### Q51: You have just passed the LAPL(S) practical exam. May you carry passengers as soon as the licence is issued? ^t70q51 - A) Yes, provided the recent experience requirements are fulfilled. - B) No, only after completing 10 flight hours or 30 flights as PIC following licence issue. - C) Yes, without any restriction. - D) No, carrying passengers requires an SPL licence. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Under EASA regulations, a newly qualified LAPL(S) holder must accumulate a minimum of 10 hours of flight time or 30 flights as pilot in command after licence issuance before being permitted to carry passengers. This ensures the pilot gains sufficient solo experience before taking responsibility for others. Option A omits the initial experience requirement. Option C is wrong because there is a clear restriction. Option D is incorrect because the LAPL(S) does permit passenger carriage after meeting the experience requirement. ### Q52: On final approach to an out-landing field, you suddenly encounter a strong thermal. How should you react? ^t70q52 - A) Retract the airbrakes and slow down to minimum sink speed to exploit the thermal. - B) Fully extend the airbrakes and lengthen the approach path if necessary. - C) Continue the approach unchanged, since a thermal is always followed by a downdraft. - D) Retract the airbrakes and circle gently to exit the thermal. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** On final approach, the commitment to land has been made. A thermal on final approach will cause the glider to float above the desired glide path, so the pilot must fully extend airbrakes to maintain the correct path and dissipate the extra energy. Option A (retracting brakes to exploit the thermal) abandons the committed approach at a critical phase, which is extremely dangerous at low altitude. Option C assumes thermals always produce compensating sink, which is not reliable. Option D (circling on final) is dangerous at low altitude. ### Q53: You land on a grass runway shortly after a rain shower. What should you expect? ^t70q53 - A) The glider will veer off the runway due to aquaplaning. - B) The glider will brake rapidly on the wet surface without needing the wheel brake. - C) The glider will stop noticeably more quickly after touchdown. - D) Reduced wheel grip and less effective braking, resulting in a longer ground roll. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Wet grass significantly reduces friction between the tire and the surface, resulting in less effective wheel braking and a longer ground roll. The pilot must plan for this extended stopping distance. Option A exaggerates — aquaplaning is primarily a concern on paved runways, not grass. Option B is incorrect because wet surfaces reduce, not improve, natural braking. Option C is wrong because reduced friction means a longer, not shorter, ground roll. ### Q54: When flying late in the day in a valley toward shaded slopes, what difficulty should you expect? ^t70q54 - A) Severe turbulence. - B) Strong downdrafts. - C) Difficulty detecting other aircraft in the shaded areas. - D) Glare from the low sun on the horizon. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Late in the day, shaded slopes create dark backgrounds against which other aircraft become extremely difficult to spot visually. The contrast between sunlit and shaded areas makes visual detection particularly challenging — an aircraft in shadow can be nearly invisible. Option A and B may occur in certain conditions but are not specifically linked to shaded slopes late in the day. Option D (glare) is a concern when looking toward the sun, not toward shaded slopes. ### Q55: On a cross-country flight with no thermals available, you decide to make an out-landing. Several fields look suitable. By what altitude must your final choice be made? ^t70q55 - A) When you can positively identify the wind direction. - B) Glider at 300 m AGL; motorglider at 400 m AGL. - C) Glider at 400 m AGL; motorglider at 300 m AGL. - D) Glider at 300 m AGL; motorglider at 200 m AGL. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Field selection must be finalized at 300 m AGL for gliders and 400 m AGL for motorgliders to ensure sufficient altitude for a proper circuit, approach, and landing. Below these heights, the pilot should be committed to the chosen field. Option A does not specify a concrete altitude. Option C reverses the altitudes — motorgliders need more height because they may attempt an engine restart. Option D sets the motorglider threshold too low for a safe circuit with potential engine restart attempt. ### Q56: You are thermalling at 1500 m AGL over flat terrain with no other glider nearby. In which direction should you circle? ^t70q56 - A) Circle to the left. - B) There is no rule governing the direction. - C) Within 5 km of an aerodrome turn left; otherwise choose freely. - D) Use figure-eight patterns to best exploit the thermal. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When thermalling alone with no other aircraft in the thermal, there is no regulation requiring a specific turning direction. The pilot is free to choose whichever direction best centers the thermal or feels most comfortable. Option A imposes a left-turn requirement that does not exist. Option C invents a distance-based rule. Option D (figure-eights) is a technique for locating the thermal core, not a required circling method. The obligation to match another glider's turn direction only applies when sharing a thermal. ### Q57: You are on an aerotow departure in calm conditions. The towrope breaks just below safety height. What do you do? ^t70q57 - A) Extend airbrakes, push the stick forward, and land straight ahead. - B) Push the stick forward, release the rope (twice), and land in the opposite direction. - C) Establish a glide, release the rope (twice), and land straight ahead if possible. - D) Immediately release the rope once, then establish a glide and land straight ahead. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** After a cable break below safety height, the priority sequence is: establish a safe glide attitude (to maintain flying speed), release the remaining rope by actuating the release twice (to ensure disconnection), and land straight ahead if terrain permits. Option A deploys airbrakes prematurely when every meter of altitude counts. Option B attempts a 180° turn which is extremely dangerous below safety height. Option D releases before establishing a glide — the glide attitude should be established first to ensure safe flying speed. ### Q58: You are ready to launch in a glider with a strong crosswind from the right. What do you do? ^t70q58 - A) Hold the wheel brake until the engine reaches full power. - B) During the ground roll, pull the stick fully back to lift off as quickly as possible. - C) Ask the ground helper to hold the right wing slightly lower during the take-off run. - D) Ask the ground helper to run alongside the glider until you have enough speed to control bank. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** With a strong crosswind from the right, the wind will tend to lift the right (windward) wing. By holding the right wing slightly lower at the start of the ground roll, the helper compensates for this lifting tendency, keeping the wings level until the aileron becomes effective. Option A refers to engine procedures irrelevant for gliders. Option B (pulling back to lift off quickly) risks a premature liftoff with insufficient airspeed. Option D is impractical and dangerous — the helper cannot keep pace with an accelerating glider. ### Q59: During an aerotow departure, acceleration is clearly insufficient. What should you do when the take-off abort point is reached? ^t70q59 - A) Push the stick slightly forward to reduce drag. - B) Release the towrope. - C) Pull the elevator quickly to get the glider airborne. - D) Extend the flaps. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** If acceleration is insufficient by the abort point, the takeoff must be abandoned by releasing the towrope immediately. Continuing the takeoff with insufficient speed risks failing to clear obstacles or running off the end of the runway. Option A might marginally reduce drag but cannot solve a fundamental performance problem. Option C (forcing the aircraft airborne) at inadequate speed leads to an immediate stall or settling back onto the ground. Option D (flaps) cannot compensate for insufficient tow power. ### Q60: What lateral clearance from a slope must be maintained when flying a glider? ^t70q60 - A) A sufficient lateral safety distance. - B) At least 60 m horizontally. - C) At least 150 m horizontally. - D) It depends on the thermal conditions. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When flying along a slope, a minimum lateral distance of 60 meters must be maintained horizontally from the terrain. This provides a safety buffer against unexpected turbulence, downdrafts, or control difficulty near the slope face. Option A is vague and non-specific. Option C (150 m) is more conservative than the standard requirement. Option D (depends on thermals) introduces a variable condition that does not define a clear minimum standard. ### Q61: What requires special attention when flying in high mountains? ^t70q61 - A) FLARM may produce false warnings due to reflections off rock faces. - B) GPS signal reception may be lost. - C) Radio contact may be interrupted. - D) Weather conditions can change far more rapidly than expected (e.g. sudden thunderstorm development). **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In high mountain environments, weather can deteriorate with extreme speed — thunderstorms can develop in minutes due to orographic lifting and localized heating effects. This is the most significant hazard requiring special attention. Options A, B, and C describe technical inconveniences that may occasionally occur in mountains, but they are not the primary hazard. Rapid weather changes can trap a pilot in valleys with deteriorating visibility and violent turbulence, making option D the critical safety concern. ### Q62: When installing the oxygen system in a glider for an Alpine flight, what is absolutely essential? ^t70q62 - A) That the rubber seal is undamaged. - B) That all components in contact with oxygen are completely free of grease. - C) That the coupling nut is tightened to the correct torque. - D) That the cylinder connector is well greased. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Oxygen under pressure can react violently with hydrocarbon-based greases and oils, potentially causing a flash fire or explosion. All components in contact with oxygen must be completely grease-free. Option D is directly dangerous — greasing the connector introduces a combustion risk. Options A and C describe good practices but are not the absolute safety-critical requirement. The oxygen-grease incompatibility is a fundamental rule in aviation oxygen system handling. ### Q63: After a collision, you must bail out at approximately 400 m. When should the parachute be opened? ^t70q63 - A) After 2 to 3 seconds of freefall. - B) When you have stabilised in freefall. - C) Just before leaving the glider. - D) Immediately after leaving the glider. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** At only 400 m above ground, there is no time for any delay — the parachute must be deployed immediately after clearing the aircraft. Freefall at terminal velocity covers roughly 50 m per second, so even 2-3 seconds of delay (option A) would consume 100-150 m of precious altitude. Option B (stabilizing in freefall) wastes critical seconds. Option C (before leaving) would entangle the parachute with the aircraft structure. At 400 m, every second counts for a successful deployment and deceleration. ### Q64: On short final for an out-landing, you realise the field is too short. What do you do? ^t70q64 - A) Reduce speed to the minimum to shorten the landing distance. - B) Continue straight ahead, deploy full airbrakes, and prepare for an emergency stop using all available means. - C) Maintain heading and land using full airbrakes to stop as early as possible. - D) Attempt to turn and find a longer alternative field. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** On short final, the commitment to land has been made — the safest action is to continue straight ahead with full airbrakes and use every available means (wheel brake, ground friction) to stop in the shortest distance possible. Option A (reducing to minimum speed) risks stalling close to the ground. Option C is similar to B but less specific about using all stopping means. Option D (turning to find another field) at this low altitude and close range is extremely dangerous and likely to result in a stall-spin accident. ### Q65: What does FLARM do? ^t70q65 - A) It shows the precise position of other gliders. - B) It warns of other FLARM-equipped aircraft that may pose a collision risk. - C) It recommends avoidance manoeuvres when a collision risk exists. - D) It shows the exact positions of all aircraft equipped with FLARM or a transponder. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** FLARM is a traffic awareness system that calculates collision risk based on the predicted flight paths of nearby FLARM-equipped aircraft and issues warnings when a potential conflict is detected. Option A overstates its precision — it provides approximate positions, not precise ones. Option C is incorrect because FLARM warns but does not recommend specific avoidance maneuvers. Option D is wrong because FLARM only detects other FLARM devices, not transponder-equipped aircraft (that would require a separate ADS-B receiver). ### Q66: During a cross-country flight, you must land at a high-altitude aerodrome with no wind. At what indicated airspeed do you fly the approach? ^t70q66 - A) About 5 km/h less than at sea level. - B) Increase the sea-level speed by 1% for every 100 m of altitude. - C) About 5 km/h more than at sea level. - D) The same as at sea level. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The indicated airspeed (IAS) for the approach should be the same as at sea level because the ASI already accounts for air density — it measures dynamic pressure, which determines aerodynamic forces regardless of altitude. The stall IAS does not change with altitude. However, the true airspeed and groundspeed will be higher at altitude due to lower air density. Options A and C incorrectly adjust IAS, and option B applies a TAS correction to IAS, which is unnecessary. ### Q67: What do you notice when entering the centre of a downdraft? ^t70q67 - A) One wing rises and the aircraft begins to turn. - B) The nose pitches up and you feel a brief increase in g-load. - C) The glider accelerates and you feel increased g-load. - D) The glider slows and you feel a brief decrease in g-load. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When entering a downdraft, the descending air mass reduces the effective angle of attack on the wings, temporarily decreasing lift. The pilot feels a brief reduction in g-load (a sensation of lightness or being pushed up from the seat) as the aircraft begins to sink with the descending air. The glider's airspeed initially decreases momentarily. Option B describes what happens entering an updraft (nose pitches up, increased g-load). Options A and C do not accurately describe the symmetrical effect of entering a downdraft center. ### Q68: During a cross-country flight over the Jura, you notice cirrus forming to the west. What should you expect? ^t70q68 - A) Weaker thermals due to reduced solar radiation. - B) Increased upper-level instability from moisture, producing stronger thermals. - C) A transition from cumulus thermals to blue (dry) thermals. - D) Cirrus have no effect on conditions in the thermal layer. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Cirrus clouds at high altitude filter incoming solar radiation, reducing the surface heating that drives thermal convection. Less heating means weaker thermals and potentially an earlier end to the soaring day. This is an important warning sign during cross-country flights. Option B is wrong — cirrus does not increase instability at thermal altitudes. Option C describes a shift that may occur but is not the primary effect. Option D underestimates the impact cirrus has on thermal generation through solar radiation reduction. ### Q69: What speed maximises distance covered against a headwind? ^t70q69 - A) Minimum sink speed. - B) Best glide ratio speed. - C) A speed higher than best glide ratio speed. - D) The speed corresponding to McCready zero. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** To maximize distance in a headwind, the pilot must fly faster than best-glide speed. The headwind reduces groundspeed, so the glider spends more time in the air and descends more before covering the desired ground distance. By increasing speed above best-glide, the pilot accepts a steeper glide angle but gains enough extra groundspeed to more than compensate for the altitude loss. Option A (minimum sink) minimizes descent rate but covers minimal distance. Option B (best glide) is optimal only in still air. Option D (McCready zero) equals best-glide speed. ### Q70: Which of these fields is best for an out-landing? ^t70q70 - A) A 400 m freshly ploughed field. - B) A 300 m maize field with a steady headwind. - C) A 250 m country lane with a strong headwind. - D) A 200 m meadow that has just been mown. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A freshly mown meadow of 200 m provides a smooth, firm surface free of tall vegetation and hidden obstacles — ideal for a short ground roll in a glider, which can typically stop within 100-200 m. Option A (ploughed field) has soft soil and deep furrows that can nose the glider over. Option B (maize field) has tall crops that obscure hazards and create drag inconsistencies. Option C (country lane) is narrow, potentially lined with trees and power lines, and poses collision risks with vehicles. ### Q71: May you use the on-board radio to communicate with your retrieve crew on the dedicated frequency without holding a radiotelephony extension? ^t70q71 - A) Only exceptionally - B) Yes - C) As a general rule, once per flight, shortly before landing - D) No **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Pilots may use the on-board radio on dedicated glider frequencies to communicate with their retrieve crew without needing a separate radiotelephony extension or rating. These frequencies are designated for glider operations and permit such operational communications. Option A unnecessarily restricts this established practice. Option C invents a frequency limitation that does not exist. Option D incorrectly prohibits a communication that is routinely permitted. ### Q72: At an aerodrome at 1800 m AMSL, how does the ground speed compare to the indicated airspeed on approach? ^t70q72 - A) It depends on the temperature. - B) Ground speed is lower. - C) They are the same. - D) Ground speed is higher. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** At 1800 m AMSL, air density is lower than at sea level, so the true airspeed (TAS) is higher than indicated airspeed (IAS) for the same dynamic pressure reading. In nil-wind conditions, groundspeed equals TAS, which exceeds IAS. This means the aircraft approaches the runway at a higher groundspeed than the ASI shows, requiring awareness of a longer ground roll and higher touchdown energy. Options B and C underestimate the density altitude effect. Option A is partially true but the dominant factor is altitude, not temperature. ### Q73: Is wearing a parachute compulsory during glider flights? ^t70q73 - A) Yes, for all flights above 300 m AGL - B) No - C) Only when performing aerobatics - D) Yes, always **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Wearing a parachute is not compulsory for glider flights under current regulations, although it is strongly recommended and standard practice in the gliding community. The decision is left to the pilot. Option A invents an altitude-based requirement. Option C creates a restriction limited to aerobatics that does not exist in the regulations. Option D overstates the requirement. While practically all glider pilots wear parachutes, it remains a personal safety choice, not a legal obligation. ### Q74: During a winch launch, just after reaching the climbing angle, the cable breaks near the winch. How should you react? ^t70q74 - A) Extend the airbrakes immediately - B) First establish normal flight attitude, then release the cable - C) Report the incident by radio - D) Release the cable immediately, then establish a normal flight attitude **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** After a cable break during the climb phase, the immediate priority is to release the remaining cable (which may still be attached and could snag) and then lower the nose to establish a safe glide. The cable release comes first because a dangling cable is an immediate hazard. Option A (airbrakes first) wastes altitude when every meter counts. Option B reverses the priority — establishing the glide before releasing could allow the cable to become entangled. Option C (radio call) wastes precious seconds during a time-critical emergency. ### Q75: What must be considered during an aerotow departure in strong crosswind? ^t70q75 - A) The tow plane must lift off before the glider - B) After take-off, correct into the wind until the tow plane lifts off - C) The take-off distance will be shorter - D) Before departure, offset the glider to the upwind side **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In a strong crosswind aerotow departure, the glider should be positioned upwind of the tow aircraft's centerline to prevent being blown across the tug's path during the ground roll. This offset compensates for the crosswind drift during the critical acceleration phase. Option A states a normal sequence that does not address crosswind specifically. Option B provides a partial technique but does not address the pre-departure setup. Option C is incorrect because crosswinds typically increase takeoff distance slightly.