### Q51: You have just passed the LAPL(S) practical exam. May you carry passengers as soon as the licence is issued? ^t70q51 - A) Yes, provided the recent experience requirements are fulfilled. - B) No, only after completing 10 flight hours or 30 flights as PIC following licence issue. - C) Yes, without any restriction. - D) No, carrying passengers requires an SPL licence. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Under EASA regulations, a newly qualified LAPL(S) holder must accumulate a minimum of 10 hours of flight time or 30 flights as pilot in command after licence issuance before being permitted to carry passengers. This ensures the pilot gains sufficient solo experience before taking responsibility for others. Option A omits the initial experience requirement. Option C is wrong because there is a clear restriction. Option D is incorrect because the LAPL(S) does permit passenger carriage after meeting the experience requirement. ### Q52: On final approach to an out-landing field, you suddenly encounter a strong thermal. How should you react? ^t70q52 - A) Retract the airbrakes and slow down to minimum sink speed to exploit the thermal. - B) Fully extend the airbrakes and lengthen the approach path if necessary. - C) Continue the approach unchanged, since a thermal is always followed by a downdraft. - D) Retract the airbrakes and circle gently to exit the thermal. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** On final approach, the commitment to land has been made. A thermal on final approach will cause the glider to float above the desired glide path, so the pilot must fully extend airbrakes to maintain the correct path and dissipate the extra energy. Option A (retracting brakes to exploit the thermal) abandons the committed approach at a critical phase, which is extremely dangerous at low altitude. Option C assumes thermals always produce compensating sink, which is not reliable. Option D (circling on final) is dangerous at low altitude. ### Q53: You land on a grass runway shortly after a rain shower. What should you expect? ^t70q53 - A) The glider will veer off the runway due to aquaplaning. - B) The glider will brake rapidly on the wet surface without needing the wheel brake. - C) The glider will stop noticeably more quickly after touchdown. - D) Reduced wheel grip and less effective braking, resulting in a longer ground roll. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Wet grass significantly reduces friction between the tire and the surface, resulting in less effective wheel braking and a longer ground roll. The pilot must plan for this extended stopping distance. Option A exaggerates — aquaplaning is primarily a concern on paved runways, not grass. Option B is incorrect because wet surfaces reduce, not improve, natural braking. Option C is wrong because reduced friction means a longer, not shorter, ground roll. ### Q54: When flying late in the day in a valley toward shaded slopes, what difficulty should you expect? ^t70q54 - A) Severe turbulence. - B) Strong downdrafts. - C) Difficulty detecting other aircraft in the shaded areas. - D) Glare from the low sun on the horizon. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Late in the day, shaded slopes create dark backgrounds against which other aircraft become extremely difficult to spot visually. The contrast between sunlit and shaded areas makes visual detection particularly challenging — an aircraft in shadow can be nearly invisible. Option A and B may occur in certain conditions but are not specifically linked to shaded slopes late in the day. Option D (glare) is a concern when looking toward the sun, not toward shaded slopes. ### Q55: On a cross-country flight with no thermals available, you decide to make an out-landing. Several fields look suitable. By what altitude must your final choice be made? ^t70q55 - A) When you can positively identify the wind direction. - B) Glider at 300 m AGL; motorglider at 400 m AGL. - C) Glider at 400 m AGL; motorglider at 300 m AGL. - D) Glider at 300 m AGL; motorglider at 200 m AGL. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Field selection must be finalized at 300 m AGL for gliders and 400 m AGL for motorgliders to ensure sufficient altitude for a proper circuit, approach, and landing. Below these heights, the pilot should be committed to the chosen field. Option A does not specify a concrete altitude. Option C reverses the altitudes — motorgliders need more height because they may attempt an engine restart. Option D sets the motorglider threshold too low for a safe circuit with potential engine restart attempt. ### Q56: You are thermalling at 1500 m AGL over flat terrain with no other glider nearby. In which direction should you circle? ^t70q56 - A) Circle to the left. - B) There is no rule governing the direction. - C) Within 5 km of an aerodrome turn left; otherwise choose freely. - D) Use figure-eight patterns to best exploit the thermal. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When thermalling alone with no other aircraft in the thermal, there is no regulation requiring a specific turning direction. The pilot is free to choose whichever direction best centers the thermal or feels most comfortable. Option A imposes a left-turn requirement that does not exist. Option C invents a distance-based rule. Option D (figure-eights) is a technique for locating the thermal core, not a required circling method. The obligation to match another glider's turn direction only applies when sharing a thermal. ### Q57: You are on an aerotow departure in calm conditions. The towrope breaks just below safety height. What do you do? ^t70q57 - A) Extend airbrakes, push the stick forward, and land straight ahead. - B) Push the stick forward, release the rope (twice), and land in the opposite direction. - C) Establish a glide, release the rope (twice), and land straight ahead if possible. - D) Immediately release the rope once, then establish a glide and land straight ahead. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** After a cable break below safety height, the priority sequence is: establish a safe glide attitude (to maintain flying speed), release the remaining rope by actuating the release twice (to ensure disconnection), and land straight ahead if terrain permits. Option A deploys airbrakes prematurely when every meter of altitude counts. Option B attempts a 180° turn which is extremely dangerous below safety height. Option D releases before establishing a glide — the glide attitude should be established first to ensure safe flying speed. ### Q58: You are ready to launch in a glider with a strong crosswind from the right. What do you do? ^t70q58 - A) Hold the wheel brake until the engine reaches full power. - B) During the ground roll, pull the stick fully back to lift off as quickly as possible. - C) Ask the ground helper to hold the right wing slightly lower during the take-off run. - D) Ask the ground helper to run alongside the glider until you have enough speed to control bank. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** With a strong crosswind from the right, the wind will tend to lift the right (windward) wing. By holding the right wing slightly lower at the start of the ground roll, the helper compensates for this lifting tendency, keeping the wings level until the aileron becomes effective. Option A refers to engine procedures irrelevant for gliders. Option B (pulling back to lift off quickly) risks a premature liftoff with insufficient airspeed. Option D is impractical and dangerous — the helper cannot keep pace with an accelerating glider. ### Q59: During an aerotow departure, acceleration is clearly insufficient. What should you do when the take-off abort point is reached? ^t70q59 - A) Push the stick slightly forward to reduce drag. - B) Release the towrope. - C) Pull the elevator quickly to get the glider airborne. - D) Extend the flaps. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** If acceleration is insufficient by the abort point, the takeoff must be abandoned by releasing the towrope immediately. Continuing the takeoff with insufficient speed risks failing to clear obstacles or running off the end of the runway. Option A might marginally reduce drag but cannot solve a fundamental performance problem. Option C (forcing the aircraft airborne) at inadequate speed leads to an immediate stall or settling back onto the ground. Option D (flaps) cannot compensate for insufficient tow power. ### Q60: What lateral clearance from a slope must be maintained when flying a glider? ^t70q60 - A) A sufficient lateral safety distance. - B) At least 60 m horizontally. - C) At least 150 m horizontally. - D) It depends on the thermal conditions. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When flying along a slope, a minimum lateral distance of 60 meters must be maintained horizontally from the terrain. This provides a safety buffer against unexpected turbulence, downdrafts, or control difficulty near the slope face. Option A is vague and non-specific. Option C (150 m) is more conservative than the standard requirement. Option D (depends on thermals) introduces a variable condition that does not define a clear minimum standard. ### Q61: What requires special attention when flying in high mountains? ^t70q61 - A) FLARM may produce false warnings due to reflections off rock faces. - B) GPS signal reception may be lost. - C) Radio contact may be interrupted. - D) Weather conditions can change far more rapidly than expected (e.g. sudden thunderstorm development). **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In high mountain environments, weather can deteriorate with extreme speed — thunderstorms can develop in minutes due to orographic lifting and localized heating effects. This is the most significant hazard requiring special attention. Options A, B, and C describe technical inconveniences that may occasionally occur in mountains, but they are not the primary hazard. Rapid weather changes can trap a pilot in valleys with deteriorating visibility and violent turbulence, making option D the critical safety concern. ### Q62: When installing the oxygen system in a glider for an Alpine flight, what is absolutely essential? ^t70q62 - A) That the rubber seal is undamaged. - B) That all components in contact with oxygen are completely free of grease. - C) That the coupling nut is tightened to the correct torque. - D) That the cylinder connector is well greased. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Oxygen under pressure can react violently with hydrocarbon-based greases and oils, potentially causing a flash fire or explosion. All components in contact with oxygen must be completely grease-free. Option D is directly dangerous — greasing the connector introduces a combustion risk. Options A and C describe good practices but are not the absolute safety-critical requirement. The oxygen-grease incompatibility is a fundamental rule in aviation oxygen system handling. ### Q63: After a collision, you must bail out at approximately 400 m. When should the parachute be opened? ^t70q63 - A) After 2 to 3 seconds of freefall. - B) When you have stabilised in freefall. - C) Just before leaving the glider. - D) Immediately after leaving the glider. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** At only 400 m above ground, there is no time for any delay — the parachute must be deployed immediately after clearing the aircraft. Freefall at terminal velocity covers roughly 50 m per second, so even 2-3 seconds of delay (option A) would consume 100-150 m of precious altitude. Option B (stabilizing in freefall) wastes critical seconds. Option C (before leaving) would entangle the parachute with the aircraft structure. At 400 m, every second counts for a successful deployment and deceleration. ### Q64: On short final for an out-landing, you realise the field is too short. What do you do? ^t70q64 - A) Reduce speed to the minimum to shorten the landing distance. - B) Continue straight ahead, deploy full airbrakes, and prepare for an emergency stop using all available means. - C) Maintain heading and land using full airbrakes to stop as early as possible. - D) Attempt to turn and find a longer alternative field. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** On short final, the commitment to land has been made — the safest action is to continue straight ahead with full airbrakes and use every available means (wheel brake, ground friction) to stop in the shortest distance possible. Option A (reducing to minimum speed) risks stalling close to the ground. Option C is similar to B but less specific about using all stopping means. Option D (turning to find another field) at this low altitude and close range is extremely dangerous and likely to result in a stall-spin accident. ### Q65: What does FLARM do? ^t70q65 - A) It shows the precise position of other gliders. - B) It warns of other FLARM-equipped aircraft that may pose a collision risk. - C) It recommends avoidance manoeuvres when a collision risk exists. - D) It shows the exact positions of all aircraft equipped with FLARM or a transponder. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** FLARM is a traffic awareness system that calculates collision risk based on the predicted flight paths of nearby FLARM-equipped aircraft and issues warnings when a potential conflict is detected. Option A overstates its precision — it provides approximate positions, not precise ones. Option C is incorrect because FLARM warns but does not recommend specific avoidance maneuvers. Option D is wrong because FLARM only detects other FLARM devices, not transponder-equipped aircraft (that would require a separate ADS-B receiver). ### Q66: During a cross-country flight, you must land at a high-altitude aerodrome with no wind. At what indicated airspeed do you fly the approach? ^t70q66 - A) About 5 km/h less than at sea level. - B) Increase the sea-level speed by 1% for every 100 m of altitude. - C) About 5 km/h more than at sea level. - D) The same as at sea level. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The indicated airspeed (IAS) for the approach should be the same as at sea level because the ASI already accounts for air density — it measures dynamic pressure, which determines aerodynamic forces regardless of altitude. The stall IAS does not change with altitude. However, the true airspeed and groundspeed will be higher at altitude due to lower air density. Options A and C incorrectly adjust IAS, and option B applies a TAS correction to IAS, which is unnecessary. ### Q67: What do you notice when entering the centre of a downdraft? ^t70q67 - A) One wing rises and the aircraft begins to turn. - B) The nose pitches up and you feel a brief increase in g-load. - C) The glider accelerates and you feel increased g-load. - D) The glider slows and you feel a brief decrease in g-load. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When entering a downdraft, the descending air mass reduces the effective angle of attack on the wings, temporarily decreasing lift. The pilot feels a brief reduction in g-load (a sensation of lightness or being pushed up from the seat) as the aircraft begins to sink with the descending air. The glider's airspeed initially decreases momentarily. Option B describes what happens entering an updraft (nose pitches up, increased g-load). Options A and C do not accurately describe the symmetrical effect of entering a downdraft center. ### Q68: During a cross-country flight over the Jura, you notice cirrus forming to the west. What should you expect? ^t70q68 - A) Weaker thermals due to reduced solar radiation. - B) Increased upper-level instability from moisture, producing stronger thermals. - C) A transition from cumulus thermals to blue (dry) thermals. - D) Cirrus have no effect on conditions in the thermal layer. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Cirrus clouds at high altitude filter incoming solar radiation, reducing the surface heating that drives thermal convection. Less heating means weaker thermals and potentially an earlier end to the soaring day. This is an important warning sign during cross-country flights. Option B is wrong — cirrus does not increase instability at thermal altitudes. Option C describes a shift that may occur but is not the primary effect. Option D underestimates the impact cirrus has on thermal generation through solar radiation reduction. ### Q69: What speed maximises distance covered against a headwind? ^t70q69 - A) Minimum sink speed. - B) Best glide ratio speed. - C) A speed higher than best glide ratio speed. - D) The speed corresponding to McCready zero. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** To maximize distance in a headwind, the pilot must fly faster than best-glide speed. The headwind reduces groundspeed, so the glider spends more time in the air and descends more before covering the desired ground distance. By increasing speed above best-glide, the pilot accepts a steeper glide angle but gains enough extra groundspeed to more than compensate for the altitude loss. Option A (minimum sink) minimizes descent rate but covers minimal distance. Option B (best glide) is optimal only in still air. Option D (McCready zero) equals best-glide speed. ### Q70: Which of these fields is best for an out-landing? ^t70q70 - A) A 400 m freshly ploughed field. - B) A 300 m maize field with a steady headwind. - C) A 250 m country lane with a strong headwind. - D) A 200 m meadow that has just been mown. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A freshly mown meadow of 200 m provides a smooth, firm surface free of tall vegetation and hidden obstacles — ideal for a short ground roll in a glider, which can typically stop within 100-200 m. Option A (ploughed field) has soft soil and deep furrows that can nose the glider over. Option B (maize field) has tall crops that obscure hazards and create drag inconsistencies. Option C (country lane) is narrow, potentially lined with trees and power lines, and poses collision risks with vehicles. ### Q71: May you use the on-board radio to communicate with your retrieve crew on the dedicated frequency without holding a radiotelephony extension? ^t70q71 - A) Only exceptionally - B) Yes - C) As a general rule, once per flight, shortly before landing - D) No **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Pilots may use the on-board radio on dedicated glider frequencies to communicate with their retrieve crew without needing a separate radiotelephony extension or rating. These frequencies are designated for glider operations and permit such operational communications. Option A unnecessarily restricts this established practice. Option C invents a frequency limitation that does not exist. Option D incorrectly prohibits a communication that is routinely permitted. ### Q72: At an aerodrome at 1800 m AMSL, how does the ground speed compare to the indicated airspeed on approach? ^t70q72 - A) It depends on the temperature. - B) Ground speed is lower. - C) They are the same. - D) Ground speed is higher. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** At 1800 m AMSL, air density is lower than at sea level, so the true airspeed (TAS) is higher than indicated airspeed (IAS) for the same dynamic pressure reading. In nil-wind conditions, groundspeed equals TAS, which exceeds IAS. This means the aircraft approaches the runway at a higher groundspeed than the ASI shows, requiring awareness of a longer ground roll and higher touchdown energy. Options B and C underestimate the density altitude effect. Option A is partially true but the dominant factor is altitude, not temperature. ### Q73: Is wearing a parachute compulsory during glider flights? ^t70q73 - A) Yes, for all flights above 300 m AGL - B) No - C) Only when performing aerobatics - D) Yes, always **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Wearing a parachute is not compulsory for glider flights under current regulations, although it is strongly recommended and standard practice in the gliding community. The decision is left to the pilot. Option A invents an altitude-based requirement. Option C creates a restriction limited to aerobatics that does not exist in the regulations. Option D overstates the requirement. While practically all glider pilots wear parachutes, it remains a personal safety choice, not a legal obligation. ### Q74: During a winch launch, just after reaching the climbing angle, the cable breaks near the winch. How should you react? ^t70q74 - A) Extend the airbrakes immediately - B) First establish normal flight attitude, then release the cable - C) Report the incident by radio - D) Release the cable immediately, then establish a normal flight attitude **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** After a cable break during the climb phase, the immediate priority is to release the remaining cable (which may still be attached and could snag) and then lower the nose to establish a safe glide. The cable release comes first because a dangling cable is an immediate hazard. Option A (airbrakes first) wastes altitude when every meter counts. Option B reverses the priority — establishing the glide before releasing could allow the cable to become entangled. Option C (radio call) wastes precious seconds during a time-critical emergency. ### Q75: What must be considered during an aerotow departure in strong crosswind? ^t70q75 - A) The tow plane must lift off before the glider - B) After take-off, correct into the wind until the tow plane lifts off - C) The take-off distance will be shorter - D) Before departure, offset the glider to the upwind side **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In a strong crosswind aerotow departure, the glider should be positioned upwind of the tow aircraft's centerline to prevent being blown across the tug's path during the ground roll. This offset compensates for the crosswind drift during the critical acceleration phase. Option A states a normal sequence that does not address crosswind specifically. Option B provides a partial technique but does not address the pre-departure setup. Option C is incorrect because crosswinds typically increase takeoff distance slightly. ### Q76: You enter a thermal in the lowlands at 1500 m AGL with no other glider nearby. In which direction do you circle? ^t70q76 - A) Circle to the right - B) There is no regulation on this - C) Circle to the left - D) First perform a figure-eight to locate the best lift **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When entering a thermal alone, the recommended technique is to first perform a figure-eight pattern (or S-turns) to identify the strongest part of the thermal before committing to a circling direction. This allows the pilot to center the thermal efficiently. Option A and C prescribe a fixed direction without first locating the core. Option B is technically correct regarding regulations but does not describe the best practice for thermal exploitation. The figure-eight technique optimizes climb rate by finding the thermal center before circling. ### Q77: What lateral distance from a slope must you maintain in a glider? ^t70q77 - A) It depends on the lift conditions - B) 150 m horizontally - C) 60 m horizontally - D) A sufficient safety distance must be maintained **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When flying near a slope, the pilot must maintain a sufficient safety distance that accounts for current conditions including wind, turbulence, and terrain features. This is a judgment-based requirement rather than a fixed numeric value. Option A (depends on lift) only considers one factor. Options B (150 m) and C (60 m) specify fixed distances that may be appropriate in some contexts but do not reflect the general guidance, which emphasizes adequate safety margin appropriate to the circumstances. ### Q78: You enter a thermal at 500 m AGL below a cumulus and see another glider circling 50 m above you. In which direction should you turn? ^t70q78 - A) You are free to choose, since the vertical separation is sufficient - B) Circle in the same direction as the glider above you - C) Circle in the opposite direction so you can observe the other glider from below - D) You cannot use this thermal because the height difference is less than 150 m **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When joining a thermal occupied by another glider, you must circle in the same direction to maintain a predictable traffic pattern and avoid head-on encounters within the thermal. This is a fundamental rule of shared thermal etiquette. Option A incorrectly dismisses the need for directional coordination. Option C (opposite direction) creates dangerous head-on convergence paths within the confined area of the thermal. Option D invents a non-existent 150 m vertical separation requirement for thermal sharing. ### Q79: During an off-field landing, the glider sustains 70% damage; the pilot is unhurt. What must be done? ^t70q79 - A) Submit a written report with a sketch to FOCA within 3 days - B) Notify the local police within 24 hours - C) Immediately notify the investigation bureau via REGA - D) Report the damage to the accident investigation bureau within the following week **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When a glider sustains major damage (70%) without injuries, the pilot must notify the local police within 24 hours. This is classified as a serious incident with substantial damage. Option A (FOCA report in 3 days) does not meet the urgency required. Option C (immediate notification via REGA) is the procedure for accidents involving injuries or fatalities. Option D (report within a week) is too slow for an incident involving 70% airframe damage, which requires prompt reporting. ### Q80: What requires special attention when taking off on a hard (paved) runway? ^t70q80 - A) The wingtip helper must run alongside for longer - B) Pull back on the stick longer than usual - C) Apply moderate wheel brake at the start of the roll - D) Expect a longer ground roll than normal **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** On a hard paved runway, a glider's main wheel has less rolling resistance compared to grass, which means the groundspeed at liftoff may feel similar but the ground roll can be longer because the wheel offers less drag to help the aircraft become airborne. Additionally, on pavement the aircraft may weathervane more easily. Option A is not specific to hard runways. Option B (pulling back longer) could cause the tail to strike the runway. Option C (wheel brake at start) would impede acceleration during the most critical phase. ### Q81: How should a water landing (ditching) be carried out? ^t70q81 - A) Just before contact, pitch the glider up sharply to touch tail-first - B) Tighten harnesses, close ventilation, and land at slightly above normal speed - C) Extend the undercarriage, tighten harnesses, and land at minimum speed with airbrakes retracted - D) Perform a sideslip to reduce impact force on the wing **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** For a water landing, the pilot should tighten all harnesses to prevent injury on impact, close ventilation openings to slow water ingress, and approach at slightly above normal speed to maintain control and reduce the descent rate. The gear should be retracted (not extended as in option C) to prevent the aircraft from flipping on water entry. Option A (tail-first) risks a violent pitch-forward on impact. Option D (sideslip) creates an asymmetric water entry that could cartwheel the aircraft. ### Q82: During an off-field landing, how can the wind direction best be determined? ^t70q82 - A) By observing movement of leaves in the trees - B) By watching wave patterns in wheat fields - C) By observing the glider's drift during altitude-losing spirals - D) By observing the behaviour of grazing livestock **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The most reliable method for determining wind direction from the air is to observe the glider's drift during altitude-loss spirals — the direction the aircraft drifts indicates the downwind direction, and the amount of drift indicates wind strength. This works at any altitude and any location. Option A (tree leaves) requires being low enough to see individual leaves. Option B (wheat field patterns) can be misleading and requires specific crop stages. Option D (livestock behavior) is unreliable as a wind indicator. ### Q83: You are flying fast along a ridge and spot a slower glider ahead at about the same altitude. How do you react? ^t70q83 - A) Make a 180-degree turn and return along the slope - B) Overtake on the side away from the slope - C) Establish radio contact and ask about the other pilot's intentions - D) Dive below and clear upward at a safe distance, then continue **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When overtaking a slower glider on a ridge, always pass on the valley side (away from the slope) to maintain safe terrain clearance and avoid trapping the other pilot against the hillside. This gives both aircraft escape room toward the valley. Option A (turning back) is unnecessary and wastes energy. Option C (radio contact) takes too long to arrange at closing speed. Option D (diving below) risks flying into the turbulent rotor zone closer to the terrain. ### Q84: At the start of an aerotow, the glider rolls over the tow rope. What should you do? ^t70q84 - A) Apply the wheel brake to tension the rope - B) Extend the airbrakes - C) Release the rope immediately - D) Warn the tow pilot by radio **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the glider rolls over the slack tow rope, the rope can become entangled with the landing gear, skid, or other structures beneath the aircraft. The immediate action is to release the rope before any entanglement can occur. Option A (braking) does not prevent entanglement and may worsen it. Option B (airbrakes) is irrelevant to the immediate hazard. Option D (radio warning) wastes time during a situation requiring instant action — by the time the call is made, the rope may already be entangled. ### Q85: Are glider flights permitted in Class C airspace? ^t70q85 - A) Yes, provided the glider's transponder continuously transmits code 7000 - B) Yes, if the pilot holds the radiotelephony extension, has received ATC authorisation, and maintains a continuous radio watch; exceptions are published on the soaring chart - C) Yes, without restrictions, in VMC - D) Yes, provided no NOTAM expressly prohibits them **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Glider flights are permitted in Class C airspace under specific conditions: the pilot must hold the radiotelephony extension, receive ATC authorization before entering, and maintain continuous radio contact. Certain exceptions for gliders may be published on the soaring chart. Option A assumes gliders carry transponders, which most do not. Option C ignores the mandatory ATC clearance and radio requirements for Class C. Option D incorrectly implies that Class C is open by default unless NOTAMs restrict it. ### Q86: You are flying along a slope on your right and spot an oncoming glider at the same altitude. How do you react? ^t70q86 - A) Extend airbrakes and dive for vertical separation - B) Move away on the side opposite to the slope - C) Climb away since you have enough speed - D) Maintain your heading **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When meeting an oncoming glider while ridge soaring with the slope on your right, the standard rule is to give way by turning away from the slope (toward the valley). The pilot with the slope on the right has right-of-way in ridge soaring (similar to the rule of the road on mountain roads). However, both pilots should take evasive action by moving away from the ridge. Option A (diving) risks terrain collision. Option C (climbing) may not be possible. Option D (maintaining heading) leads directly to a head-on collision. ### Q87: You must land on a 400 m field with a moderate tailwind. How do you fly the final approach? ^t70q87 - A) At best glide speed and somewhat higher than for a headwind landing - B) Normally, using a sideslip - C) Slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than for a headwind landing - D) Faster than for a headwind landing **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** With a tailwind on a limited field, the pilot must minimize groundspeed at touchdown to reduce ground roll. This means flying slightly above minimum speed (to maintain a safety margin while being as slow as possible in the air) and approaching at a lower height to steepen the approach angle relative to the ground. Option A (best glide speed) is faster than needed and wastes field length. Option B (sideslip) addresses crosswind, not tailwind. Option D (faster approach) would increase groundspeed and ground roll on an already short field. ### Q88: What is the effect of a waterlogged grass runway on an aerotow departure? ^t70q88 - A) The take-off distance is the same as on a dry runway - B) The take-off distance will be longer - C) None of these answers is correct - D) The take-off distance will be shorter because the surface is slippery **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A waterlogged grass runway increases rolling resistance because the wheels sink into the soft, saturated surface, creating drag that slows acceleration. This results in a significantly longer takeoff distance for both the tow aircraft and the glider. Option A ignores the substantial difference between dry and waterlogged surfaces. Option D's logic is flawed — while a slippery surface might reduce friction on a hard runway, waterlogged grass creates suction and drag that impede acceleration. Option C is incorrect because option B is the correct answer. ### Q89: On approach to an off-field landing, you suddenly notice a high-voltage power line across your landing axis. How do you react? ^t70q89 - A) In all cases, fly over the power line - B) Pass under the line if flying over is not possible and no safe escape route exists - C) Execute a tight turn near the ground and land parallel to the line - D) Pass under the line as close as possible to a pylon **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The preferred action is always to fly over the power line if possible. However, if altitude is insufficient to clear the line and no alternative landing path exists, passing under the line is acceptable as a last resort — but only between the pylons where the cable sag provides maximum clearance, not near a pylon (option D) where cables are at their lowest. Option A (always fly over) is not possible when altitude is insufficient. Option C (tight turn near the ground) risks a stall-spin accident. Option D (near a pylon) is where clearance is minimal. ### Q90: What is the standard spin recovery procedure when the manufacturer has not specified one? ^t70q90 - A) Push the stick fully forward, apply full opposite rudder, then pull out - B) Push the stick forward, apply ailerons opposite to the spin, then pull out - C) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite rudder, keep ailerons neutral, ease the stick slightly forward, then pull out - D) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite ailerons, push the stick fully forward, rudder neutral, then pull out **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The standard spin recovery procedure is: (1) identify the spin direction, (2) apply full opposite rudder to stop the rotation, (3) keep ailerons neutral (as aileron input during a spin can be counterproductive), (4) ease the stick slightly forward to reduce the angle of attack below the stall angle, and (5) once rotation stops, centralize the rudder and pull out of the resulting dive. Option A omits identifying the spin direction. Option B uses ailerons, which can deepen the spin. Option D uses ailerons instead of rudder as the primary anti-spin control, which is incorrect. ### Q91: Unless ATC instructs otherwise, how should the approach to an aerodrome be carried out in a glider? ^t70q91 - A) A straight-in approach must be made to minimise disturbance to other traffic - B) At least one full circle above the signal area, with all turns to the left, must precede the landing - C) The published approach procedures in the VFR guide or any other appropriate method must be followed - D) At least a half-circuit, with all turns to the left, must precede the landing **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Approach to an aerodrome should follow published VFR guide procedures or any other appropriate method. A mandatory full circuit over the signal area is no longer systematically required. ### Q92: You are flying a fast glider along a slope and spot a slower glider ahead at approximately the same altitude. How do you respond? ^t70q92 - A) Establish radio contact and inquire about its intentions - B) Overtake on the valley side (away from the slope) - C) Perform a 180-degree turn and return along the slope - D) Dive below, then climb past at a safe distance **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In mountain flying, to overtake a slower glider on a slope, pass on the side away from the slope (valley side). This rule is consistent with the right-of-way for climbing gliders. ### Q93: In flight, the rudder jams in the neutral position. How do you react? ^t70q93 - A) Refer to the flight manual - B) Increase speed and continue the flight - C) Bail out by parachute immediately - D) Control the glider with elevator and ailerons; make shallow turns and land immediately **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** If the rudder jams in flight, control the glider with elevator and ailerons. Make shallow turns and land immediately. ### Q94: At the start of an aerotow, the glider rolls over the tow rope. What do you do? ^t70q94 - A) Extend the airbrakes - B) Apply the wheel brake to tension the rope - C) Immediately release the rope - D) Alert the tow pilot by radio **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the glider rolls over the tow rope, immediately releasing the rope is the only correct action. ### Q95: The tow rope breaks on the tug's side before reaching safety height. How must the glider pilot react? ^t70q95 - A) Immediately actuate the release handle twice and land straight ahead in the runway extension - B) Pull back on the stick, release the rope, and land with a tailwind - C) Make a flat turn and land diagonally - D) Actuate the release handle twice and return to land on the aerodrome without exception **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** If the rope breaks on the tow plane side below safety height: actuate the release handle twice (verification) and land straight ahead in the runway extension. Avoid turning. ### Q96: How do you fly the final approach in a strong crosswind? ^t70q96 - A) Maintain runway alignment using rudder alone - B) Do not fully extend the airbrakes - C) Always approach with a sideslip on the side opposite to the wind - D) Take a heading into the wind and increase speed **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In strong crosswind on final, take a crab angle into the wind and increase speed slightly to maintain control. The sideslip can be used but crab is the primary method. ### Q97: How should a water landing be carried out? ^t70q97 - A) Just before landing, pitch up to touch down tail first - B) Extend the undercarriage, tighten harnesses, land at minimum speed with airbrakes retracted - C) Perform a sideslip to lessen the impact with the wing - D) Tighten harnesses, close ventilation, and land at slightly above normal speed **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** For a water landing: tighten harnesses, close ventilation to prevent water entry, and land at slightly above normal speed for better control and to avoid nose-over. ### Q98: You enter a thermal with no other glider nearby. In which direction do you circle? ^t70q98 - A) There is no regulation on this - B) Circle to the left - C) Circle to the right - D) Search for the best lift by first performing a figure-eight **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Without other gliders in the thermal, there is no prescribed spiraling direction. The pilot chooses freely. ### Q99: In a glider, how is altitude expressed? ^t70q99 - A) Only in altitude (metres or feet) - B) In flight levels - C) According to the regulations of the countries overflown - D) In height above ground **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Glider altitude is expressed according to the country overflown (altitude in feet or meters per local rules, or flight levels per airspace). Regulations vary by country. ### Q100: Without manufacturer-specific guidance, what is the standard spin recovery procedure? ^t70q100 - A) Identify the spin direction, apply ailerons opposite to it, push the stick fully forward, hold rudder neutral, then pull out - B) Push the stick fully forward, apply full opposite rudder, then pull out - C) Push the stick forward, apply ailerons opposite to the spin direction, then pull out - D) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite rudder, hold ailerons neutral, push the stick slightly forward, then pull out **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Standard spin recovery: 1) Identify direction, 2) Opposite rudder, 3) Ailerons neutral, 4) Slight forward stick, 5) Pull out after rotation stops.