# Air Law > 113 questions --- ### Q1: What topic does ICAO Annex 1 address? ^q1 - A) Air traffic services - B) Rules of the air - C) Flight crew licensing - D) Operation of aircraft **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ICAO Annex 1 covers Personnel Licensing, which includes standards for flight crew licences (PPL, CPL, ATPL), ratings, medical certificates, and instructor qualifications. Annex 2 covers Rules of the Air, Annex 11 covers Air Traffic Services, and Annex 6 covers Operation of Aircraft. Knowing the ICAO Annexes by number and subject is a standard Air Law exam requirement. ### Q2: A pilot licence issued in compliance with ICAO Annex 1 is recognised in... ^q2 - A) The country where the licence was obtained. - B) All ICAO Contracting States. - C) Only countries that have individually accepted this licence. - D) The country where the licence was issued. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ICAO Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing) establishes international standards for pilot licences. A licence issued in full compliance with Annex 1 standards is recognised and valid in all 193 ICAO Contracting States without requiring individual acceptance. This mutual recognition is a cornerstone of international civil aviation — it allows pilots to operate across borders seamlessly. Options A and D are the same concept (country of issue) and are too restrictive; option C incorrectly implies case-by-case acceptance is required. ### Q3: What legal status do the rules and procedures established by EASA have? (e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED) ^q3 - A) They have the same standing as ICAO Annexes - B) They form part of EU regulation and are directly binding in all EU member states - C) They become legally binding only after ratification by individual EU member states - D) They are non-binding and serve only as guidance material **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** EASA regulations such as Part-SFCL (Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1976) and Part-MED are published as EU Implementing Regulations or Delegated Regulations under the Basic Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. EU Regulations are directly applicable law in all member states without requiring national ratification — they are binding in their entirety. ICAO Annexes, by contrast, are standards and recommended practices (SARPs) that require national adoption and allow states to file differences; they do not have direct legislative force. ### Q4: What does the abbreviation "SERA" stand for? ^q4 - A) Standard European Routes of the Air - B) Specialized Radar Approach - C) Selective Radar Altimeter - D) Standardized European Rules of the Air **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** SERA stands for Standardised European Rules of the Air, established by Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012. SERA harmonises the rules of the air across all EU member states, implementing ICAO Annex 2 provisions at European level and adding EU-specific rules. It covers right-of-way rules, VMC minima, altimeter settings, signals, and related procedures. The other options are invented abbreviations not used in aviation. ### Q5: Which authority has the Federal Council entrusted with aviation oversight in Switzerland? ^q5 - A) Skyguide (Swiss air navigation services). - B) The Aero-Club of Switzerland. - C) The cantonal police forces. - D) DETEC (Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications). **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, the Federal Council delegates aviation oversight to the DETEC (Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications), which delegates to FOCA (BAZL/OFAC). Skyguide manages air navigation but is not the supervisory authority. ### Q6: Which activities may the Federal Council require OFAC authorization for? ^q6 - A) Only public air shows, aerobatic flights and aerobatic demonstrations on aircraft. - B) Parachute descents, captive balloon ascents, public air shows, aerobatic flights and aerobatic demonstrations on aircraft. - C) None of the activities listed above requires OFAC authorization. - D) Only parachute descents and captive balloon ascents. No authorization is required for powered aircraft. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** All of these special activities — parachuting, captive balloons, air shows, aerobatic flights and demonstrations — require OFAC (Federal Office of Civil Aviation) authorization. The Federal Council may subject all of these activities to prior authorization for reasons of public safety. ### Q7: Is dropping objects from an aircraft in flight prohibited in Switzerland? ^q7 - A) No, only the dropping of advertising material is prohibited. - B) No. - C) Yes, it is strictly prohibited without any exceptions. - D) Yes, subject to exceptions to be determined by the Federal Council. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Under Swiss aviation law, dropping objects from an aircraft in flight is in principle prohibited, but the Federal Council may define exceptions (for example: parachuting, emergency drops, authorized agricultural activities). It is neither an absolute prohibition nor a general authorization. ### Q8: Can the rules of the air applicable to aircraft be deviated from? ^q8 - A) Yes, but only in Class G airspace. - B) No, under no circumstances. - C) Yes, but only for safety reasons. - D) Yes, absolutely. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Deviation from air traffic rules is only permitted for safety reasons, and only to the extent strictly necessary. This is the only legal exception provided by ICAO Annex 2. ### Q9: An SPL or LAPL(S) licence holder completed 9 winch launches, 4 aero-tow launches and 2 bungee launches in the past 24 months. Which launch methods may this pilot use as PIC today? ^q9 - A) Winch and aero-tow. - B) Aero-tow and bungee. - C) Winch, bungee and aero-tow. - D) Winch and bungee. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Under Part-SFCL (SFCL.010 and SFCL.160), a pilot must have completed at least 5 launches using a specific launch method within the preceding 24 months to act as PIC using that method. The pilot has 9 winch (qualifies) and 2 bungee launches (qualifies, threshold is met), but only 4 aero-tow launches — which is below the required 5. Therefore, aero-tow is not permitted without additional training or a check flight with an instructor. ### Q10: Under what conditions is a person permitted to serve as a crew member on board an aircraft? ^q10 - A) When the person holds a valid licence issued by their country of origin. - B) When the person holds a valid licence issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated. - C) When the person holds a valid licence issued or recognized by the country in which the aircraft is registered. - D) When the person holds a valid licence recognized by their country of origin. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The licence must be issued or recognized by the country of registration of the aircraft. It is the state of registration that defines the qualification requirements for crew operating its aircraft, in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. ### Q11: For a 62-year-old pilot, the validity period of a Class 2 medical certificate is... ^q11 - A) 60 Months. - B) 24 Months. - C) 48 Months. - D) 12 Months. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Under Part-MED (Commission Regulation (EU) 1178/2011), a Class 2 medical certificate for pilots aged 40 and over is valid for 24 months — except for pilots exercising privileges to carry passengers, where validity is reduced. However, for pilots aged 50 and over (and particularly 60+), validity is reduced to 12 months regardless. At age 62, the Class 2 medical is valid for only 12 months. This reflects the increased medical scrutiny applied to older pilots. ### Q12: Your ophthalmologist has prescribed corrective lenses. Which statement is correct? ^q12 - A) You are immediately unfit to fly. - B) You can simply inform your aviation medical examiner at the next routine examination. - C) No action is needed. A well-corrected visual deficiency has no impact on medical fitness. - D) You must promptly consult your aviation medical examiner. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Any change in medical condition — including the prescription of corrective lenses — must be reported promptly to the aviation medical examiner (AME). Waiting until the next routine examination is not acceptable. The AME will determine whether the condition affects medical fitness and whether additional restrictions or conditions apply to the licence. ### Q13: Who bears the responsibility for ensuring that required onboard documents are carried and logbooks are properly maintained? ^q13 - A) The operator of the aircraft. - B) The air transport company. - C) The pilot-in-command. - D) The owner of the aircraft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** It is the pilot-in-command who is responsible for ensuring that the required documents are on board and properly maintained. This responsibility falls on the PIC regardless of ownership or operation of the aircraft. ### Q14: Which documents must be carried on board for an international flight? a) Certificate of aircraft registration b) Certificate of airworthiness c) Airworthiness review certificate d) EASA Form-1 e) Airplane logbook f) Appropriate papers for every crew member g) Technical logbook ^q14 - A) D, f, g - B) A, b, e, g - C) B, c, d, e, f, g - D) A, b, c, e, f **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 6 and EU Regulation 965/2012, international flights require: Certificate of Airworthiness (b), Airworthiness Review Certificate (c), EASA Form-1 or equivalent release document (d), the aircraft logbook/journey log (e), licences and medical certificates for each crew member (f), and the technical/maintenance logbook (g). The Certificate of Registration (a) is technically required too under ICAO Annex 7, but the answer set B, c, d, e, f, g (option C) represents the standard EASA enumeration tested in this question context. ### Q15: What validity period does the Certificate of Airworthiness have? ^q15 - A) 6 months - B) 12 months - C) 12 years - D) Unlimited **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) itself has unlimited validity — once issued, it remains valid as long as the aircraft continues to meet its type design standards and is properly maintained. What is periodically renewed (typically annually) is the Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC), which confirms that the aircraft's continuing airworthiness has been verified. The confusion between CofA and ARC is a common exam trap. ### Q16: What does the abbreviation "ARC" stand for? ^q16 - A) Airspace Restriction Criteria - B) Airworthiness Review Certificate - C) Airspace Rulemaking Committee - D) Airworthiness Recurring Control **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ARC stands for Airworthiness Review Certificate, as defined in EU Regulation 1321/2014 (Part-M). It is issued after a periodic airworthiness review (typically annual) confirms that the aircraft's continuing airworthiness documentation and condition are in order. It accompanies the Certificate of Airworthiness and must be current for the aircraft to be legally flown. The other options are fabricated terms not used in EASA or ICAO aviation law. ### Q17: The Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the state... ^q17 - A) In which the airworthiness review is performed. - B) Where the owner resides. - C) In which the aircraft is registered. - D) In which the aircraft was manufactured. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) and Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks), the Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the state of registry — the country where the aircraft is registered. The state of registry is responsible for ensuring the aircraft meets applicable airworthiness standards. This is separate from the owner's residence, place of manufacture, or where maintenance is performed. ### Q18: Where specifically is the certification basis of an aircraft defined? ^q18 - A) In the VFR Manual. - B) In the annex to the certificate of airworthiness. - C) In the insurance certificate. - D) In the annex to the noise certificate. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The certification basis (type certificate data sheet) is specified in the annex to the certificate of airworthiness. This document defines the approved operating conditions, mass limits, authorized flight categories and required equipment for the aircraft. ### Q19: Your aircraft, which is not used commercially, requires repair abroad. Which statement is correct? ^q19 - A) The work must be performed by an EASA-certified maintenance organization. - B) The work must be performed by a maintenance organization recognized by OFAC. - C) Repair work may only be performed in Switzerland. - D) The work must be performed by a maintenance organization recognized by the competent aviation authority. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** For an aircraft not used for commercial traffic, maintenance work performed abroad must be carried out by an organization recognized by the competent aviation authority of the country concerned — not necessarily by an EASA-certified organization or one specifically recognized by OFAC. The competent national authority of the country where the maintenance is performed is the applicable reference. ### Q20: Who is responsible for the regulatory maintenance of an aircraft? ^q20 - A) The maintenance organisation. - B) The mechanic. - C) The owner. - D) The operator. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The operator is responsible for the regulatory maintenance of an aircraft. For private aircraft, the owner often acts as the operator. ### Q21: In which document must technical deficiencies discovered during aircraft operation be recorded? ^q21 - A) In the operations manual. - B) In the journey log (aircraft logbook). - C) In the aircraft flight manual. - D) In the maintenance manual. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Technical deficiencies must be recorded in the aircraft's journey log (logbook/tech log). This is the official document tracking technical status. ### Q22: A well-known watchmaker has painted an aircraft in the brand's colours, displaying a large watch on its fuselage. Is this allowed? ^q22 - A) No, advertising is strictly prohibited on aircraft. - B) Yes, but only with FOCA authorization and provided the nationality and registration marks remain clearly identifiable. - C) Yes, subject to other provisions of federal legislation. The nationality and registration marks must in all cases remain easily recognizable. - D) Yes, provided FOCA has authorized it, the operation has no political purpose, and advertising markings are limited to specific parts of the aircraft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Advertising on aircraft is permitted under Swiss law, subject to other provisions of federal legislation. The only mandatory condition is that the nationality and registration marks remain easily recognizable. No special OFAC authorization is required to apply advertising markings. ### Q23: What conditions must be met to carry and use a radio on board? ^q23 - A) A radio communication licence must be issued for the radio and crew members must be trained in its use. - B) The radio's frequency increments must be at least 0.125 MHz and crew members using it must hold the corresponding qualification. - C) Authorization to install and use the radio must be granted and crew members using it must hold the corresponding qualification. - D) Authorization to install and use the radio must be granted and crew members must be trained in its use. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Two cumulative conditions are required: authorization to install and use the radio (granted by the competent authority) AND the radio qualification of crew members who use the equipment. Simple training is not sufficient — a formally recognized qualification is required. ### Q24: What must a pilot possess to be authorized to communicate by radio with air traffic services? ^q24 - A) A valid language proficiency attestation in the language used. - B) A radiotelephony course certificate and sufficient mastery of standard phraseology. - C) A radiotelephony qualification and a valid language proficiency attestation in the language used. - D) In all cases a radiotelephony qualification. Aeroplane and helicopter pilots must additionally hold a valid language proficiency attestation in the language used. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The radiotelephony qualification is mandatory for all pilots wishing to communicate with ATC services. Additionally, aeroplane and helicopter pilots (but not necessarily glider or balloon pilots under Swiss regulations) must also hold a valid language proficiency attestation in the language used on the frequencies. ### Q25: Are you permitted to use the aircraft radio to communicate with ATC if you do not hold the radiotelephony rating extension? ^q25 - A) Yes, provided other radio communications are not disrupted. - B) No. - C) Yes. - D) Yes, provided you have sufficient command of phraseology. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Yes, a pilot may use the aircraft radio to communicate with ATC without the radiotelephony extension, in airspaces where this is required. The radiotelephony qualification is needed for certain controlled airspaces but not for general radio use. ### Q26: Which type of airspace can be entered subject to certain restrictions? ^q26 - A) Prohibited area - B) No-fly zone - C) Dangerous area - D) Restricted area **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A restricted area (designated "R" on charts) can be entered subject to specific conditions published in the AIP, such as obtaining prior clearance from the responsible authority or ATC unit. A prohibited area ("P") cannot be entered under any circumstances — flight within is absolutely forbidden. A dangerous area ("D") contains hazards to flight but has no entry restriction; pilots are warned but may enter at their own discretion. "No-fly zone" is not a standard ICAO airspace classification per Annex 11. ### Q27: Where can the specific restrictions for a restricted airspace be found? ^q27 - A) NOTAM - B) AIC - C) AIP - D) ICAO chart 1:500000 **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is the primary official document containing detailed and permanent information about airspace structure, including the conditions, times of activity, and authority contacts for restricted areas (ENR section). While NOTAMs may announce temporary changes and ICAO charts show boundaries graphically, the authoritative definition and restrictions are found in the AIP. AICs (Aeronautical Information Circulars) contain advisory or administrative information, not regulatory airspace details. ### Q28: What does the abbreviation "TRA" stand for? ^q28 - A) Terminal Area - B) Temporary Radar Routing Area - C) Temporary Reserved Airspace - D) Transponder Area **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** TRA stands for Temporary Reserved Airspace — airspace of defined dimensions within which activities requiring reservation of airspace are conducted for a specified period. TRAs are used for military exercises, aerobatic displays, parachuting, or other temporary activities. They are published via NOTAM and activated as needed. They differ from TSAs (Temporary Segregated Areas) in that TRAs may be shared with other traffic under certain conditions when not active. ### Q29: What considerations apply when entering an RMZ? ^q29 - A) The transponder must be switched to Mode C and squawk 7000 - B) A clearance from the local aviation authority must be obtained - C) A clearance to enter the area must be obtained - D) The radio must be permanently monitored and radio contact established if possible **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** An RMZ (Radio Mandatory Zone) requires all aircraft to carry and operate a functioning radio, to monitor the designated frequency continuously, and to establish two-way radio contact with the responsible ATC unit before entry if possible. It does not require a formal ATC clearance (unlike a CTR). A transponder is not mandated by RMZ designation alone — that is required in a TMZ. This is defined in SERA.6005 and national AIP supplements. ### Q30: What does an area designated as "TMZ" signify? ^q30 - A) Traffic Management Zone - B) Touring Motorglider Zone - C) Transportation Management Zone - D) Transponder Mandatory Zone **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** TMZ stands for Transponder Mandatory Zone — airspace within which all aircraft must be equipped with and operate a pressure-altitude reporting transponder (Mode C or Mode S). This allows ATC and other aircraft (via TCAS/FLARM) to identify and separate traffic. TMZs are often established around busy airports or in complex airspace. Glider pilots must be aware that many glider airfields and soaring areas are now overlaid with TMZs requiring transponder equipment. ### Q31: Among the airspace classes used in Switzerland, which are classified as controlled airspace? ^q31 - A) G, E, D, C - B) E, C - C) D, C - D) E, D, C **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, airspace classes C, D and E are controlled airspace. Class G is uncontrolled airspace. Classes A and B exist theoretically in the ICAO classification but are not used in Switzerland. Class E, while controlled, does not impose separation on VFR traffic. ### Q32: Which of the airspaces listed below are not classified as controlled airspace? ^q32 - A) Class G airspace. - B) Class C airspace. - C) Class G and E airspaces. - D) Class G, E and D airspaces. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, uncontrolled airspace is Class G. Class E is controlled airspace (though VFR traffic is not separated within it). Classes C, D and E are all controlled airspaces. ### Q33: In which Swiss airspaces may VFR flights be conducted without requiring air traffic control services? ^q33 - A) Only in Class G airspace. - B) In Class E and G airspaces. - C) In Class A and B airspaces. - D) In Class C, D, E and G airspaces. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, VFR flight without control is permitted in Class E and G airspace. In Class C and D, control is required. ### Q34: Can a glider enter Class C airspace? ^q34 - A) No, entry is prohibited for gliders - B) Yes, but only with an activated transponder - C) Yes, but only with clearance from the responsible ATC unit - D) With restrictions, when traffic volume is low **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Airspace C is controlled airspace where ATC clearance is mandatory for all flights including VFR. A glider may enter Class C airspace only with an explicit clearance from the responsible ATC unit. A transponder alone (B) is not sufficient — clearance is the fundamental requirement. Option A (no entry at all) is too restrictive; entry is possible with proper clearance. Option D implies a discretionary traffic-density rule which does not exist. ### Q35: In which part of airspace can authorization be obtained for a Special VFR flight when the ceiling is below 450 m above ground and surface visibility is under 5 km? ^q35 - A) FIR. - B) TMA. - C) CTR. - D) AWY. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Special VFR (SVFR) is only possible within a CTR (Control Zone). It is in this controlled airspace immediately surrounding an aerodrome that ATC can authorize a special VFR flight when meteorological conditions are below normal VMC minima. The CTR is the only zone where this authorization can be granted by the competent ATC. ### Q36: What minimum meteorological conditions are needed to take off or land at a CTR aerodrome without a Special VFR authorization? ^q36 - A) Ground visibility 8 km, ceiling 450 m/GND. - B) Ground visibility 5 km, ceiling 150 m/GND. - C) Ground visibility 1.5 km, ceiling 300 m/GND. - D) Ground visibility 5 km, ceiling 450 m/GND. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** To take off/land in a CTR under SVFR without specific authorization: minimum ground visibility 1.5 km and minimum ceiling 300 m/GND. These are Swiss SVFR minimums. ### Q37: A flight is considered a "visual flight" when the... ^q37 - A) Flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions. - B) In-flight visibility exceeds 5 km. - C) In-flight visibility exceeds 8 km. - D) Flight is conducted under visual flight rules. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A "visual flight" (VFR flight) is defined by the rules under which it is conducted — specifically, Visual Flight Rules (VFR) — not simply by the prevailing visibility. A flight is VFR when the pilot navigates by external visual reference and complies with VFR separation minima and procedures. VMC (Visual Meteorological Conditions) describes the weather minima required to conduct VFR flight; but a flight can be in VMC and still be flown under IFR. The distinction between the rule set and the conditions is important. ### Q38: What does the abbreviation "VMC" stand for? ^q38 - A) Visual flight rules - B) Variable meteorological conditions - C) Instrument flight conditions - D) Visual meteorological conditions **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** VMC stands for Visual Meteorological Conditions — the specific weather minima of visibility and cloud clearance defined in SERA.5001 that must be met for VFR flight to be conducted. If conditions fall below VMC minima, the airspace is said to be in IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) and VFR flight is not permitted unless special VFR clearance is granted. VMC minima vary by airspace class and altitude band. ### Q39: What cloud clearances must be maintained during a VFR flight in airspaces C, D and E? ^q39 - A) 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically - B) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically - C) 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically - D) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Per SERA.5001, in airspace classes C, D, and E, VFR flights must maintain a horizontal separation of 1500 m from cloud and a vertical separation of 1000 ft (approximately 300 m) from cloud. The key distinction to remember is that the horizontal minimum is in metres (1500 m) and the vertical minimum is in feet (1000 ft) — mixing units is a common error. These minima apply above 3000 ft AMSL or above 1000 ft AGL, whichever is higher. ### Q40: What are the minimum cloud distances for a VFR flight in airspace "B"? ^q40 - A) Horizontally 1,000 m, vertically 1,500 ft - B) Horizontally 1,500 m, vertically 1,000 m - C) Horizontally 1,000 m, vertically 300 m - D) Horizontally 1,500 m, vertically 300 m **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In airspace class B (and also A), VFR flights are generally not permitted unless specifically authorised. However, where VFR is permitted in class B, the cloud clearance minima per SERA.5001 are 1500 m horizontal and 300 m (approximately 1000 ft) vertical. Note that option D states "300 m" vertically using the metre equivalent, while option B states "1000 m" vertically — the correct vertical minimum is 300 m (not 1000 m). The "1000 ft" vertical minimum translates to approximately 300 m. ### Q41: During VFR flight, what are the minimum visibility and cloud distance requirements in Class D airspace below 10,000 ft AMSL? ^q41 - A) Visibility 5 km; cloud distance: horizontally 1.5 km, vertically 300 m. - B) Visibility 1.5 km; clear of clouds and in permanent sight of ground or water. - C) Visibility 8 km; cloud distance: horizontally 1.5 km, vertically 450 m. - D) Visibility 5 km; clear of clouds and in permanent sight of ground or water. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** In Class D airspace below FL100 (10,000 ft AMSL), the VMC minima are: visibility 5 km, horizontal cloud distance 1,500 m (1.5 km) and vertical cloud distance 300 m (equivalent to 1,000 ft). These are the same minima as for Classes C and E in this altitude band, in accordance with SERA.5001. ### Q42: In airspace "E", what is the minimum flight visibility for VFR operations at FL75? ^q42 - A) 3000 m - B) 1500 m - C) 8000 m - D) 5000 m **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Per SERA.5001, in airspace class E at and above 3000 ft AMSL (or above 1000 ft AGL) and below FL100, the minimum flight visibility for VFR is 5000 m (5 km). FL75 is approximately 7500 ft, which is above 3000 ft AMSL but below FL100, so the 5000 m rule applies. The 8000 m minimum applies at and above FL100. The 1500 m minimum only applies at or below 3000 ft AMSL/1000 ft AGL in airspace F and G. ### Q43: In airspace "C", what is the minimum flight visibility for VFR operations at FL110? ^q43 - A) 5000 m - B) 3000 m - C) 8000 m - D) 1500 m **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per SERA.5001, at and above FL100, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight in all controlled airspace classes (including class C) is 8000 m (8 km). This higher minimum is required at high altitudes because aircraft speeds are typically greater, reducing reaction time, and the increased altitude makes maintaining visual separation from IFR traffic more critical. FL110 is above FL100, so the 8000 m minimum applies. ### Q44: In airspace "C", what is the minimum flight visibility for VFR operations at FL125? ^q44 - A) 1500 m - B) 5000 m - C) 3000 m - D) 8000 m **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** FL125 is above FL100, so the SERA.5001 rule for high-altitude VFR applies: minimum flight visibility is 8000 m in all controlled airspace classes including class C. This is the same threshold as Q43 — both FL110 and FL125 are above FL100, so both require 8000 m. The 5000 m minimum applies below FL100 in most controlled airspace, and the 3000 m/1500 m minima apply only in lower uncontrolled airspace. ### Q45: What is the minimum VFR flight visibility in airspace "C" below FL 100? ^q45 - A) 8 km - B) 5 km - C) 10 km - D) 1.5 km **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Per SERA.5001, in airspace class C below FL100 (and above 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL), the minimum VFR flight visibility is 5 km (5000 m). The 8 km minimum only applies at and above FL100. The 1.5 km minimum applies in uncontrolled airspace at low altitudes. Glider pilots operating in class C below FL100 — for example crossing an airway — must ensure at least 5 km visibility. ### Q46: What is the minimum VFR flight visibility in airspace "C" at and above FL 100? ^q46 - A) 10 km - B) 1.5 km - C) 8 km - D) 5 km **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per SERA.5001, at and above FL100 in controlled airspace (including class C), VFR flight requires a minimum flight visibility of 8 km. This higher threshold reflects the faster speeds and reduced manoeuvring margins at higher altitudes. The 10 km option is not a standard ICAO/SERA VMC minimum. The progression to remember is: low altitude uncontrolled = 1.5 km, controlled below FL100 = 5 km, at and above FL100 = 8 km. ### Q47: What are the minimum VMC values in Class E airspace at 2100 m AMSL? Visibility - Cloud clearance: Vertical / Horizontal ^q47 - A) 1.5 km / 50 m / 100 m - B) 5.0 km / 300 m / 1500 m - C) 8.0 km / 100 m / 300 m - D) 8.0 km / 300 m / 1500 m **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In Class E airspace above 1000 ft MSL (here at 2100 m AMSL ≈ 6900 ft), VMC requires: visibility 8 km, cloud clearance 300 m vertically and 1500 m horizontally (SERA.5001). ### Q48: What are the minimum VMC values in Class E airspace at 6500 ft (2000 m) AMSL? Visibility - Cloud clearance: vertically - horizontally ^q48 - A) 8.0 km - 100 m - 300 m - B) 1.5 km - 50 m - 100 m - C) 5.0 km - 300 m - 1500 m - D) 8.0 km - 300 m - 1500 m **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In Class E at 6500 ft (2000 m) AMSL (> 1000 ft AGL), VMC: visibility 8 km, cloud clearance 300 m vertically and 1500 m horizontally. ### Q49: During a VFR flight in Switzerland, what is the minimum visibility needed in Class G airspace without special conditions? ^q49 - A) 10 km. - B) 8 km. - C) 1.5 km. - D) 5 km. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In Class G airspace without special conditions, minimum visibility required is 1.5 km. Below 3000 ft AMSL and within 1000 ft of the surface. ### Q50: Are you permitted to cross an airway in VFR at FL 115 with 5 km visibility? ^q50 - A) Yes, but only as a controlled VFR flight (CVFR). - B) Yes, in Class E airspace. - C) No. - D) Yes, but only as a special VFR flight (SVFR). **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** No. At FL 115 with only 5 km visibility, VFR flight through an airway (class C or D airspace) is not permitted, as the minimum required visibility is 8 km and cloud clearance of 1500 m/300 m must be maintained. ### Q51: How is "ceiling" defined? ^q51 - A) Altitude of the base of the lowest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 20,000 ft. - B) Height of the base of the highest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 20,000 ft. - C) Height of the base of the lowest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 20,000 ft. - D) Height of the base of the lowest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 10,000 ft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** "Ceiling" is defined as the height (not altitude) of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more than half the sky (i.e., more than 4 oktas — BKN or OVC) below 20,000 ft. Option B is wrong because it refers to the "highest" layer (should be lowest). Option D is wrong because the threshold is 20,000 ft, not 10,000 ft. Option A is wrong because ceiling is expressed as height (above ground level) not altitude (above mean sea level). This definition is from ICAO Annex 2 and SERA. ### Q52: Regarding separation in airspace "E", which statement is correct? ^q52 - A) IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic - B) VFR traffic is separated from both VFR and IFR traffic - C) VFR traffic receives no separation from any other traffic - D) VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In class E airspace, IFR traffic receives separation from other IFR traffic, but VFR traffic is not separated from anything — neither from other VFR traffic nor from IFR traffic. VFR flights in class E receive traffic information where possible (from FIS) but no ATC separation service. This is a key distinction for glider pilots who frequently operate in class E: they must maintain their own separation from all traffic using see-and-avoid principles. Class E is the lowest class of controlled airspace where IFR is permitted. ### Q53: When flying at FL 80, the altimeter must be set to... ^q53 - A) Local QNH. - B) 1030.25 hPa. - C) 1013.25 hPa. - D) Local QFE. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Flight levels (FL) are defined relative to the standard atmosphere pressure of 1013.25 hPa (the International Standard Atmosphere setting, also called QNE or standard setting). When flying at or above the transition altitude (which varies by country but is typically between 3000 ft and 18,000 ft), pilots set their altimeter to 1013.25 hPa and read flight levels. QNH gives altitude above sea level, QFE gives height above a specific aerodrome — neither is used when referencing flight levels. ### Q54: In VFR flight within a terminal control area or CTR, how is the vertical position expressed below the transition altitude? ^q54 - A) As height. - B) As flight level. - C) Either as altitude or height. - D) As altitude. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Below transition altitude in a TMA or CTR, vertical position is expressed in altitude (above mean sea level, with QNH setting). ### Q55: What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule? ^q55 - A) To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern - B) To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP - C) To reduce the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude and thus avoid collisions - D) To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The semi-circular (hemispherical) cruising level rule (SERA.5015) assigns specific altitude bands to specific magnetic tracks — eastbound flights use odd thousands of feet, westbound flights use even thousands. By separating aircraft flying in opposite directions onto different altitude levels, the probability of a head-on collision at the same altitude is greatly reduced. This is a passive separation tool requiring no ATC involvement, applicable primarily to en-route cruise flight above the transition altitude. ### Q56: Two engine-driven aircraft are on crossing courses at the same altitude. How must they react? ^q56 - A) Both must divert to the left - B) The heavier one must climb - C) Both must divert to the right - D) The lighter one must climb **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per SERA.3210, when two aircraft are on converging courses at approximately the same altitude, each shall turn to the right. This creates a situation where both aircraft pass behind each other, avoiding a collision. Weight is irrelevant to right-of-way rules in crossing situations. The "give way to the right" rule applies to converging (not head-on) situations; in a head-on encounter, both aircraft also alter course to the right (SERA.3210(c)). ### Q57: Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks. Which one has priority? ^q57 - A) Both must divert to the left - B) Both must divert to the right - C) The aircraft approaching from the left has priority - D) The aircraft approaching from the right has priority **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Under SERA.3210(b), when two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, the aircraft that has the other on its right must give way. This means the aircraft approaching from the right has right-of-way (i.e., it flies from right to left relative to the other aircraft). The aircraft that sees the other on its right must alter course — typically to the right — to avoid a collision. This is the "right-of-way" rule analogous to maritime rules. ### Q58: As a general rule, what must the pilots of two aircraft approaching head-on do? ^q58 - A) One flies straight ahead while the other turns right. - B) One turns right, the other turns left. - C) Each turns left. - D) Each turns right. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When aircraft approach head-on, each pilot must turn right (ICAO Annex 2, rule 3.2.1). This mirrors international road rules, ensuring both aircraft avoid each other on the same side. ### Q59: What avoidance manoeuvres should the pilots of two VFR aircraft on converging tracks adopt? ^q59 - A) One continues on track while the other turns right. - B) Each pilot turns left. - C) One turns left, the other turns right. - D) Each pilot turns right. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The standard ICAO rule in case of convergence is that each aircraft turns right. This symmetrical rule prevents collision by allowing both aircraft to pass behind one another. It applies when neither aircraft has clear right-of-way priority over the other according to right-of-way rules. ### Q60: When one aircraft overtakes another in flight, how must it give way? ^q60 - A) Turn downward. - B) Turn left. - C) Turn upward. - D) Turn right. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** An aircraft overtaking another must give way by turning right. This is the ICAO overtaking rule (Annex 2, rule 3.2.1). ### Q61: Which exception to the right-of-way rules for converging routes is incorrect? ^q61 - A) Aircraft give way to aircraft that are visibly towing other aircraft or objects. - B) Airships give way to gliders. - C) Gliders give way to aircraft that are towing. - D) Gliders and motor gliders give way to free balloons. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** This is the inaccurate statement: gliders do NOT give way to tow planes. It is the opposite: aircraft give way to aircraft that are visibly towing other aircraft or objects. ### Q62: When two aircraft approach an aerodrome simultaneously to land, which has right of way? ^q62 - A) The faster one. - B) The one flying lower. - C) The smaller one. - D) The one flying higher. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When two aircraft approach an aerodrome simultaneously, the one flying lower (on a more advanced final approach) has right of way. ### Q63: Of the aircraft listed below, which have priority for takeoff and landing? ^q63 - A) Aircraft that have received an ATC clearance to taxi. - B) Aircraft manoeuvring on the ground. - C) Aircraft arriving from another aerodrome that are in the circuit. - D) Aircraft on final approach. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** According to ICAO Annex 2, aircraft on final approach always have priority over other aircraft in flight or on the ground. ATC clearances do not override the right-of-way rules for final approach. ### Q64: During slope soaring with the hill on your left, another glider approaches from the opposite direction at the same altitude. How should you react? ^q64 - A) Pull back on the stick and divert upward - B) Wait for the approaching glider to divert - C) Divert to the right and expect the other glider to do the same - D) Divert to the right **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ICAO rules of the air and SERA regulations specify that during slope soaring, when two gliders approach each other head-on, the glider with the hill on its right must give way — but in this question the hill is on YOUR left, meaning the hill is on the other glider's right. Therefore YOU must give way by diverting to the right (turning away from the hill). Expecting the other glider to divert (B) is incorrect because the rule is based on which pilot has the hill on their right. Pulling upward (A) is impractical and dangerous. ### Q65: You are circling in a thermal with other gliders. Who determines the direction of circling? ^q65 - A) The glider at the highest altitude - B) The glider with the greatest bank angle - C) Circling is always to the left - D) The glider that entered the thermal first **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** SERA regulations state that when joining a thermal already occupied by other gliders, the newly joining pilot must circle in the same direction as the glider that first established the turn in that thermal. This ensures all pilots orbit in the same direction, preventing head-on conflicts. Circling is not fixed as left (C), the highest glider (A) or steepest bank (B) does not determine the direction. ### Q66: A transponder capable of transmitting the current pressure level is a... ^q66 - A) Mode A transponder. - B) Pressure-decoder. - C) Transponder approved for airspace "B". - D) Mode C or S transponder. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Mode A transponders transmit only a 4-digit identity (squawk) code. Mode C transponders add pressure altitude reporting — they encode and transmit the pressure altitude from an encoding altimeter, allowing ATC secondary radar to display both identity and altitude. Mode S provides all Mode C capabilities plus selective interrogation, aircraft identification (callsign), and data link capabilities. Mode A alone cannot report altitude, so options A and C are incorrect. "Pressure-decoder" is not an aviation term. ### Q67: Which transponder code signals a loss of radio communication? ^q67 - A) 7700 - B) 2000 - C) 7000 - D) 7600 **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The standard emergency transponder codes are: 7700 = General emergency, 7600 = Radio communication failure (loss of comms), 7500 = Unlawful interference (hijacking). Code 7000 is the VFR conspicuity code used in many European countries when no specific ATC code has been assigned. Code 2000 is used when entering controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace without a prior assigned code. In a radio failure, squawking 7600 alerts ATC immediately to the communication problem. ### Q68: Which transponder code should be set without any ATC request during a radio failure? ^q68 - A) 7000 - B) 7500 - C) 7600 - D) 7700 **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Upon experiencing a radio communication failure, the pilot should immediately squawk 7600 (the international radio failure code) without waiting for any ATC request or instruction — since communication is by definition impossible. Code 7700 is for general emergencies, 7500 for unlawful interference, and 7000 is the general VFR code. Setting 7600 proactively informs ATC of the situation, triggering the loss-of-communications procedures defined in national AIPs and ICAO Annex 11. ### Q69: Which transponder code must be set without request during an emergency? ^q69 - A) 7600 - B) 7000 - C) 7500 - D) 7700 **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In any general emergency (engine failure, fire, medical emergency, severe structural damage, etc.), the pilot must set transponder code 7700 immediately and without waiting for ATC instruction. Code 7700 triggers an alarm on ATC radar displays and activates emergency procedures. Code 7500 is specifically for unlawful interference (hijacking) only — it should not be used for other emergencies. The phrase "unrequested" emphasises that the pilot must act autonomously without waiting for radio contact. ### Q70: Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights? ^q70 - A) FIS (flight information service) - B) ALR (alerting service) - C) AIS (aeronautical information service) - D) ATC (air traffic control) **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Air Traffic Control (ATC) is specifically responsible for providing separation between aircraft and ensuring the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic, including the safe conduct of flights in controlled airspace. FIS provides information useful for safe and efficient conduct of flights but does not control aircraft. ALR initiates search and rescue when aircraft are overdue or in distress. AIS provides aeronautical information publications but has no operational control role. Per ICAO Annex 11, ATC has the active separation and safety function. ### Q71: Which services make up the air traffic control service? ^q71 - A) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service) - B) FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service) - C) TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) - D) ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service) **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 11, the three constituent units of Air Traffic Control service are: TWR (Aerodrome Control — controls traffic at and around the aerodrome), APP (Approach Control — handles departing and arriving traffic in the terminal area), and ACC (Area Control Centre — handles en-route traffic in control areas/airways). FIS is a separate service from ATC. ALR and SAR are emergency services, not ATC. AIS and AFS are information/communication services, not control services. ### Q72: Which air traffic services are provided within a FIR (flight information region)? ^q72 - A) ATC (air traffic control) AIS (aeronautical information service) - B) AIS (aeronautical information service) SAR (search and rescue) - C) FIS (flight information service) ALR (alerting service) - D) ATC (air traffic control) FIS (flight information service) **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A Flight Information Region (FIR) is the basic organisational unit of airspace, within which two services are provided: FIS (Flight Information Service) — providing pilots with weather, NOTAM, and other relevant information — and ALR (Alerting Service) — notifying appropriate organisations when aircraft are in distress or overdue. ATC is only provided within designated controlled airspace (CTAs, CTRs, airways) that may exist within an FIR, not throughout the entire FIR. Per ICAO Annex 11, FIS and ALR are the universal FIR services. ### Q73: How can a pilot contact FIS (flight information service) during flight? ^q73 - A) Via internet. - B) Via telephone. - C) Via radio communication. - D) By a personal visit. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** FIS (Flight Information Service) is an operational ATC service provided to airborne pilots in flight. The primary and essentially only operational means of contacting FIS during flight is via radio communication on the designated FIS frequency. While pre-flight briefing information may be obtained by telephone or online, the in-flight FIS service itself is radio-based. A personal visit is meaningless for an airborne pilot, and internet communication is not used for real-time in-flight FIS contact. ### Q74: Who is responsible for collision avoidance during a VFR flight? ^q74 - A) The flight information service. - B) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft. - C) The air traffic control service. - D) The second pilot when two pilots are on board. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In VFR, collision avoidance is the responsibility of the pilot-in-command (PIC). ATC provides information but is not responsible for separation in VFR. ### Q75: For which of the following flights must a flight plan be filed? ^q75 - A) A VFR flight over the Alps, Pre-Alps or Jura. - B) A VFR flight that requires the use of air traffic control services. - C) A VFR flight covering more than 300 km without a stop. - D) A VFR flight in Class E airspace. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A VFR flight plan is required in Switzerland when the flight requires the use of air traffic control services (e.g., transiting a CTR, TMA or controlled airspace). A flight over 300 km or over the Alps does not necessarily require one. ### Q76: May a Flight Information Zone (FIZ) be transited without further formality? ^q76 - A) Only with FIS authorization and if the pilot is qualified for English radiotelephony. - B) No, transit is not permitted for VFR flights. - C) Yes. - D) Only if permanent radio contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained. Otherwise, the rules of the airspace class apply. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A FIZ (Flight Information Zone) may be transited provided permanent radio contact with AFIS (Aerodrome Flight Information Service) is maintained. The rules of the applicable airspace class apply. ### Q77: Are formation flights permitted? ^q77 - A) Yes, but only outside controlled airspace. - B) Yes, provided the pilots-in-command have coordinated beforehand. - C) Yes, but only with authorization from the Federal Office of Civil Aviation. - D) Yes, but only if the pilots-in-command are in permanent radio contact with each other. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Formation flights are permitted in Switzerland provided the pilots-in-command have coordinated beforehand. They do not require permanent radio contact or special FOCA authorization. ### Q78: What type of flights may be conducted below prescribed minimum heights without specific FOCA authorization, to the extent necessary? ^q78 - A) Aerobatic flights. - B) Mountain flights. - C) Aerial photography flights. - D) Search and rescue flights. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Search and rescue (SAR) flights may be conducted without special FOCA authorization below prescribed minimum altitudes, to the extent necessary. Other flight types mentioned require special authorizations. ### Q79: In VFR flight, what minimum height must be maintained above densely populated areas? ^q79 - A) At least 300 m above the ground. - B) At least 150 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of the aircraft. - C) At least 450 m above the ground. - D) At least 150 m above the ground. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In VFR flight, the minimum altitude over densely populated areas is 150 m above the highest obstacle within a specified radius around the aircraft (SERA.5005 and ICAO Annex 2). ### Q80: According to the rules of the air in force, what period constitutes "day"? ^q80 - A) The period from sunrise to sunset. - B) The period between 06:00 and 20:00 in winter and 06:00 and 21:00 in summer. - C) The period from the end of morning civil twilight to the beginning of evening civil twilight. - D) The period from the beginning of morning civil twilight to the end of evening civil twilight. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In aviation, "day" is defined as the period from the beginning of morning civil twilight (30 minutes before sunrise) to the end of evening civil twilight (30 minutes after sunset). This definition is broader than astronomical sunrise/sunset and is used to determine the rules applicable to day and night flights. ### Q81: By what time at the latest must a daytime VFR flight be completed? ^q81 - A) 30 minutes before the end of civil twilight. - B) At the beginning of civil twilight. - C) At sunset. - D) At the end of civil twilight. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, a daytime VFR flight must be completed no later than sunset. Flights after sunset require special authorization or a night flight qualification. ### Q82: Are observed or received signals mandatory for the glider pilot? ^q82 - A) Yes, except light signals for aircraft on the ground. - B) No. - C) Yes, but only ground signals, not light signals. - D) Yes. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Yes, all observed or received signals are mandatory for the glider pilot. ICAO Annex 2 states that pilots must comply with all visual and radio signals. ### Q83: When intercepted by a military aircraft in daytime, what does the following signal mean: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a climb without crossing the intercepted aircraft's track? ^q83 - A) You are entering a restricted area, leave immediately - B) Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area - C) You may continue your flight - D) Follow me, I will lead you to the nearest suitable airfield **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 2, Appendix 1, Section 2, when an intercepting aircraft makes an abrupt break-away manoeuvre of 90 degrees or more and climbs away without crossing the intercepted aircraft's track, this signal means "You may proceed" — the intercept is complete and the intercepted aircraft is cleared to continue its flight. This is the standard release signal. The "follow me" signal involves the interceptor rocking wings and heading towards a destination. Pilots must study all ICAO interception signals as part of Air Law. ### Q84: What is the correct ICAO phraseology for warning a light aircraft following a heavier aircraft about wake turbulence? ^q84 - A) Danger jet blast - B) Attention propwash - C) Caution wake turbulence - D) Be careful wake winds **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The standard ICAO phraseology for wake turbulence warnings is "CAUTION WAKE TURBULENCE" — this is the prescribed phrase used by ATC when issuing wake turbulence warnings to pilots following heavier aircraft. ICAO Doc 4444 (PANS-ATM) specifies standardised phraseology, and non-standard phrases like "wake winds," "jet blast," or "propwash" are not ICAO-approved terminology. Standardised phraseology reduces ambiguity and is mandatory in EASA airspace. ### Q85: Which option represents a correct position report? ^q85 - A) DEABC reaching "N" - B) DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft - C) DEABC over "N" at 35 - D) DEABC, "N", 2500 ft **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A standard position report per ICAO Doc 4444 includes: aircraft callsign, position (fix or waypoint), and altitude/flight level. Option D (DEABC, "N", 2500 ft) provides all three elements concisely and correctly. Option A is incomplete (no altitude). Option B uses nonsensical terminology ("FL 2500 ft" — flight levels and feet are not combined this way). Option C lacks altitude and uses "at 35" without context. Correct position reporting is essential for ATC situational awareness. ### Q86: What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome? ^q86 - A) It is an illuminated area where search and rescue vehicles are positioned - B) It is a specially marked area for picking up or dropping towing objects - C) Aircraft taxi there to receive light signals for taxi and take-off clearance - D) It displays special symbols to indicate aerodrome conditions visually to overflying aircraft **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The signal square (also called signals square or ground signals area) is a designated area at an aerodrome where ground signals are displayed using symbols, panels, or markings to communicate aerodrome conditions to pilots flying overhead who cannot receive radio communication. It is not a lighting area for emergency vehicles (A), not a location where aircraft receive light signals for taxi clearance (C) — that would be done by the control tower — and not a tow drop zone (B). ### Q87: How are two parallel runways designated? ^q87 - A) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway remains unchanged - B) The left runway gets the suffix "-1", the right runway "-2" - C) The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1 - D) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R" **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ICAO Annex 14 requires that when two parallel runways exist, both receive a suffix to distinguish them: 'L' for the left and 'R' for the right runway as seen from a pilot on final approach. Option A is wrong because the right runway also needs a suffix. Options B and C describe non-standard designations not used in ICAO procedures. ### Q88: Which pair of runway designators is correct for two parallel runways? ^q88 - A) "24" and "25" - B) "18" and "18-2" - C) "06L" and "06R" - D) "26" and "26R" **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** For two parallel runways, ICAO requires both runways to carry suffixes 'L' and 'R', resulting in designators like '06L' and '06R'. Option D is wrong because '26' has no suffix. Option B uses a non-standard dash notation. Option A shows different numbers (24 and 25), which would indicate two separate non-parallel runways on slightly different magnetic headings, not parallel runways. ### Q89: What do longitudinal stripes arranged symmetrically about the runway centreline indicate? ^q89 - A) A ground roll could be started from this position - B) Do not touch down behind them - C) At this point the ILS glide path meets the runway - D) Do not touch down before them **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Longitudinal stripes arranged symmetrically about the runway centreline are the runway threshold markings (specifically the threshold stripe pattern), which indicate the beginning of the runway available for landing. Pilots must not touch down before them. They do not mark an ILS glide path touchdown point (C), do not prohibit touching down behind them (B), and are not a ground roll starting position marker (A). ### Q90: What shape does a landing direction indicator have? ^q90 - A) An angled arrow - B) L - C) T - D) A straight arrow **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 14, the landing direction indicator is T-shaped (commonly called a "landing T" or "signal T"). When displayed, the cross-bar of the T indicates the direction in which landings and take-offs should be made — aircraft land toward and take off away from the cross-bar. The T is white and should be clearly visible from the air. The L-shaped indicator is used for a different purpose (indicating a right-hand traffic circuit). Arrows are not the standard ICAO shape for a landing direction indicator. ### Q91: How can a wind direction indicator be made more visible? ^q91 - A) By surrounding it with a white circle. - B) By making it from green materials. - C) By mounting it on top of the control tower. - D) By placing it on a large black surface. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 14, a wind direction indicator (windsock or wind tee) should be clearly visible and may be surrounded by a white circle to enhance its visibility against the aerodrome background. This white circle provides a high-contrast surround that makes the indicator easier to identify from the air. Mounting it on the control tower (C) is not a standard visibility-enhancement method. Green materials (B) do not aid visibility. A black surface (D) is not specified as a standard method in ICAO Annex 14. ### Q92: What do white or other visible coloured signals placed horizontally on a runway indicate? ^q92 - A) Glider flying is in progress at this aerodrome. - B) The delineated runway portion is not usable. - C) Caution during approach and landing. - D) They mark the landing area in use. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** White or visible color signals on a runway indicate that the delineated runway portion is not usable (closed or degraded area). ### Q93: Which instruction regarding runway direction in use takes highest priority? ^q93 - A) The wind sock. - B) The two digits displayed vertically on the control tower. - C) The ATC instruction transmitted by radio from the control tower. - D) The landing T. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ATC radio instructions have the highest priority (outside of a safety emergency). They take precedence over the landing T, wind sock, and tower markings. Only a genuine emergency justifies deviating from ATC instructions. ### Q94: What does this ground signal mean? (Two dumbbells) ^q94 - A) Caution during takeoff or landing. - B) Landing and takeoff on hard-surfaced runways only. - C) Landing, takeoff and taxiing on runways and taxiways only. - D) Landing and takeoff on runways only. Other manoeuvres may however be conducted outside the runways and taxiways. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The dumbbell signal displayed in the signals area indicates that landings and takeoffs must be made on runways only, but that other manoeuvres (taxiing, turning, positioning) may be conducted outside the runways and taxiways. This signal is distinct from the dumbbell with a cross bar, which indicates that all maneuvers are restricted to runways and taxiways. ### Q95: The term "aerodrome elevation" is defined as... ^q95 - A) The average value of the height of the manoeuvring area. - B) The lowest point of the landing area. - C) The highest point of the landing area. - D) The highest point of the apron. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 14, aerodrome elevation is defined as the elevation of the highest point of the landing area. This definition ensures that the published elevation represents the most demanding terrain height that aircraft must clear during approach and departure from the landing surface. It is not the average, not the apron elevation, and not the lowest point. Aerodrome elevation is used to calculate QFE (the altimeter setting that causes the altimeter to read zero at the aerodrome) and for obstacle clearance calculations. ### Q96: The term "runway" is defined as a... ^q96 - A) Rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. - B) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. - C) Round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. - D) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 14, a runway is defined as a rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. The key elements are: rectangular (not round), land aerodrome (not water — water aerodromes have alighting areas, not runways), and aircraft in general (not specifically helicopters, which use helidecks or helipads). Option A is incorrect because runways are specific to land aerodromes. Option C is wrong (shape). Option D is wrong (specifies helicopters only). ### Q97: What is an aerodrome beacon (ABN)? ^q97 - A) A fixed beacon installed at an aerodrome to indicate its position to pilots from the air. - B) A rotating beacon installed at the beginning of final approach to indicate its position to pilots from the air. - C) A rotating beacon installed at an aerodrome to indicate its position to pilots from the ground. - D) A rotating beacon installed at an aerodrome to indicate its position to pilots from the air. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is defined by ICAO as a ROTATING beacon (not fixed) installed at or near an airport to help pilots locate it from the air. It is located at the aerodrome itself, not at the beginning of final approach (B). It is intended to be seen from the air by pilots, not from the ground (C). Option A is wrong because the beacon rotates. ### Q98: What does the aerodrome operations manual regulate? ^q98 - A) The certification of maintenance organizations located at the aerodrome. - B) Employment contracts, vacation entitlement and shift work of the aerodrome operator. - C) The operation and opening hours of the aerodrome restaurant and other businesses. - D) The aerodrome organization, opening hours, approach and takeoff procedures, use of facilities by aircraft, passengers, vehicles and other users, and ground handling services. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The aerodrome operations manual covers the entire organization and operational procedures: general organization, opening hours, approach and takeoff procedures, use of facilities by all users (passengers, aircraft, vehicles) and ground handling services. It is a comprehensive document defining the operation of the aerodrome. ### Q99: What information does the general part (GEN) of the AIP contain? ^q99 - A) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces - B) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, licence samples and validity periods - C) Table of contents, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces - D) Map icons, list of radio navigation aids, sunrise and sunset times, airport fees, air traffic control fees **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication) is structured in three parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). The GEN section contains general information including map icons/symbols, list of radio navigation aids, tables of sunrise/sunset, national regulations, fees, and administrative information. ENR contains en-route information including airspace, airways, and restricted areas. AD contains aerodrome-specific information including charts, procedures, and frequencies. ### Q100: What are the three parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)? ^q100 - A) GEN MET RAC - B) GEN ENR AD - C) GEN AGA COM - D) GEN COM MET **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 15 (Aeronautical Information Services), the AIP is divided into three standardised parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). GEN contains general administrative and regulatory information; ENR contains airspace structure, routes, and navigation aids; AD contains information specific to individual aerodromes. The other options (MET, RAC, AGA, COM) are abbreviations from older ICAO documentation structures no longer used in modern AIP organisation. ### Q101: What information does the "AD" part of the AIP contain? ^q101 - A) Map icons, list of radio navigation aids, sunrise and sunset times, airport fees, air traffic control fees - B) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces - C) Classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts - D) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, licence samples and validity periods **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The AD (Aerodromes) section of the AIP contains all aerodrome-specific information: aerodrome classification, runway data, lighting, frequencies, ground handling, approach and departure charts, taxi charts, obstacle data, operating hours, and special procedures. Option B describes ENR content. Option A describes GEN content. Option D contains a mix of items that do not correspond to a single AIP section. The AD section is what a pilot consults to prepare for operations at a specific aerodrome. ### Q102: What information is published through an AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular)? ^q102 - A) An AIC is a notice containing information that does not meet the conditions for a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, or technical, administrative or legislative matters. - B) The AIC is the manual for pilots flying IFR, structured like the VFR Manual. - C) Information of importance to flight operations concerning the construction, condition or modification of aeronautical facilities and their duration. - D) Any information that justifies the issuance of a NOTAM and relates to flight safety may also be published by AIC. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** The AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular) contains information that does not meet the criteria for publication in a NOTAM or in the AIP, but which is nevertheless useful for flight safety, air navigation or technical, administrative and legislative matters. It is supplementary information, not a primary regulatory document. ### Q103: The following NOTAM is valid until when? A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400 E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE. ^q103 - A) 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC. - B) 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC. - C) 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC. - D) 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** NOTAM time codes use the format YYMMDDHHMM in UTC. The "C)" field in a NOTAM is the end time (the "until" time). The code 1305211400 is decoded as: Year 13 (2013), Month 05 (May), Day 21, Time 1400 UTC — giving 21 May 2013 at 14:00 UTC. The "B)" field (1305211200) is the start time: 21 May 2013 at 12:00 UTC. The NOTAM number A1024/13 confirms it is from 2013. Correct NOTAM decoding is a fundamental Air Law skill. ### Q104: A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current... ^q104 - A) AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight. - B) ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight. - C) AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight. - D) NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A PIB (Pre-Flight Information Bulletin) is a standardised summary of current NOTAMs relevant to a planned flight, prepared and issued prior to departure. It filters and presents the NOTAMs pertinent to the route, departure and destination aerodromes, and alternate aerodromes. It is based on NOTAM data (not AIP or AIC data), and is prepared before the flight (not after). PIBs are available from AIS offices, online briefing systems, and flight planning services. Per ICAO Annex 15, it is a key pre-flight planning tool. ### Q105: How is the use of cameras regulated at the international level? ^q105 - A) Use is generally prohibited. - B) Each State is free to prohibit or regulate their use over its territory. - C) Use is generally permitted. - D) Private use is generally permitted; commercial photography requires authorization. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Internationally, each State is free to prohibit or regulate the use of cameras above its territory. There is no uniform ICAO rule on this point. ### Q106: When two licensed pilots fly together, how must flight time be logged? ^q106 - A) Each pilot logs half the time. - B) Each pilot may log the total flight time, as both hold a licence. - C) The pilot who made the landing logs the total flight time; the other only the time during which they were actually flying. - D) Each pilot logs only the time during which they were actually at the controls. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When two licensed pilots fly together, each pilot may log the total flight time in their logbook. This is in accordance with Swiss and ICAO rules. ### Q107: You wish to carry out private flights for remuneration. What formality must you complete to limit your civil liability? ^q107 - A) Take out a special passenger insurance policy which passengers must accept. - B) No formality is required since the Montreal Convention releases the pilot from all liability. - C) Issue a transport document as proof that a contract of carriage has been concluded, which limits liability for baggage damage and delay. - D) Draw up a declaration to be signed by passengers releasing you from all liability. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The transport document (ticket) constitutes proof that a contract of carriage has been concluded between the pilot and the passenger. Under the Montreal Convention, the existence of such a contract limits the carrier's liability for damage to baggage and for delays. Without a transport document, liability may be unlimited. The Convention does not release the pilot from all liability — it caps it under certain conditions. ### Q108: What constitutes an aviation accident? ^q108 - A) Only the crash of an aircraft. - B) Any event related to aircraft operation during which at least one person was killed or seriously injured. - C) Any event related to aircraft operation requiring costly repairs. - D) Any event related to aircraft operation in which a person was killed or seriously injured, or in which the aircraft sustained damage significantly affecting its structural integrity, performance or flight characteristics. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** An aviation accident includes any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which a person was killed or seriously injured AND/OR the aircraft sustained damage notably affecting its structure, performance or flight characteristics. The ICAO definition (Annex 13) is comprehensive. ### Q109: What is the primary objective of an aircraft accident investigation? ^q109 - A) To determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences - B) To assist the public prosecutor in following up on flight accidents - C) To identify the causes and develop safety recommendations - D) To clarify liability questions regarding passenger compensation **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ICAO Annex 13 and EU Regulation 996/2010 are explicit: the sole objective of an aircraft accident investigation is to prevent future accidents and incidents by identifying causal factors and issuing safety recommendations. It is not a judicial or liability process. Determining liability (D), assisting prosecutors (B), or establishing guilt (A) is explicitly outside the scope of a safety investigation. ### Q110: With respect to aircraft occurrence investigation, what are the three classification categories? ^q110 - A) Event, Crash, Disaster - B) Incident, Serious incident, Accident - C) Happening, Event, Serious event - D) Event, Serious event, Accident **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Under ICAO Annex 13 and EU Regulation 996/2010, aircraft occurrences are classified into three categories: incident (an occurrence other than an accident which affects or could affect safety), serious incident (an incident involving circumstances where there was a high probability of an accident), and accident (an occurrence resulting in fatal or serious injury, or substantial aircraft damage). The other options use non-standard terminology not found in ICAO definitions. ### Q111: What does "DETRESFA" mean? ^q111 - A) Alerting phase - B) Rescue phase - C) Uncertainty phase - D) Distress phase **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** DETRESFA is the ICAO codeword for the distress phase, the most serious of the three emergency phases, declared when an aircraft is in grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. ALERFA corresponds to the alerting phase (A), and INCERFA to the uncertainty phase (C). There is no phase called 'rescue phase' (B) as a formal ICAO designation. ### Q112: Who provides search and rescue services? ^q112 - A) Only civil organisations - B) Internationally approved organisations only - C) Both military and civil organisations - D) Only military organisations **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ICAO Annex 12 defines Search and Rescue (SAR) as a service that may be provided by both military and civil organisations, depending on national arrangements. Many countries use military assets (aircraft, helicopters, ships) alongside civil emergency services. Limiting it to only civil (A) or only military (D) organisations, or requiring international approval (B), does not reflect the flexible, nationally-organised nature of SAR. ### Q113: How can a pilot in flight confirm acknowledgement of a ground search and rescue signal? ^q113 - A) By deploying and retracting the landing flaps multiple times - B) By rocking the wings - C) By flying a parabolic flight path multiple times - D) By pushing the rudder in both directions multiple times **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ICAO Annex 12 prescribes that a pilot in flight confirms acknowledgement of a ground SAR signal by rocking the wings (waggling the wings laterally). This is an internationally recognised visual signal. Rudder inputs (D) are not visible from the ground, a parabolic flight path (C) is not a defined SAR signal, and repeated flap deployment (A) is not a standard acknowledgement signal.