# 10 - Air Law > Source: exam.quizvds.it (EASA ECQB-SPL) | 64 questions --- ### Q1: Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions? ^q1 - A) No-fly zone - B) Restricted area - C) Prohibited area - D) Dangerous area **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q2: Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found? ^q2 - A) AIC - B) ICAO chart 1:500000 - C) AIP - D) NOTAM **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q3: What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA? (e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED) ^q3 - A) They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide - B) Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding - C) They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states - D) They have the same status as ICAO Annexes **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q4: What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ARC"? ^q4 - A) Airworthiness Recurring Control - B) Airspace Rulemaking Committee - C) Airworthiness Review Certificate - D) Airspace Restriction Criteria **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q5: The "Certificate of Airworthiness" is issued by the state... ^q5 - A) Of the residence of the owner - B) In which the aircraft is registered. - C) In which the airworthiness review is done. - D) In which the aircraft is constructed. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q6: The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is... ^q6 - A) 12 Months. - B) 48 Months. - C) 24 Months. - D) 60 Months. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q7: What is the meaning of the abbreviation "TRA"? ^q7 - A) Transponder Area - B) Temporary Reserved Airspace - C) Terminal Area - D) Temporary Radar Routing Area **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q8: What has to be considered when entering an RMZ? ^q8 - A) To obtain a clearance to enter this area - B) To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact - C) To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority - D) The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000 **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q9: What is the meaning of an area marked as "TMZ"? ^q9 - A) Transponder Mandatory Zone - B) Transportation Management Zone - C) Touring Motorglider Zone - D) Traffic Management Zone **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q10: Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude. Which one has to divert? ^q10 - A) Both have to divert to the left - B) The lighter one has to climb - C) The heavier one has to climb - D) Both have to divert to the right **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q11: Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks. Which one has to divert? ^q11 - A) Both have to divert to the lef - B) The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority - C) Both have to divert to the right - D) The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q12: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "E" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL75? ^q12 - A) 8000 m - B) 1500 m - C) 3000 m - D) 5000 m **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q13: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" below FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR? ^q13 - A) 1.5 km - B) 8 km - C) 5 km - D) 10 km **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q14: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" at and above FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR? ^q14 - A) 1.5 km - B) 10 km - C) 5 km - D) 8 km **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q15: The term "ceiling" is defined as the... ^q15 - A) Height of the base of the highest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft. - B) Height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 10000 ft. - C) Height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft. - D) Altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q16: A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a... ^q16 - A) Transponder approved for airspace "B". - B) Mode C or S transponder. - C) Pressure-decoder. - D) Mode A transponder. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q17: Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication? ^q17 - A) 2000 - B) 7600 - C) 7000 - D) 7700 **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q18: What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light aircraft is following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category? ^q18 - A) Caution wake turbulence - B) Be careful wake winds - C) Danger jet blast - D) Attention propwash **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q19: What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? ^q19 - A) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces - B) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods - C) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees - D) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q20: Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)? ^q20 - A) GEN MET RAC - B) GEN AGA COM - C) GEN COM MET - D) GEN ENR AD **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q21: What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome? ^q21 - A) It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed - B) It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying aircraft - C) Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance - D) It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q22: How are two parallel runways designated? ^q22 - A) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway remains unchanged - B) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R" - C) The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1 - D) The left runway gets the suffix "-1", the right runway "-2" **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q23: Which runway designators are correct for 2 parallel runways? ^q23 - A) "26" and "26R" - B) "06L" and "06R" - C) "18" and "18-2" - D) "24" and "25" **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q24: What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome? See figure (ALW-011) Siehe Anlage 1 ^q24 - A) After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right - B) Caution, manoeuvring area is poor - C) Glider flying is in progress - D) Landing prohibited for a longer period **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q25: What is the meaning of "DETRESFA"? ^q25 - A) Distress phase - B) Alerting phase - C) Uncertainty phase - D) Rescue phase **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q26: Who provides search and rescue service? ^q26 - A) Only civil organisations - B) Both military and civil organisations - C) Only military organisations - D) International approved organisations **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q27: With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three categories regarding aircraft occurrences? ^q27 - A) Event Crash Disaster - B) Event Serious event Accident - C) Happening Event Serious event - D) Incident Serious incident Accident **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q28: During slope soaring you have the hill to your left side, another glider is approaching from the opposite side at the same altitude. How do you react? ^q28 - A) You divert to the right - B) You expect the opposite glider to divert - C) You divert to the right and expect the opposite glider to do the same - D) You pull on the elevator and divert upward **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q29: Along with other gliders, you are circling in a thermal updraft. Who determines the direction of circling? ^q29 - A) Circling is general to the left - B) The glider who entered the updraft at first - C) The glider with greatest bank angle - D) The glider at highest altitude **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q30: Is it possible to enter airspace C with a glider plane? ^q30 - A) Yes, but only with transponder activated - B) No - C) With restrictions, in case of less air traffic - D) Yes, but only with approval of the respective ATC unit **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q31: The holder of an SPL license or LAPL(S) license completed a total of 9 winch launches, 4 launches in aero-tow and 2 bungee launches during the last 24 months. What launch methods may the pilot conduct as PIC today? ^q31 - A) Winch and bungee. - B) Winch, bungee and aero-tow. - C) Winch and aero-tow. - D) Aero-tow and bungee. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q32: Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight? a) Certificate of aircraft registration b) Certificate of airworthiness c) Airworthiness review certificate d) EASA Form-1 e) Airplane logbook f) Appropriate papers for every crew member g) Technical logbook ^q32 - A) B, c, d, e, f, g - B) A, b, c, e, f - C) D, f, g - D) A, b, e, g **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q33: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL110? ^q33 - A) 1500 m - B) 3000 m - C) 8000 m - D) 5000 m **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q34: During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be... ^q34 - A) Local QFE. - B) Local QNH. - C) 1030.25 hPa. - D) 1013.25 hPa. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q35: What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule? ^q35 - A) To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP - B) To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres - C) To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude - D) To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q36: Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request? ^q36 - A) 7700 - B) 7600 - C) 7500 - D) 7000 **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q37: Which transponder code has to be set unrequested during an emergency? ^q37 - A) 7500 - B) 7700 - C) 7000 - D) 7600 **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q38: Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights? ^q38 - A) ATC (air traffic control) - B) AIS (aeronautical information service) - C) ALR (alerting service) - D) FIS (flight information service) **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q39: Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)? ^q39 - A) FIS (flight information service) ALR (alerting service) - B) ATC (air traffic control) FIS (flight information service) - C) ATC (air traffic control) AIS (aeronautical information service) - D) AIS (aeronautical information service) SAR (search and rescue) **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q40: Which of the following options states a correct position report? ^q40 - A) DEABC reaching "N" - B) DEABC, "N", 2500 ft - C) DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft - D) DEABC over "N" at 35 **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q41: The shown NOTAM is valid until... A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400 E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE. ^q41 - A) 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC. - B) 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC. - C) 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC. - D) 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q42: The term "aerodrome elevation" is defined as... ^q42 - A) The highest point of the apron. - B) The lowest point of the landing area. - C) The highest point of the landing area. - D) The average value of the height of the manoeuvring area. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q43: Of what shape is a landing direction indicator? ^q43 - A) T - B) A straight arrow - C) L - D) An angled arrow **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q44: What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the centerline of a runway? ^q44 - A) At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway - B) Do not touch down before them - C) Do not touch down behind them - D) A ground roll could be started from this position **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q45: Which validity does the "Certificate of Airworthiness" have? ^q45 - A) Unlimited - B) 12 years - C) 6 months - D) 12 months **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q46: A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in... ^q46 - A) Those countries that have accepted this license on application. - B) The country where the license was acquired. - C) All ICAO countries. - D) The country where the license was issued. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q47: What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1? ^q47 - A) Flight crew licensing - B) Air traffic services - C) Rules of the air - D) Operation of aircraft **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q48: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL125? ^q48 - A) 8000 m - B) 1500 m - C) 5000 m - D) 3000 m **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q49: What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace "B"? ^q49 - A) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m - B) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m - C) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m - D) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q50: Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft? ^q50 - A) Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield - B) You may continue your flight - C) Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area - D) You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q51: Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace "E"? ^q51 - A) VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic - B) VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic - C) VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic - D) IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q52: A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current... ^q52 - A) AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight. - B) AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight. - C) NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight. - D) ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q53: How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility? ^q53 - A) The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower. - B) The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials. - C) The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle. - D) The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q54: Which distances to clouds have to be maintained during a VFR flight in airpaces C, D and E? ^q54 - A) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically - B) 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically - C) 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically - D) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q55: How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight? ^q55 - A) Push the rudder in both directions multiple times - B) Fly in a parabolic flight path multiple times - C) Rock the wings - D) Deploy and retract the landing flaps multiple times **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q56: What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SERA"? ^q56 - A) Selective Radar Altimeter - B) Standardized European Rules of the Air - C) Standard European Routes of the Air - D) Specialized Radar Approach **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q57: A flight is called a "visual flight", if the... ^q57 - A) Visibility in flight is more than 5 km. - B) Flight is conducted under visual flight rules. - C) Visibility in flight is more than 8 km. - D) Flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q58: Air traffic control service is conducted by which services? ^q58 - A) ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service) - B) FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service) - C) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service) - D) TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** ### Q59: An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a... ^q59 - A) Fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air - B) Rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air. - C) Rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air. - D) Rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the ground. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q60: What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation? ^q60 - A) To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations - B) To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers - C) To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents - D) To Determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** ### Q61: The term "runway" is defined as a... ^q61 - A) Round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft - B) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters. - C) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. - D) Rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q62: A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)... ^q62 - A) By a personal visit. - B) Via telephone. - C) Via radio communication. - D) Via internet. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ### Q63: What is the meaning of the abbreviation "VMC"? ^q63 - A) Variable meteorological conditions - B) Visual meteorological conditions - C) Instrument flight conditions - D) Visual flight rules **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** ### Q64: What information is provided in the part "AD" of the AIP? ^q64 - A) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces. - B) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods - C) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts - D) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:**