# 70 - Operational Procedures > Source: EASA ECQB-SPL (new questions not in existing set) | 18 questions --- ### Q1: A glider pilot has to conduct an off-field landing in a mountainous region. The only available landing site is highly inclined. How should the landing be conducted? ^q1 - A) Approach with increased speed, quick flare to follow the inclined ground - B) Approach down the ridge with increased speed, push according to ground level during landing - C) According to prevailant wind, approach and land parallel to the ridge with headwind - D) Approach with minimum speed, careful flare when reaching the landing site **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** When an off-field landing on inclined terrain is unavoidable, the correct technique is to approach with increased speed and perform a quick, firm flare to match the glider's pitch attitude to the slope angle at touchdown — this minimises the relative vertical velocity on contact. Landing down a ridge (option B) dramatically increases ground speed and roll-out distance, risking a collision with terrain ahead. Approaching parallel to the ridge (option C) ignores the slope problem. Minimum speed (option D) leaves no energy margin for the flare on sloped ground. ### Q2: During final approach, you realize that you missed to extend the gear. How should the landing be conducted? ^q2 - A) You land without gear, and carefully touch down with minimum speed. - B) You extend the gear immediately and land as usual. - C) You retract flaps, extend the gear and land as usual. - D) You land without gear with higher than usual speed. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** If the gear is not extended on final approach and there is insufficient height to safely extend it, the safest action is to complete a gear-up landing at minimum speed, accepting a belly-landing with controlled, gentle touchdown. Extending gear at the last moment (option B) risks an asymmetric or partially extended gear, which is more dangerous. Retracting flaps to buy time (option C) alters the approach profile unpredictably close to the ground. Landing without gear at higher speed (option D) worsens the damage and increases risk of injury. ### Q3: After reaching what height during winch launch the maximum pitch position can be taken? ^q3 - A) From approx. 50 m while maintaining a save speed for winch launch. - B) From 15 m while reaching a speed of at least 90 km/h - C) From 150 m or higher, when in case of cable break landing straight ahead is no longer possible - D) Shortly after lift-off, provided a sufficiently strong headwind **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** During a winch launch, the maximum pitch (steep climb) attitude should not be adopted until approximately 50 m AGL, while maintaining a safe minimum launch speed. Below 50 m, a cable break would not allow a straight-ahead landing if the nose is too high; above 50 m there is sufficient height to recover. 15 m is too low and dangerous. 150 m is overly conservative and wastes the launch energy. Pitching up immediately after liftoff (option D) is extremely hazardous regardless of headwind. ### Q4: What has to be considered for the speed during approach and landing? ^q4 - A) Wind speed and weight - B) Altitude and weight - C) Wind speed and Altitude - D) Weight and wind speed **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Approach and landing speed must account for both aircraft weight and wind conditions (including gusts). A heavier aircraft requires a higher approach speed to maintain adequate safety margin above stall. Higher winds — especially gusts — require an additional speed increment to avoid sudden loss of airspeed and lift. Altitude alone does not directly determine approach speed. Options A, B, and C are incomplete; option D correctly names both weight and wind speed. ### Q5: How can you determine wind direction in case of an outlanding? ^q5 - A) Monitoring of smoke, flags, waving fields - B) Wind forecast from flight weather report - C) Request from other pilots who can be reached by radio - D) Remembering the wind indicated by the windsock an departing airfield **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** During an outlanding, visual cues in the environment are the most reliable and immediately available indicators of wind direction and strength: smoke drifting from chimneys, flags, and rippling crops clearly show the current local wind. A weather forecast (option B) may not reflect local conditions precisely at that moment. Radio contact with other pilots (option C) is unreliable and slow. The windsock at the departure airfield (option D) is irrelevant to conditions at the outlanding site. ### Q6: What landing technique is recommended for landing on a down-hill gras area? ^q6 - A) In general up-hill - B) Diagonal down-hill - C) With brakes applied on main wheel, no air brakes - D) Full air brakes, gear retracted and stalled **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** On a downhill grass area, landing uphill means the aircraft is climbing toward the ground, which naturally decelerates the glider and shortens the roll-out — this is the recommended technique. Landing diagonally downhill (option B) risks ground-looping. Using wheel brakes without airbrakes (option C) may be ineffective or cause a nose-over on rough terrain. Landing with gear retracted and stalled (option D) is dangerous and unnecessary. ### Q7: What has to be checked before any change in direction during glide? ^q7 - A) Check for turn to be flown coordinated - B) Check for thermal clouds - C) Check for loose object secured - D) Check for free airspace in desired direction **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Before initiating any turn during flight, the pilot must first check that the airspace in the intended direction is clear of other aircraft, obstacles, and restricted areas. A coordinated turn (option A) is always desirable but is secondary to the lookout. Thermal clouds (option B) and loose objects (option C) are not safety priorities before a heading change. Collision avoidance through a proper lookout is the primary concern. ### Q8: Before a winch launch, you detect a light tailwind. What has to be considered? ^q8 - A) Roll until lift-off will take a little longer, watch speed - B) A weaker rated-brake-point can be used, load will be smaller - C) Roll until lift-off will be shorter since tailwind is pushing from behind - D) To reach more height, full pull on the elevator after lift-off **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** A tailwind during winch launch means the aircraft has a lower airspeed relative to the ground at any given ground speed, so more ground roll is needed before reaching flying speed — liftoff takes longer and the pilot must monitor the airspeed carefully. Tailwind does not reduce the required cable tension rating (option B). Tailwind from behind reduces effective airspeed, so the roll is longer, not shorter (option C is incorrect). Pulling back immediately after liftoff in a tailwind is hazardous (option D). ### Q9: During approach for landing with strong crosswind, how should the turn from base to final be flown? ^q9 - A) Turn with maximum 60° bank, carefully watch speed and yaw string, track correction after overshoot. - B) Maximum 30° bank, use rudder to early align sailplane with final track - C) Maximum 60° bank, use rudder to early align sailplane with final track. - D) Turn with maximum 30° bank, carefully watch speed and yaw string, track correction after overshoot. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** On the base-to-final turn, a maximum bank angle of 30° is recommended to keep turn coordination manageable and to avoid the risk of a low-speed stall-spin. The yaw string (slip indicator) and airspeed must be closely monitored because crosswind complicates the turn geometry. If the aircraft overshoots the final track, a gentle track correction is made after the turn — never a steep rudder input to force alignment, as this risks a skidded stall. Options A and C allow up to 60° bank, which is excessive and dangerous near the ground. ### Q10: During thermal soaring, another sailplane is following close by. What should be done to avoid a collision? ^q10 - A) You reduce speed to let the other sailplane fly by - B) You reduce bank to achieve a larger turn radius - C) You increase bank to be better seen from the other sailplane - D) You increase speed to achieve a position opposite in the circle **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When two sailplanes are circling in the same thermal in close proximity, the most effective way to create separation is to increase speed, which increases the turn radius and moves the faster aircraft to a position opposite in the circle (180° apart), creating the maximum safe separation. Reducing speed (option A) tightens the radius and closes the gap. Reducing bank (option B) also increases radius but slowly. Increasing bank (option C) makes the glider smaller in profile but does not solve the proximity problem. ### Q11: What heights should be consideres for landing phases with a glider plane? ^q11 - A) 100 m abeam threashold and 50 m after final approach turn - B) 300 m abeam threashold and 150 m in final approach - C) 500 m abeam threashold and 50 m after final approach turn - D) 150 - 200 m abeam threashold and 100 m after final approach turn **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Standard traffic pattern heights for a glider are approximately 150–200 m AGL abeam the threshold (downwind leg) and 100 m AGL after the final turn. These heights give the pilot adequate time and space to plan the approach and use airbrakes effectively for a precise landing. The lower heights in options A and C leave insufficient margin for corrections; the higher values in options B and C are excessive for unpowered glider operations. ### Q12: How should a glider plane be parked when observing strong winds? ^q12 - A) Nose into the wind, keep and weigh tail down - B) Nose into the wind, extends air brakes, secure rudders - C) Downwind wing on the ground, weigh wing down, secure rudders - D) Windward wing on the ground, weigh wing down, secure rudders **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In strong winds, the windward (upwind) wing should be placed on the ground to prevent the wind from getting under it and flipping the aircraft. The wing is then weighted down with a sandbag or similar weight, and the control surfaces (rudder) are secured to prevent them from being damaged by aerodynamic buffeting. Pointing the nose into wind (options A and B) presents a large fuselage surface to cross-gusts and does not protect the wings. Placing the downwind wing on the ground (option C) allows the upwind wing to be lifted by the wind. ### Q13: What has to be considers when overflying mountain ridges? ^q13 - A) Turbulences, reduce to minimum speed - B) Do not overfly national parks - C) Turbulences, therefore slightly increase speed - D) Use circling birds to find thermal cells **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Mountain ridges produce significant turbulence on the lee side and in the rotor zone, but turbulence can also occur directly at the ridge crest. Flying slightly faster than normal provides better control authority and reduces the risk of a stall in turbulence. Reducing to minimum speed (option A) is dangerous as turbulence could cause the aircraft to stall. Overflight of national parks (option B) is a regulatory matter, not a primary safety consideration when crossing ridges. Circling birds indicate thermals (option D) but this does not address the turbulence hazard of ridge crossing. ### Q14: What is indicated by "buffeting" noticable at elevator stick? ^q14 - A) C.G. position too far ahead - B) Glider plane very dirty - C) Too slow, wing airflow stalled - D) Too fast, turbulence bubbles hitting on aileron **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is a classic aerodynamic warning of an approaching stall: separated airflow from the wings passes over the tail surface, causing the elevator to vibrate. This occurs at low airspeed when the angle of attack exceeds the critical angle. A forward CG (option A) makes the aircraft more stable and resistant to stall. A dirty airframe (option B) may affect performance but does not directly cause elevator buffeting. Turbulence at high speed (option D) would be felt as general airframe shaking, not specifically at the elevator. ### Q15: When has a pre-flight check to be done? ^q15 - A) Before first flight of the day, and after every change of pilot - B) After every build-up of the airplane - C) Once a month, with TMG once a day - D) Before flight operation and before every flight **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** A pre-flight check (walk-around and cockpit check) must be performed before the first flight of the day and after every change of pilot, because each pilot is responsible for verifying the aircraft's airworthiness before they fly it. A check after every assembly (option B) applies to aircraft that are dismantled between flights (trailer gliders) — this is a separate requirement. Monthly checks (option C) describe maintenance intervals, not pre-flight procedures. Option D ('before every flight') is too broad and would be burdensome; it is the daily first-flight and pilot-change rule that is standard practice. ### Q16: The term flight time is defined as... ^q16 - A) The period from engine start for the purpose of taking off to leaving the aircraft after engine shutdown. - B) The period from the start of the take-off run to the final touchdown when landing. - C) The total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. - D) The total time from the first take-off until the last landing in conjunction with one or more consecutive flights. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ICAO Annex 1 defines flight time for aircraft as the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. For sailplanes (non-motorised), this is interpreted as from first movement (e.g., the start of the winch run or aerotow) until the aircraft comes to rest after landing. Option A describes block time for powered aircraft. Option B is too narrow (only the take-off and landing roll). Option D describes a duty period concept, not a single flight. ### Q17: During approach, tower provides the following information: Wind 15 knots, gusts 25 knots. How should the landing be performed? ^q17 - A) Approach with minimum speed, correct changes in attitude with careful rudder inputs - B) Approach with normal speed, maintain speed using spoiler flaps - C) Approach with increased speed, correct changes in attitude with firm rudder inputs - D) Approach with increased speed, avoid usage of spoiler flaps **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** With strong gusts (here: wind 15 kt, gusts 25 kt — a 10 kt spread), the pilot must add a gust allowance to the normal approach speed to ensure that a sudden drop in airspeed caused by a gust does not reduce speed below the stall speed. Firm rudder inputs are needed to correct attitude changes caused by the gusty conditions. Minimum speed (option A) provides no safety margin in gusts. Normal speed without gust correction (option B) is insufficient. Avoiding spoilers/airbrakes (option D) removes the ability to control the glide path precisely. ### Q18: What is indicated by buffeting noticable at elevator stick? ^q18 - A) C.G. position too far ahead - B) Glider plane very dirty - C) Too slow, wing airflow stalled - D) Too fast, turbulence bubbles hitting on aileron **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is the tactile warning that the wing has approached its critical angle of attack and airflow is beginning to separate — the pre-stall buffet. This is caused by turbulent separated airflow from the wing reaching the tail and exciting the elevator. Option A (CG too far forward) makes the aircraft pitch-stable and stall-resistant. Option B (dirty airframe) degrades performance but does not specifically cause elevator buffeting. Option D (high speed turbulence) produces general airframe vibration unrelated to stall.