: What is a latent error? ^q38 - A) An error which has an immediate effect on the controls. - B) An error which only has consequences after landing. - C) An error which remains undetected in the system for a long time. - D) An error which is made by the pilot actively and consciously. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In James Reason's error model, latent errors (or latent conditions) are failures embedded in the system — poor design, inadequate procedures, organisational pressures, or maintenance shortcuts — that remain dormant and undetected until they combine with an active error to cause an accident. Unlike active errors (committed by front-line operators), latent errors originate at management and design levels and can lie dormant for years. ### Q39: What is the term for the ongoing process of monitoring the current flight situation? ^q39 - A) Constant flight check. - B) Anticipatory check procedure. - C) Situational thinking. - D) Situational awareness. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Situational awareness (SA) — defined by Mica Endsley — is the continuous perception of elements in the environment, comprehension of their meaning, and projection of their future status. It is the foundation of good aeronautical decision-making. Loss of situational awareness (LSA) is a primary contributing factor in controlled flight into terrain, mid-air collisions, and spatial disorientation accidents. ### Q40: In the communication model, how is the use of a shared code ensured during radio communication? ^q40 - A) By the use of radios certified for aviation use only. - B) By the use of standardised radio phraseology. - C) By the use of proper headsets. - D) By a particular frequency allocation. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Standardised ICAO radio telephony phraseology ensures that both the sender and receiver use identical, unambiguous codes with pre-agreed meanings, minimising the risk of misunderstanding. In communication theory, this corresponds to ensuring the transmitter and receiver share the same codebook. Errors in radio communication are a well-documented contributing factor in runway incursions and traffic conflicts. ### Q41: In what ways can a risk be handled appropriately? ^q41 - A) Avoid, reduce, transfer, accept. - B) Extrude, avoid, palliate, transfer. - C) Avoid, ignore, palliate, reduce. - D) Ignore, accept, transfer, extrude. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** The four standard risk management strategies are: Avoid (eliminate the activity or hazard), Reduce (implement controls to lower probability or severity), Transfer (shift the risk to another party, e.g., insurance), and Accept (consciously acknowledge the residual risk when it is within acceptable limits). Ignoring a risk is never an acceptable strategy in aviation risk management. ### Q42: Under which circumstances are higher risks more likely to be accepted? ^q42 - A) During check flights due to a high level of nervousness. - B) If there is not enough information available. - C) Due to group-dynamic effects. - D) During flight planning when excellent weather is forecast. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Group dynamics can cause "risky shift" — the phenomenon where groups tend to make bolder, riskier decisions than individuals acting alone. Social pressure, the desire to conform, diffusion of responsibility, and the presence of perceived experts can all suppress individual risk awareness. This is a core concept in Crew Resource Management (CRM), where junior crew members may fail to challenge a captain's poor decision. ### Q43: Which dangerous attitudes are often found together? ^q43 - A) Macho and invulnerability. - B) Impulsivity and carefulness. - C) Self-abandonment and macho. - D) Invulnerability and self-abandonment. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** The FAA identifies five hazardous attitudes in aviation: macho, invulnerability, impulsivity, resignation (self-abandonment), and anti-authority. Macho ("I can do it") and invulnerability ("It won't happen to me") are frequently found together because both stem from overconfidence and underestimation of risk. A pilot who thinks they are immune from accidents (invulnerability) is also prone to taking unnecessary risks to demonstrate skill (macho). ### Q44: What behaviour indicates a macho attitude? ^q44 - A) Careful walkaround procedure. - B) Comprehensive risk assessment in unfamiliar situations. - C) Risky flight manoeuvres to impress spectators on the ground. - D) Quick resignation in complex and critical situations. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The macho attitude is characterised by the need to demonstrate bravery, skill, or daring — often to an audience. Performing risky manoeuvres to impress observers is a textbook example: the pilot prioritises ego and external validation over safety margins. This attitude is particularly dangerous because it actively creates hazardous situations that would otherwise never arise. The antidote is the reminder: "Taking chances is foolish." ### Q45: Which factor can lead to human error? ^q45 - A) Proper use of checklists. - B) Being doubtful if something looks unclear or ambiguous. - C) The tendency to see what we expect to see. - D) Double-checking of relevant actions. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Confirmation bias — the tendency to perceive and interpret information in a way that confirms pre-existing expectations — is a major source of human error in aviation. Pilots may misread an instrument, misidentify a runway, or fail to notice an abnormality because their brain filters incoming information through what it expects to see. This is why structured scan patterns, checklists, and cross-checking are essential countermeasures. ### Q46: What is the best combination of personality traits for a pilot? ^q46 - A) Extroverted and stable. - B) Introverted and unstable. - C) Introverted and stable. - D) Extroverted and unstable. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Aviation psychology research identifies extroversion and emotional stability as the most beneficial personality traits for pilots. Extroversion supports effective communication, crew coordination, and assertiveness needed for CRM. Emotional stability (low neuroticism) ensures the pilot remains calm and rational under pressure, maintains consistent performance, and does not overreact to stress — all critical for safe flight operations. ### Q47: What makes complacency a risk? ^q47 - A) The high number of mistakes normally made by humans. - B) The high error rate of technical systems. - C) Better training options for young pilots. - D) Increased cockpit automation. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Automation complacency occurs when pilots over-rely on automated systems and progressively reduce their active monitoring of aircraft state. As cockpit automation becomes more sophisticated and reliable, pilots may become less vigilant, lose situational awareness, and suffer skill degradation. When automation fails — precisely when manual flying skills are most needed — the complacent pilot may be unprepared to take over effectively. ### Q48: On the Yerkes-Dodson diagram, where is the ideal level of arousal? (P = Performance, A = Arousal/Stress) ^q48 ![Yerkes-Dodson Curve](figures/HPL-002-yerkes-dodson.svg) - A) Point D - B) Point A - C) Point B - D) Point C **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The Yerkes-Dodson law describes the inverted-U relationship between arousal (stress) and performance. Point B represents the peak of the curve — the optimal level of arousal where performance is maximised. Too little arousal (Point A: boredom, fatigue) leads to poor performance due to inattention; too much arousal (Points C, D: high stress, panic) degrades performance through tunnel vision, cognitive narrowing, and loss of fine motor control. ### Q49: On the Yerkes-Dodson diagram, at which point is a pilot overstrained? (P = Performance, A = Arousal/Stress) ^q49 - A) Point D - B) Point A - C) Point B - D) Point C **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Point D represents the far right of the Yerkes-Dodson curve — excessive arousal and stress — where performance collapses. At this level, the pilot is overwhelmed, unable to process information effectively, and may exhibit tunnel vision (fixating on one problem while ignoring others), panic responses, or cognitive freezing. Recognising the signs of overstrain and applying stress management techniques (slowing down, prioritising tasks) is a core CRM skill. ### Q50: Which of the following qualities are influenced by stress? 1. Attention 2. Concentration 3. Responsiveness 4. Memory ^q50 - A) 1 only. - B) 2 and 4 only. - C) 1, 2, and 3 only. - D) 1, 2, 3, and 4. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Stress affects all four cognitive functions listed. Under high stress, attention narrows (tunnel vision), concentration becomes difficult to maintain, reaction times are altered (initially faster, then degraded under extreme stress), and memory — particularly working memory retrieval and encoding — is impaired by elevated cortisol and sympathetic activation. This is why emergency procedures must be practiced to the point of automaticity: procedural memory is more stress-resistant than declarative recall. ### Q51: The proportion of oxygen in the air at sea level is 21 %. What is this percentage at 5 km (16 400 ft)? ^q51 - A) 15 % - B) 5 % - C) 21 % - D) 10 % **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The proportion of oxygen remains constant at 21% regardless of altitude. It is the partial pressure that decreases. ### Q52: What can be said about the signs of oxygen deficiency? ^q52 - A) They are immediately clearly noticeable. - B) They consist of extreme difficulty in breathing (gasping for air). - C) They appear in smokers at lower altitudes than in non-smokers. - D) They can appear from as low as 4000 ft altitude. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Smokers already have an elevated CO level in their blood, so hypoxia manifests earlier. ### Q53: What is true about carbon monoxide? ^q53 - A) It is a by-product of chemical energy production in cells. - B) It is toxic and results from incomplete combustion, such as a leaking exhaust system in an aircraft. - C) It has a sweet smell and is only harmful in very high doses. - D) It is, together with oxygen and hydrogen, one of the most important atmospheric elements. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** CO is a product of incomplete combustion, odourless and highly toxic (binds to haemoglobin). ### Q54: How long does it generally take for the human eye to fully adapt to darkness? ^q54 - A) Approximately 15 minutes. - B) Approximately 1 hour. - C) Approximately 30 minutes. - D) Approximately 5 minutes. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Full dark adaptation (scotopic vision) takes approximately 30 minutes. ### Q55: What can low blood pressure cause? ^q55 - A) No problems at all. - B) Dizziness. - C) Problems mainly at rest in a lying position. - D) Recurring issues especially in elderly smokers. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Hypotension can cause dizziness, particularly during changes of posture (orthostatic hypotension). ### Q56: At 20 000 ft (6100 m) without a pressurised cabin or oxygen, what symptom will most likely occur? ^q56 - A) Dyspnoea. - B) Altitude sickness with pulmonary oedema. - C) Loss of consciousness. - D) Fever. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** At 20,000 ft without oxygen, the time of useful consciousness (TUC) is very short — rapid loss of consciousness occurs. ### Q57: When flying with a severe head cold, sharp sinus pain occurs most during which phase? ^q57 - A) During accelerations. - B) During climb. - C) During descent. - D) With every significant change in flight altitude. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** During descent, external pressure increases and air cannot equalise within the blocked sinuses. ### Q58: What are the symptoms of motion sickness (kinetosis)? ^q58 - A) High fever, dizziness, watery diarrhoea. - B) Watery diarrhoea, vomiting, headache. - C) High fever, vomiting, headache. - D) Dizziness, sweating, nausea. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Motion sickness manifests as dizziness, sweating, nausea and possibly vomiting. ### Q59: During a normal approach to an unusually wide runway, what impression may a pilot have? ^q59 - A) Being at too low a height. - B) Being at too great a height. - C) Approaching at too high a speed. - D) Approaching at too low a speed. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Wide runway = impression of being lower/slower than in reality (visual illusion). The pilot tends to fly too high. ### Q60: Under positive g-forces, grey-out precedes blackout. Which organ is primarily affected? ^q60 - A) The lungs. - B) The brain. - C) The eyes. - D) The muscles. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Greyout affects the eyes (retina) first as they are the most sensitive to reduced blood supply. ### Q61: When scanning the sky to detect other aircraft, a pilot should... ^q61 - A) Try to take in the visible sky with large sweeping eye movements. - B) Scan sector by sector, letting the eyes rest briefly on each sector. - C) Roll the eyes across as wide a field of vision as possible. - D) Move the eyes as rapidly as possible to cover the entire visible sky. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Correct technique: systematic sector-by-sector scan with a pause on each sector. ### Q62: At what rate is alcohol eliminated from the body? ^q62 - A) 1 per mille per hour. - B) 0.5 per mille per hour. - C) 0.1 per mille per hour. - D) 0.3 per mille per hour. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The body eliminates alcohol at approximately 0.1 to 0.15 per mille per hour. Value used for examination purposes: 0.1 per mille/h. ### Q63: Which of the following factors increases the risk of heart attack? ^q63 - A) Cholesterol level too low. - B) Hypoglycaemia. - C) Lack of exercise. - D) Undernutrition. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Lack of physical exercise is a recognised cardiovascular risk factor. ### Q64: Amphetamine is a stimulant obtainable on prescription. What applies to pilots on duty? ^q64 - A) Permitted on flights longer than 5 hours to stay awake. - B) Only permitted if accompanied by a qualified co-pilot. - C) Due to its adverse effects, pilots on duty are not permitted to take this medication. - D) Should always be at hand for moments of fatigue on flights over 5 hours. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Amphetamines are strictly prohibited for pilots on duty (dangerous side effects). ### Q65: What is meant by "risk area awareness" in aviation? ^q65 - A) The awareness that the aerodrome taxiing area is a dangerous zone. - B) A procedure for preventing aviation accidents. - C) Awareness of the potential hazards of the various phases of flight. - D) Knowledge of accident rates during takeoff and landing. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** "Risk area awareness" = awareness of the risks associated with each phase of flight. ### Q66: The DECIDE model is widely used in aviation decision-making. What does the first "D" stand for? ^q66 - A) The first D stands for "Do" and means "Apply the best option". - B) The first D stands for "Detect" and means "Recognise that a change has occurred which requires attention". - C) The first E stands for "Evaluate" and means "Assess the consequences of one's actions". - D) DECIDE is a decision-making aid that must be applied in every in-flight decision situation. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** DECIDE: Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate. The D = Detect (detect the change). ### Q67: Regarding typical hazardous attitudes, which statement is correct? ^q67 - A) An anti-authority attitude is less dangerous than macho behaviour. - B) It is possible to recognise and correct one's own hazardous attitudes. - C) Inexperienced pilots are generally the only ones who behave dangerously. - D) Hazardous attitudes do not really exist because flight safety depends solely on attention. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Hazardous attitudes (anti-authority, macho, invulnerability, resignation, impulsivity) can be recognised and corrected. ### Q68: Which statement correctly describes "selective attention"? ^q68 - A) It refers to focusing attention on instruments when visibility is poor. - B) It is a method for avoiding stress. - C) It can cause a pilot to fail to notice an audible alarm even though it is perfectly audible. - D) It is unavoidable in the cockpit to avoid distraction during checklist recitation. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Selective attention = focusing on one task at the expense of other stimuli (e.g. an alarm goes unheard). ### Q69: Which statement about stress is correct? ^q69 - A) Under-stimulation causes no stress and has no negative effect on performance. - B) Stress is only caused by brief overload. - C) There is an optimal level of stress that even improves performance. - D) Stress in the cockpit always improves the work rate. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Yerkes-Dodson curve: an optimal level of stress (eustress) improves performance. ### Q70: The human internal clock has a cycle of approximately... ^q70 - A) 30 hours. - B) Exactly 24 hours, synchronised with the external clock. - C) 25 hours. - D) 20 hours. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The endogenous circadian rhythm is approximately 25 hours (reset daily by light). ### Q71: Which measure is suitable for relieving the onset of motion sickness in passengers? ^q71 - A) Drinking coffee. - B) Breathing fresh air. - C) Looking through the windows. - D) Moving the head regularly. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** For motion sickness, getting fresh air is the most effective remedy. Looking through portholes can worsen it, and head movements also aggravate motion sickness. Fresh air stabilizes the autonomic nervous system. ### Q72: A pilot trained mainly on narrow runways approaches a flat, very wide runway. What illusion will they experience on a correct final? ^q72 - A) The illusion of being lower above the runway than is actually the case. - B) The illusion that the runway slopes upward. - C) The illusion of being at a greater height than is actually the case. - D) The illusion that the runway slopes upward then downward. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** A pilot trained on narrow runways, facing a wide runway, will have the illusion of being lower above the runway than in reality (height underestimation). This can lead to a flare too high. ### Q73: When are middle ear pressure equalisation problems most likely to occur? ^q73 - A) During a rapid descent. - B) During strong negative vertical accelerations. - C) During a long climb. - D) During a long flight at high altitude. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Middle ear pressure problems occur most often during rapid descent, as the Eustachian tube must compensate for increasing external pressure. It opens more easily during ascent. ### Q74: The proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21 % at sea level. How does it change at 5500 m? ^q74 - A) It is one quarter of the sea level percentage. - B) It is the same as at sea level. - C) It is half the sea level percentage. - D) It is double the sea level percentage. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere remains approximately 21% regardless of altitude (the atmosphere is homogeneous in composition up to 80 km). What changes is the partial pressure of O2, which decreases with altitude. ### Q75: What are the effects of inhaling carbon monoxide from a defective exhaust system? ^q75 - A) There are no harmful effects as the body compensates for the reduced oxygen supply. - B) Harmful effects are only expected if the body is exposed for several hours. - C) Even in low concentrations, this gas can cause total incapacitation. - D) There are no harmful effects as carbon monoxide is harmless. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Carbon monoxide (CO), even in low concentrations, binds to hemoglobin (200x stronger than O2) and can cause total incapacitation very rapidly. It is extremely dangerous. ### Q76: What is the most effective hearing protection in the cabin of a powered aircraft? ^q76 - A) Ear plugs. - B) Due to low noise, any protection is effective. - C) A helmet with earphones. - D) Cotton wool. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A helmet with earphones is the most effective hearing protection as it covers the entire ear and attenuates the most harmful frequencies. Cotton wool and earplugs are less effective. ### Q77: Gas-forming foods should be avoided before high-altitude flights. Which food must therefore be avoided? ^q77 - A) Potatoes. - B) Legumes (beans). - C) Meat. - D) Pasta. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Legumes (beans, peas, lentils) produce intestinal gas. At high altitude, these gases expand (Boyle's law) and can cause severe abdominal pain. ### Q78: In the respiratory process, somatic cells... ^q78 - A) Absorb nitrogen and release oxygen. - B) Absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide (CO2). - C) Absorb oxygen and release nitrogen. - D) Absorb oxygen and release carbon monoxide (CO). **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Somatic cells absorb oxygen (O2) and release carbon dioxide (CO2) during cellular metabolism (cellular respiration). This process releases energy stored in nutrients. ### Q79: A regular smoker smokes before an alpine flight. What effect might this have on flight fitness? ^q79 - A) No effects to fear as the body is accustomed to the harmful substances. - B) Mild carbon dioxide poisoning causing dizziness and numbness. - C) The pilot will experience oxygen deficiency at a lower altitude than if they had not smoked. - D) Nicotine may cause mild disturbances of consciousness and difficulty concentrating. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Cigarette smoke contains carbon monoxide (CO), which binds to hemoglobin. This reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, so the pilot will feel oxygen deficiency at a lower altitude than if they had not smoked. ### Q80: When is the risk of vestibular disturbance causing dizziness greatest? ^q80 - A) When rotating the head during a descent. - B) When rotating the head during a coordinated turn. - C) When rotating the head during a climb. - D) When rotating the head during straight-and-level flight. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The risk of dizziness is greatest when rotating the head during a coordinated turn. The semi-circular canals are already stimulated by the turn; a head movement in a perpendicular plane stimulates canals in a different plane, causing vertigo (Coriolis illusion). ### Q81: How can a pilot better withstand positive g-forces? ^q81 - A) By sitting as upright as possible. - B) By tightening harness straps as much as possible. - C) By relaxing muscles and leaning forward. - D) By contracting abdominal and leg muscles and performing forced breathing. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** To better withstand positive g-forces, the pilot should contract abdominal and leg muscles and perform forced breathing (L-1 maneuver). This increases abdominal pressure and delays g-LOC. ### Q82: What are the most dangerous effects of oxygen deficiency? ^q82 - A) Blue discoloration of fingernails and lips. - B) Nausea. - C) Impairment of judgment and concentration. - D) Tingling sensations. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Impairment of judgment and concentration is the most dangerous effect of oxygen deficiency because the pilot does not realize they are incapable. Physical signs (tingling, cyanosis) often appear too late. ### Q83: What can be said about the rate of blood alcohol elimination? ^q83 - A) It can be accelerated by drinking strong coffee. - B) It depends only on time and amounts to approximately 0.1 per mille per hour. - C) It depends on the alcohol content of the drink consumed. - D) It is accelerated by breathing pure oxygen. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The blood alcohol elimination rate is approximately 0.1 per mille per hour and depends only on time. Neither coffee, oxygen, nor the type of drink can significantly accelerate it. ### Q84: What effect does proprioception (deep sensitivity) have on position perception? ^q84 - A) In coordination with the balance organ, it gives a correct position impression even without visual references. - B) When visual references are lost, proprioception can give a false perception of position. - C) Proprioception alone is always sufficient to maintain correct position perception. - D) With sufficient training, proprioception can prevent spatial disorientation when visibility is lost. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When visual references are lost, proprioception (deep sensitivity) can give a false perception of position. It cannot replace visual references or instruments for maintaining spatial orientation. ### Q85: Which factor has no direct effect on visual acuity? ^q85 - A) Oxygen deficiency. - B) Alcohol. - C) High blood pressure. - D) Carbon monoxide (CO). **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** High blood pressure does not directly affect visual acuity in normal flight. However, oxygen deficiency, alcohol, and carbon monoxide directly reduce visual acuity. ### Q86: Up to what maximum altitude can a healthy body compensate for oxygen deficiency by increasing heart and breathing rate? ^q86 - A) Approximately 22 000 ft. - B) Approximately 3 000 ft. - C) Approximately 10 000-12 000 ft. - D) Approximately 6 000-7 000 ft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A healthy human body can compensate for oxygen deficiency by increasing heart rate and breathing rate up to approximately 10,000-12,000 ft. Beyond this, these compensation mechanisms are insufficient. ### Q87: What must be considered when taking over-the-counter medications? ^q87 - A) Over-the-counter medications have no side effects and no influence on flight fitness. - B) All flying is prohibited after taking any medication. - C) Even over-the-counter medications can influence flight fitness. - D) Over-the-counter medications only have insignificant side effects. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Even over-the-counter medications (aspirin, antihistamines, decongestants) can have side effects affecting flight fitness: drowsiness, reduced reflexes, blurred vision. A doctor should always be consulted. ### Q88: What sensory illusion can a linear acceleration produce in horizontal flight when visual references are lost? ^q88 - A) The impression of being in a left turn. - B) The impression of descending. - C) The impression of climbing. - D) The impression of being in a right turn. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A linear forward acceleration in horizontal flight is interpreted by the vestibular system as a climb, causing the somatogravic illusion. The otoliths cannot distinguish between gravitational and linear acceleration vectors. ### Q89: Vestibular disturbances during a turn can cause dizziness. What measure is most effective in preventing them? ^q89 - A) Breathe deeply and slowly, ensuring adequate fresh air. - B) Look out through the window in the direction of the turn. - C) Keep the head as still as possible during the turn. - D) Alternately move the head from right to left during the turn. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** To avoid vestibular vertigo in a turn, the best measure is to keep the head still during the turn. Head movements create the Coriolis illusion. ### Q90: What is the immediate effect of inhaling cigarette smoke on oxygen transport? ^q90 - A) Increased carbon dioxide content in the blood. - B) Lowered blood pressure. - C) Dilation of blood vessels. - D) Reduced oxygen transport in the blood. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Cigarette smoke inhalation slows oxygen transport in the blood (CO binds to hemoglobin). It does not increase CO2 (which is a cellular waste product). ### Q91: What is the relationship between oxygen deficiency and visual acuity? ^q91 - A) Oxygen deficiency has no effect on visual acuity. - B) Oxygen deficiency affects visual acuity only at night. - C) Oxygen deficiency can reduce visual acuity. - D) Oxygen deficiency affects visual acuity only during the day. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Oxygen deficiency can reduce visual acuity, especially night vision (rods) and contrast perception. This affects vision both day and night. ### Q92: Oxygen deficiency and hyperventilation share some symptoms. Which symptom always indicates oxygen deficiency specifically? ^q92 - A) Tingling sensations. - B) Blue lips and fingernails (cyanosis). - C) Hot and cold sensations. - D) Visual disturbance. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The only symptom that always indicates oxygen deficiency (not hyperventilation) is cyanosis: blue lips and fingernails. This objective physical sign cannot be caused by hyperventilation. ### Q93: What proportion of oxygen is in the air at approximately 34 000 ft? ^q93 - A) 10 % - B) 42 % - C) 21 % - D) 5 % **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere remains at 21% at all altitudes up to the stratosphere. What decreases is the partial pressure of oxygen, not its proportion. ### Q94: If all external visual references are suddenly lost during a visual flight, is spatial orientation possible using only cutaneous senses and proprioception? ^q94 - A) Possible only for experienced pilots. - B) Possible for only a few minutes. - C) Impossible. - D) Possible only after adequate training. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When all visual references are lost, spatial orientation using only cutaneous senses and proprioception is impossible. Without instruments, a pilot in IMC loses spatial orientation within seconds. ### Q95: What is the most probable and dangerous poisoning that can occur on board a piston-engine aircraft? ^q95 - A) Poisoning due to cosmic radiation at high altitude. - B) Carbon monoxide poisoning. - C) Ozone poisoning. - D) Poisoning due to leaded fuel vapors. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In a piston-engine aircraft, carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning from a defective exhaust system is the most likely and dangerous. CO is odorless, colorless and undetectable without a detector. ### Q96: What impression results from a correct final approach to a runway with a strong upslope? ^q96 - A) The impression of too shallow an approach. - B) The impression of too low an approach. - C) The impression of too high an approach. - D) The impression of landing too short. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A correct approach to a strongly upsloping runway gives the impression of being too high on approach. The runway slope deceives the visual system. ### Q97: Why should gas-forming foods be avoided before a high-altitude flight? ^q97 - A) Because they promote motion sickness. - B) Because gas expansion during descent can cause digestive pain. - C) Because at high altitudes, gases evaporate into the blood and cause decompression sickness. - D) Because gas expansion at high altitude can cause pain in the digestive system. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** At high altitude, gases expand (Boyle's law). Gas-forming foods produce gases that expand and can cause severe abdominal pain. ### Q98: Which blood component primarily transports oxygen? ^q98 - A) Blood platelets. - B) White blood cells. - C) Red blood cells. - D) Blood plasma. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Red blood cells (erythrocytes) primarily transport oxygen via hemoglobin. Other blood components do not have this primary function. ### Q99: What illusion can occur when visual references are lost during a prolonged coordinated turn? ^q99 - A) The impression of being in a descent. - B) The impression of being in a greater bank angle than actual. - C) The impression of being in a climb. - D) The impression of no longer being in a turn (wings level). **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** After a long coordinated turn, the vestibular system adapts to the turn. When the pilot returns to straight flight, they feel they are no longer turning (graveyard spiral illusion). ### Q100: A passenger drinks a strong alcoholic drink before departure. What effect must be expected at high altitude? ^q100 - A) At high altitude, the psychological effects of alcohol decrease. - B) Oxygen deficiency at high altitude amplifies the effects of alcohol. - C) Alcohol is eliminated more slowly at high altitude. - D) Alcohol is eliminated more rapidly at high altitude. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** At high altitude, oxygen deficiency amplifies the effects of alcohol. Reduced O2 partial pressure + increased CO2 from alcohol = multiplier effect on the CNS. ### Q101: What is the correct technique for seeing at night? ^q101 - A) Stare directly at all objects as directly as possible. - B) Scan objects with rapid large eye movements. - C) Do not stare directly at objects but look slightly to the side. - D) Stare directly at distant, faintly lit objects. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The correct night vision technique is to look slightly off-center (peripheral vision / rods). Central vision (cones) is less sensitive in darkness. ### Q102: Your passenger complains of middle ear pressure problems. How can you help? ^q102 - A) Stop the descent, climb if possible until pain subsides, then descend at a lower rate. - B) Descend at a higher rate until pain subsides, then continue at a lower rate. - C) Stop the climb, descend if possible until pain subsides, then climb again at a lower rate. - D) Stop the descent, climb if possible until pain subsides, then descend at a higher rate. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** For middle ear pressure problems: stop the descent, climb if possible until pain subsides, then descend at a slower rate (gradual decompression). ### Q103: Which symptom may indicate oxygen deficiency? ^q103 - A) Lung pain. - B) Joint pain. - C) Difficulty concentrating. - D) Reduced heart rate. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Difficulty concentrating is an early symptom of oxygen deficiency. The other symptoms mentioned (joint pain, pulmonary pain, slowed heart rate) are not characteristic. ### Q104: What causes motion sickness (kinetosis)? ^q104 - A) A strong reduction in atmospheric pressure. - B) Irritation of the balance organ. - C) A disorder of the middle ear. - D) Evaporation of gases into the blood. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Motion sickness results from irritation of the balance organ (inner ear / vestibule) due to conflicts between visual and vestibular information. ### Q105: What are the side effects of anti-motion-sickness medications? ^q105 - A) General weakness and loss of appetite. - B) Exhaustion and depression. - C) Hyperactivity and risk-taking tendency. - D) Drowsiness and slowed reaction time. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Anti-motion-sickness medications (antihistamines, scopolamine) often have side effects: drowsiness and slowed reaction time. This makes them dangerous for flying. ### Q106: What is decisive for the onset of noise-induced hearing loss? ^q106 - A) Only the intensity of the noise. - B) The sudden onset of a noise. - C) Both the duration and intensity of the noise. - D) Only the duration of noise exposure. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Noise-induced hearing loss depends on both the duration AND intensity of the noise. It is the sound dose (dB x time) that is determinant. ### Q107: Under increasing sustained positive g-loads, symptoms appear in which order? ^q107 - A) Loss of colour vision, peripheral vision reduction, total vision loss, loss of consciousness. - B) Red-out, peripheral vision reduction, total vision loss, loss of consciousness. - C) Loss of colour vision, peripheral vision reduction, red-out, loss of consciousness. - D) Loss of colour vision, red-out, peripheral vision reduction, loss of consciousness. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Sequence of symptoms with increasing positive Gs: 1) loss of color vision (grey-out), 2) peripheral vision reduction, 3) total vision loss (blackout), 4) loss of consciousness (G-LOC). ### Q108: From what altitude does a healthy person's body begin to compensate for oxygen deficiency by accelerating breathing rate? ^q108 - A) Approximately 10 000-12 000 ft. - B) Approximately 3 000-4 000 ft. - C) Approximately 6 000-7 000 ft. - D) From 12 000 ft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The body begins to compensate for oxygen deficiency by accelerating breathing rate at approximately 6000-7000 ft. Below this, compensation is not necessary. ### Q109: Which statement about stress is correct? ^q109 - A) Stress and its symptoms are irrelevant for flight safety. - B) Training and experience have no influence on the occurrence of stress. - C) Everybody reacts to stress in the same manner. - D) Stress can occur when there seems to be no solution for a given problem. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Stress commonly arises when a pilot perceives a threat or problem for which no satisfactory solution is apparent — this is the core definition of the stress response. Individual reactions to stress vary significantly depending on personality, experience, and coping strategies, making option A incorrect. Training and experience are proven to raise the stress threshold and reduce the frequency and severity of stress reactions, making option D wrong. Stress is directly relevant to flight safety, so option B is also incorrect. ### Q110: During flight you need to solve a problem. How should you proceed? ^q110 - A) Contact another pilot via radio for help while continuing to fly. - B) There is no time for solving problems during flight. - C) Primarily fly the aircraft and keep it stable, then attend to the problem while continuing to monitor the flight. - D) Solve the problem immediately, otherwise refer to the operating handbook. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The primary duty of any pilot is to aviate — maintain aircraft control and a stable flight path. Only once the aircraft is under control should the pilot attend to any secondary problem. Attempting to solve a problem while neglecting aircraft control (options A, B, C) risks losing situational awareness or aircraft control. Option D correctly prioritises flying first, then problem-solving, while continuously monitoring the aircraft. ### Q111: Which statement about hyperventilation is correct? ^q111 - A) Hyperventilation is always a consequence of oxygen deficiency. - B) Hyperventilation causes a deficiency of carbon monoxide (CO) in the blood. - C) Hyperventilation can be triggered by stress and anxiety. - D) Hyperventilation causes an excess of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Hyperventilation can be triggered by stress, anxiety, or excessive conscious breathing. It leads to a CO2 deficiency (hypocapnia), not an excess. Symptoms resemble oxygen deficiency.