# 70 - Operational Procedures > Source: exam.quizvds.it (EASA ECQB-SPL) | 64 questions --- ### Q1: A wind shear is... ^q1 - A) A wind speed change of more than 15 kt. - B) A meteorological downslope wind phenomenon in the alps. - C) A vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction. - D) A slow increase of the wind speed in altitudes above 13000 ft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q2: During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing tailwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change? ^q2 - A) Path is higher, IAS decreases - B) Path is lower, IAS increases - C) Path is higher, IAS increases - D) Path is lower, IAS decreases **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q3: During a cross-country flight, visual meteorological conditions tend to become below minimum conditions. To continue the flight according to minimum visual conditions, the pilot decides to... ^q3 - A) Continue the flight referring to sufficient forecasts - B) Turn back due to sufficient visual meteorological conditions along the previous track - C) Continue the flight using radio navigational features along the track - D) Continue the flight using navigatorical aid by ATC **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q4: With only a slight crosswind, what is the danger at take-off after the departure of a heavy aeroplane? ^q4 - A) Wake turbulence rotate faster and higher. - B) Wake turbulence is amplified and distorted. - C) Wake turbulence twisting transverse to the runway. - D) Wake turbulence on or near the runway **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q5: A precautionary landing is a landing... ^q5 - A) Conducted with the flaps retracted. - B) Conducted without power from the engine. - C) Conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land. - D) Conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q6: Which of the following landing areas is most suitable for an off-field landing? ^q6 - A) A field with ripe waving crops - B) A meadow without livestock - C) A light brown field with short crops - D) A lake with an undisturbed surface **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q7: What are the effects of wet grass on the take-off and landing distance? ^q7 - A) Decrease of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance - B) Increase of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance - C) Increase of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance - D) Decrease of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q8: Off-field landing may be prone to accident when... ^q8 - A) The approach is conducted using distinct approach segments - B) The decision is made above minimum safe altitude. - C) The approach is conducted onto a harvested corn field. - D) The decision to land off-field is made too late. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q9: When commencing a steep turn, what has to be considered by the pilot? ^q9 - A) After achieving bank angle, reduce yaw using opposite rudder - B) Commence turn with reduced speed according to aimed bank angle - C) Commence turn with increased speed according to aimed bank angle - D) After achieving bank angle, push the elevator to increase speed **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q10: When airtowing using side-located latch, the gliding plane tends to... ^q10 - A) Show particularly stable flight characteristics. - B) Quickly turn around longitunidal axis - C) Show enhanced pitch up moment. - D) Show enhanced turn to latch-mounted side. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q11: A gliding plane being airtowed gets into an excessive high position behind the towing plane. What action by the glider pilot can prevent further danger for glider and towing plane? ^q11 - A) Initiate a sideslip to reduce excessive height - B) Pull strongly, therafter decouple the cable - C) Carefully extend spoiler flaps, steer glider back into normal position - D) Push strongly to bring glider back to normal position **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q12: In case of cable break during airtow, a longer part of the cable remains attached to the glider plane. What action should be taken by the glider pilot? ^q12 - A) Decouple immediately and proceed with coupling unlatched - B) Conduct normal approach, release cable immediatley after ground contact - C) Perform low approach and reuqest information about cable length by airfield controller, decouple if necessary - D) When in safe height, drop cable overhead empty terrain or overhead airfield **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q13: During a winch launch, just after stabilizing full climb attitude, the pull on cable suddenly stops. What action should be taken by the glider pilot? ^q13 - A) Push slightly, wait for pull on cable to be re-established - B) Inform winch driver by altertate aileron input - C) Push firmly and decouple cable immediately - D) Pull on elevator to increases cable tension **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q14: Before the launch using a parallel-cable winch, the glider pilot realizes the second cable laying close to his glider about to launch. What actions should be taken by the glider pilot? ^q14 - A) Keep an eye on second cable, decouple after takeoff if necessary - B) Continue launch with rudder input on opposite direction to second cable - C) Conduct normal takeoff, inform airfield controller after landing - D) Decouple cable immediately, inform airfield controller via radio **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q15: What is the purpose of the breaking points on a winch cable? ^q15 - A) It is used for automatic cable release after winch launch - B) It protects the winch from being overshot by the glider plane - C) It is used to limit the rate of climb during winch launch - D) It prevents excessive stress on the gilder plane **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q16: A glider pilot has to conduct an off-field landing in a mountainous region. The only available landing site is highly inclined. How should the landing be conducted? ^q16 - A) Approach with increased speed, quick flare to follow the inclined ground - B) Approach down the ridge with increased speed, push according to ground level during landing - C) According to prevailant wind, approach and land parallel to the ridge with headwind - D) Approach with minimum speed, careful flare when reaching the landing site **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q17: During a high altitude flight (6000 m MSL), the glider pilot realizes that oxygen will be consumed within a few minutes. What actions should be taken by the glider pilot? ^q17 - A) After depletion of oxygen, stay at that altitude no longer than 30 min - B) At first indication of hypoxia, commence descent with maximum allowed speed - C) Extend spoiler flaps, descent with maximum permissable speed - D) Reduce oxygen flow by breathing slowly **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q18: Trim masses or lead plates must be secured firmly when installed into a gliding plane, so that... ^q18 - A) The maximum allowed mass will not be exceeded. - B) A comfortable seat position will be assured for the glider pilot. - C) They will not block rudders or induce any C.G. shift. - D) The glider pilot will not be hurt during flight in thermal turbulences. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q19: Why is it not allowed to launch wih the C.G. positioned beyond the aft limit? ^q19 - A) Because rudder inputs may not be sufficient for controlling flight attitude - B) Because increased nose-down moment may not be compensated - C) Because structural limits may be exceeded - D) Because maximum permissable speed will be rduced significantly **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q20: During approach, tower provides the following information: "Wind 15 knots, gusts 25 knots". How should the landing be performed? ^q20 - A) Approach with minimum speed, correct changes in attitude with careful rudder inputs - B) Approach with normal speed, maintain speed using spoiler flaps - C) Approach with increased speed, correct changes in attitude with firm rudder inputs - D) Approach with increased speed, avoid usage of spoiler flaps **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q21: When a pilot gets into a strong downwind area during slope soaring, what action should be recommanded? ^q21 - A) Contunue flight, downwinds around mountains only occur shortly - B) Increase speed and head away from the ridge - C) Increase speed and conduct landing parallel to ridge - D) Increase speed and get closer to the ridge **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q22: After landing, you realize you lost your pen which might have fallen down in the cockpit of the sailplane. What has to be considered? ^q22 - A) Lighter, loose bodies in the fuselage can be considered uncritical - B) Before next take-off, the cockpit has to be firmly inspected for loose bodies. - C) A flight without a pen at hand is not permitted - D) Succeeding pilots have to be informed about that **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q23: Durig flight close to aerodrome in about 250 m AGL you encouter strong descent and go for a safety landing. What speed should be flown when heading towards the airfield? ^q23 - A) Best glide speed plus additionals for downdrafts and wind - B) Best glide speed - C) Minimum rate of descent speed - D) Maximum manoeuvering speed VA **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q24: During final approach, you realize that you missed to extend the gear. How should the landing be conducted? ^q24 - A) You land without gear, and carefully touch down with minimum speed. - B) You extend the gear immediately and land as usual. - C) You retract flaps, extend the gear and land as usual. - D) You land without gear with higher than usual speed. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q25: After reaching what height during winch launch the maximum pitch position can be taken? ^q25 - A) From approx. 50 m while maintaining a save speed for winch launch. - B) From 15 m while reaching a speed of at least 90 km/h - C) From 150 m or higher, when in case of cable break landing straight ahead is no longer possible - D) Shortly after lift-off, provided a sufficiently strong headwind **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q26: What has to be considered for the speed during approach and landing? ^q26 - A) Wind speed and weight - B) Altitude and weight - C) Wind speed and Altitude - D) Weight and wind speed **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q27: How can you determine wind direction in case of an outlanding? ^q27 - A) Monitoring of smoke, flags, waving fields - B) Wind forecast from flight weather report - C) Request from other pilots who can be reached by radio - D) Remembering the wind indicated by the windsock an departing airfield **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q28: What landing technique is recommended for landing on a down-hill gras area? ^q28 - A) In general up-hill - B) Diagonal down-hill - C) With brakes applied on main wheel, no air brakes - D) Full air brakes, gear retracted and stalled **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q29: What has to be checked before any change in direction during glide? ^q29 - A) Check for turn to be flown coordinated - B) Check for thermal clouds - C) Check for loose object secured - D) Check for free airspace in desired direction **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q30: Before a winch launch, you detect a light tailwind. What has to be considered? ^q30 - A) Roll until lift-off will take a little longer, watch speed - B) A weaker rated-brake-point can be used, load will be smaller - C) Roll until lift-off will be shorter since tailwind is pushing from behind - D) To reach more height, full pull on the elevator after lift-off **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q31: Flying slow close to stall conditions, the left wings is lower than the right wing. How can the stall be prevented? ^q31 - A) Push on the elevator, keep wings level with coordinated inputs on rudder and aileron - B) Aileron and rudder to the reight, gain some speed, push slightly on the elevator, all rudders neutral - C) Airleron to the right, push slighty on the elevator, gain some speed, all rudders neutral - D) Rudder left, push slightly on the elevator, gain some speed, all rudders neutral **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q32: Which weather phenomenon is typically associated with wind shear? ^q32 - A) Fog - B) Stable high pressure areas. - C) Invernal warm front. - D) Thunderstorms. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q33: During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change? ^q33 - A) Path is higher, IAS increases - B) Path is lower, IAS decreases - C) Path is lower, IAS increases - D) Path is higher, IAS decreases **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q34: During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with an increasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change? ^q34 - A) Path is lower, IAS increases - B) Path is higher, IAS decreases - C) Path is higher, IAS increases - D) Path is lower, IAS decreases **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q35: How can dangerous situations be prevented when the gliding plane approaches close to a pattern altitude during a cross-country flight? ^q35 - A) Try to reach cumuclus clouds visible at the far horizon and use their thermal updrafts - B) Despite the planned flight, decide for an off-field landing - C) Maintain radio communication up to full stop after off-field landing - D) Search for thermal updrafts on the lee side of a selected landing field **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q36: During airtow, the gliding plane exceeds its maximum permissable speed. What action should be taken by the glider pilot? ^q36 - A) Extend spoiler flaps - B) Message to airfield controller via radio - C) Pull elevator to reduce speed - D) Decouple cable immediately **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q37: During airtow, the towing plane disappears from the glider pilot's sight. What action should be taken by the glider pilot? ^q37 - A) Decouple cable immediatly - B) Alternate push and pull on the elveator - C) Alternate turn to the left and to the right - D) Extend spoiler flaps and return to normal attitude **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q38: During the last phase of a winch launch, the glider pilot does not release pull on the elevator. The automatic latch releases the cable at high wing load. What consequences have to be considered? ^q38 - A) A higher altitude can be reached using this technique - B) Extreme stress on the structure of the glider plane - C) This technique can compensate for insufficient wind correction - D) Only by this sudden jerk the release of the cable can be assured **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q39: During a winch launch, after reaching full climb attitude, the airspeed indicator fails. What action should be taken by the glider pilot? ^q39 - A) Continue launch to normal altitude, use horizontal image and airstream noise to conduct flight as planned - B) Try to re-establish airspeed indication by abrupt changes of speed during launch - C) Push elevator, decouple cable and perform short pattern with minimum speed - D) Continue launch to normal altitude, use horizontal image and airstream noise for pattern and landing right away **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q40: What has to be expected with ice accretion on wings? ^q40 - A) An increased stall speed - B) A decreased stall speed - C) Improved slow flight capabilities - D) Reduced friction drag **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q41: Despite several attempts, the landing gear can be extended, but not locked. How should the landing be conducted? ^q41 - A) Keep gear unlocked and perform normal landing - B) Keep a firm grip on gear handle during normal landing - C) Retract landing gear and perform belly landing with minimum speed - D) Retract gear and perform belly landing with increased speed **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q42: An off-field landing with tailwind is inevitable. How should the landing be conducted? ^q42 - A) Approach with reduced speed, expect shorter flare and ground roll distance - B) Normal approach, when reaching landing site, extend spoiler flaps and push down elevator - C) Approach with normal speed, expect longer flare and ground roll distance - D) Approach with increased speed without use of spoiler flaps **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q43: A plane flying below an extended Cumulus cloud developing into a thunderstorm, the glider plane quickly approaches the cloud base. What actions have to be taken by the glider pilot? ^q43 - A) Extend spoiler flaps within speed limits, leave thermal lift area with maximum permissable speed - B) Fasten seat belts, be aware of severe gust during further thermaling - C) Reduce to minimum speed, leave thermal lift area in a flat turn - D) Climb into thunderstorm cloud, continue flight using instruments **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q44: During approach for landing with strong crosswind, how should the turn from base to final be flown? ^q44 - A) Turn with maximum 60° bank, carefully watch speed and yaw string, track correction after overshoot. - B) Maximum 30° bank, use rudder to early align sailplane with final track - C) Maximum 60° bank, use rudder to early align sailplane with final track. - D) Turn with maximum 30° bank, carefully watch speed and yaw string, track correction after overshoot. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q45: During thermal soaring, another sailplane is following close by. What should be done to avoid a collision? ^q45 - A) You reduce speed to let the other sailplane fly by - B) You reduce bank to achieve a larger turn radius - C) You increase bank to be better seen from the other sailplane - D) You increase speed to achieve a position opposite in the circle **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q46: What heights should be consideres for landing phases with a glider plane? ^q46 - A) 100 m abeam threashold and 50 m after final approach turn - B) 300 m abeam threashold and 150 m in final approach - C) 500 m abeam threashold and 50 m after final approach turn - D) 150 - 200 m abeam threashold and 100 m after final approach turn **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q47: How should a glider plane be parked when observing strong winds? ^q47 - A) Nose into the wind, keep and weigh tail down - B) Nose into the wind, extends air brakes, secure rudders - C) Downwind wing on the ground, weigh wing down, secure rudders - D) Windward wing on the ground, weigh wing down, secure rudders **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q48: When do you expect wind shear? ^q48 - A) During an inversion - B) When passing a warm front - C) During a summer day with calm winds - D) In calm wind in cold weather **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q49: How can a wind shear encounter in flight be avoided? ^q49 - A) Avoid thermally active areas, particularly during summer, or stay below these areas - B) Avoid areas of precipitation, particularly during winter, and choose low flight altitudes - C) Avoid take-off and landing during the passage of heavy showers or thunderstorms - D) Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay in flat country whenever possible **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q50: Wake turbulence on or near the runway ^q50 - A) Plowed field - B) Glade with long dry grass - C) Sports area in a village - D) Harvested cornfield **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q51: A gliding plane is about to pitch down due to stall. What rudder input can prevent nose-dive and spin? ^q51 - A) Ailerons neutral, rudder strongly kicked to lower wing - B) Release elevator, rudder opposite to lower wing - C) Keep airplane in level flight using rudder pedals - D) Slightly pull the elevator, ailerons opposite to lower wing **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q52: In case of a cable break during winch launch, what actions should be taken in the correct order? ^q52 - A) Decouple cable, therafter push nose down; at heights up to 150m GND land straight ahead with increased speed - B) Push firmly nose down, decouple cable, depending on terrain and wind decide for short pattern or landing straight ahead - C) Initiate 180° turn and land opposite to runway heading in use, decouple cable before touch down - D) Keep elevetor pulled, stabilize on minimum speed and land on remaining field length **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q53: During initial winch launch, one wing of a glider plane gets ground contact. What action should be taken by the glider pilot? ^q53 - A) Pull the elevator - B) Decouple cable immediatly - C) Rudder in opposite direction - D) Ailerons in opposite direction **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q54: When flying into heavy snowfall, most dangerous will be the... ^q54 - A) Sudden blockage of pitot-static system - B) Sudden increase of airframe icing. - C) Sudden increase in airplane mass - D) Suddon loss of visibility **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q55: What has to be considers when overflying mountain ridges? ^q55 - A) Turbulences, reduce to minimum speed - B) Do not overfly national parks - C) Turbulences, therefore slightly increase speed - D) Use circling birds to find thermal cells **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q56: What is indicated by "buffeting" noticable at elevator stick? ^q56 - A) C.G. position too far ahead - B) Glider plane very dirty - C) Too slow, wing airflow stalled - D) Too fast, turbulence bubbles hitting on aileron **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q57: The term "flight time" is defined as... ^q57 - A) The period from engine start for the purpose of taking off to leaving the aircraft after engine shutdown. - B) The period from the start of the take-off run to the final touchdown when landing. - C) The total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. - D) The total time from the first take-off until the last landing in conjunction with one or more consecutive flights. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q58: Two aircraft of the same type, same grossweight and same configuration fly at different airspeeds. Which aircraft will cause more severe wake turbulence? ^q58 - A) The aircraft flying at lower altitude. - B) The aircraft flying at higher speed. - C) The aircraft flying at higher altitude - D) The aircraft flying at slower speed **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q59: What color has the emergency hood release handle? ^q59 - A) Green - B) Red - C) Yellow - D) Blue **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q60: When landing with tailwind, the pilot has to... ^q60 - A) Approach with normal speed and shallow angle. - B) Compensate tailwind by sideslip. - C) Increase approach speed. - D) Land with gear retracted to shorten ground roll distance **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q61: What negative impacts may be expected during circling overhead industrial facilities? ^q61 - A) Health impairments by pollutants, reduced visibilty and turbulences - B) Strong electrostatic charging and deterioration in radio communication - C) Very poor visibility of only few hundred meters and heavy precipitation - D) Extended, strong downwind areas on the lee side of the facility **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q62: During airtow, in a turn the glider plane gets into an outward off-set position. What action should be taken by the glider pilot? ^q62 - A) Return glider plane to a position behind towing plane by a smaller curve radius using strong inputs on rudder pedals - B) Take up same bank angle as towing plane and return glider plane to a position behind towing plane using rudder pedals - C) Bring back glider plane to intended turning attitude using rudder and airlerons, extend spoiler flaps to reduce speed - D) Initiate sideslip and let glider plane be pushed back to a position behind towing plane by increased drag **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q63: When has a pre-flight check to be done? ^q63 - A) Before first flight of the day, and after every change of pilot - B) After every build-up of the airplane - C) Once a month, with TMG once a day - D) Before flight operation and before every flight **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q64: Collisions during circling within thermal updrafts can be avoided by... ^q64 - A) Alternate circling with opposite directions in different heights. - B) Imitating the movements of the preceeding gliding plane. - C) Coordination of plane movements with other aircrafts circling within the same updraft - D) Fast approach into the updraft and rapidly pulling the elevator for slower speed. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:**