### Q26: During the initial ground roll of a winch launch, one wing touches the ground. What must the glider pilot do? ^t70q26 - A) Deflect ailerons in the opposite direction - B) Apply opposite rudder - C) Release the cable immediately - D) Pull back on the elevator **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If a wing touches the ground during the winch launch ground roll, the situation is uncontrollable and the launch must be immediately aborted by releasing the cable. Continuing the launch with a wing on the ground risks a violent ground loop or cartwheel. Option A (opposite aileron) may be insufficient at low speed and could worsen the situation under cable tension. Option B (opposite rudder) cannot correct a wing-down condition. Option D (pulling back) would try to lift off prematurely in an uncontrolled state. ### Q27: During aerotow, the glider exceeds its maximum permissible speed. What should the glider pilot do? ^t70q27 - A) Pull back on the elevator to reduce speed - B) Notify the airfield controller by radio - C) Release the towrope immediately - D) Deploy the spoilers **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the glider exceeds VNE (never-exceed speed) during aerotow, the pilot must immediately release the towrope to remove the pulling force causing the excessive speed and avoid structural failure. Option A (pulling back) increases the load factor on an already over-stressed airframe. Option B (radio call) wastes critical time during a structural emergency. Option D (deploying spoilers) while still attached to the tow aircraft could cause dangerous pitch and speed oscillations. ### Q28: After a cable break during aerotow, a long section of cable remains attached to the glider. What should the pilot do? ^t70q28 - A) Fly a low approach and ask the airfield controller to assess the cable length, then release if needed - B) Once at a safe height, drop the cable over empty terrain or over the airfield - C) Fly a normal approach and release the cable immediately after touchdown - D) Release immediately and continue the flight with the coupling unlatched **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A trailing cable is a serious hazard — it can snag on obstacles, trees, or power lines during approach and landing. The safest action is to climb to a safe height and release the cable over empty terrain or the airfield where it can be recovered safely. Option A (low approach for assessment) risks snagging the trailing cable on obstacles. Option C (releasing after touchdown) means flying the entire approach with a dangerous trailing cable. Option D (releasing immediately regardless) may drop the cable in an unsafe location. ### Q29: During aerotow, the tug aircraft disappears from the glider pilot's view. What should the pilot do? ^t70q29 - A) Deploy the spoilers and return to a normal attitude - B) Alternate between pushing and pulling on the elevator - C) Release the cable immediately - D) Alternate turns left and right to search for the tug **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the glider pilot loses sight of the tug during aerotow, the cable must be released immediately. Continued towing without visual contact with the tug is extremely dangerous because the glider pilot cannot anticipate the tug's movements, risking a mid-air collision or being pulled into an unexpected attitude. Option A (spoilers) does not address the fundamental problem. Option B (alternating elevator) creates dangerous oscillations. Option D (searching turns) could tangle the cable or fly into the tug's path. ### Q30: During aerotow in a turn, the glider drifts to an outward offset position. How should the glider pilot correct this? ^t70q30 - A) Use a sideslip so that increased drag pushes the glider back behind the tug - B) Steer back using coordinated rudder and aileron inputs, then deploy spoilers to reduce speed - C) Return behind the tug by using a tighter radius with strong rudder pedal inputs - D) Match the tug's bank angle and use rudder to gently reduce the radius back to the correct position **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The correct technique is to match the tug's bank angle to maintain the same turn radius, then use gentle rudder input to slightly tighten the radius and drift back behind the tug. This is a smooth, controlled correction. Option A (sideslip) creates lateral instability and unpredictable cable tensions. Option B (deploying spoilers) would cause the glider to drop below the tug's level. Option C (strong rudder) risks over-correction and could cause the glider to swing to the opposite side or create dangerous cable loads. ### Q31: During a winch launch, cable tension suddenly disappears just after reaching the full climb attitude. What should the pilot do? ^t70q31 - A) Inform the winch driver by alternating aileron inputs - B) Pull on the elevator to restore cable tension - C) Push firmly forward and release the cable immediately - D) Push slightly and wait for the cable tension to return **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Loss of cable tension during the steep climbing phase means a cable break or winch failure has occurred. The pilot must immediately push forward to lower the nose and prevent a stall (since the glider is at a high pitch angle with rapidly decaying speed), then release the cable. Option A wastes critical time on communication. Option B (pulling) would increase the pitch angle further, guaranteeing a stall. Option D (waiting) is dangerous because speed is decaying rapidly in the climb attitude. ### Q32: Before launching with a parallel-cable winch, the pilot notices the second cable lying close to the glider. What should be done? ^t70q32 - A) Keep watching the second cable and release after take-off if needed - B) Release the cable immediately and inform the airfield controller by radio - C) Continue with the normal take-off and inform the controller after landing - D) Proceed with the launch using opposite rudder to steer away from the second cable **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A second cable lying close to the glider poses a serious entanglement hazard during the ground roll and climb-out. The launch must be aborted immediately by releasing the cable, and the airfield controller must be notified to correct the situation before any further launches. Option A risks snagging the loose cable during takeoff. Option C ignores a clear safety hazard. Option D cannot prevent entanglement with a cable on the ground during the critical ground roll phase. ### Q33: What is the function of the weak link (breaking point) on a winch cable? ^t70q33 - A) It limits the rate of climb during the winch launch - B) It prevents the glider airframe from being overstressed - C) It provides automatic cable release after the winch launch - D) It protects the winch from being overrun by the glider **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The weak link is calibrated to break before the cable tension exceeds the glider's structural limits, protecting the airframe from being overstressed by excessive winch pull. Its breaking strength is matched to the maximum permitted towing load for the specific glider type. Option A is incorrect — the rate of climb depends on winch power and speed, not the weak link. Option C is wrong because the weak link is a safety device, not a release mechanism. Option D describes a concern unrelated to the weak link's purpose. ### Q34: During the final phase of a winch launch, the pilot keeps pulling back on the elevator. The automatic release trips under high wing loading. What are the consequences? ^t70q34 - A) Only this sudden jerk ensures the cable releases properly - B) This technique compensates for insufficient wind correction - C) Extreme structural stress is placed on the glider airframe - D) A higher launch altitude can be achieved using this technique **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Continuing to pull back during the final phase of a winch launch places extreme structural stress on the airframe because the combination of cable tension, aerodynamic loads, and the centripetal force from the curved flight path can exceed design limits. The automatic release tripping is a safety mechanism activating because the load factor is dangerously high. Option A mischaracterizes a dangerous overload as normal procedure. Option B has nothing to do with wind correction. Option D prioritizes altitude gain over structural safety. ### Q35: An off-field landing in mountainous terrain is necessary and the only available site is steeply inclined. How should the approach be flown? ^t70q35 - A) Fly the approach at minimum speed with a careful flare upon reaching the landing site - B) Approach with extra speed, then make a quick flare to match the slope gradient - C) Approach parallel to the ridge with headwind, according to the prevailing wind - D) Approach down the ridge at increased speed, adjusting pitch to follow the ground **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Landing uphill on a steep slope requires extra approach speed to account for the rapid deceleration that occurs when the aircraft's momentum encounters the rising terrain. A quick, decisive flare matches the aircraft's flight path to the slope angle, minimizing impact forces. Option A (minimum speed) leaves no energy reserve for the flare on a steep slope. Option C (parallel to ridge) does not utilize the slope for deceleration. Option D (downhill) dramatically increases groundspeed and stopping distance, making it extremely dangerous. ### Q36: At 6000 m MSL, the pilot realises that the oxygen supply will run out within minutes. What should be done? ^t70q36 - A) After oxygen runs out, remain at this altitude for no more than 30 minutes - B) Reduce oxygen consumption by breathing slowly - C) Deploy spoilers and descend at the maximum permissible speed - D) At the first sign of hypoxia, begin descending at the maximum allowed speed **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** At 6000 m without supplemental oxygen, the time of useful consciousness is very short — hypoxia can impair judgment within minutes. The pilot must descend immediately at maximum permissible speed using spoilers, before oxygen runs out, rather than waiting for symptoms to appear. Option A is extremely dangerous — remaining at 6000 m without oxygen for 30 minutes would cause incapacitation. Option B cannot meaningfully extend oxygen supply. Option D waits for hypoxia symptoms, by which point cognitive function may already be too impaired for safe decision-making. ### Q37: What colour is the emergency canopy release handle? ^t70q37 - A) Blue - B) Yellow - C) Red - D) Green **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Emergency canopy release handles are standardized as red to ensure immediate recognition in a crisis. Red is the universal color for emergency controls in aviation, including canopy jettison handles, fire extinguisher handles, and fuel shutoff valves. Options A (blue), B (yellow), and D (green) are incorrect — these colors are reserved for other functions such as trim (green), normal canopy latch, or non-emergency systems. ### Q38: Why must trim masses or lead ballast be firmly secured in a glider? ^t70q38 - A) To ensure the maximum allowed mass is not exceeded - B) To prevent them from jamming controls or causing a centre-of-gravity shift - C) To guarantee a comfortable seating position for the pilot - D) To protect the pilot from injury during turbulent thermal flight **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Unsecured trim masses or ballast can shift during flight, particularly in turbulence or during maneuvers, potentially jamming control linkages (elevator, rudder, or aileron cables) or causing an unplanned shift in the center of gravity that could make the aircraft uncontrollable. Option A addresses weight limits, which is a separate concern from securing ballast. Option C and D are secondary considerations — the primary danger is control jamming and CG displacement. ### Q39: During a winch launch, the airspeed indicator fails after reaching the full climb attitude. What should the pilot do? ^t70q39 - A) Push the stick forward, release the cable, and fly a short circuit at minimum speed - B) Continue the launch to normal altitude, then use the horizon and airstream noise for an immediate circuit and landing - C) Continue to normal altitude, then use visual and audio cues to proceed with the planned flight - D) Try to restore the ASI by making abrupt speed changes during the launch **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** With a failed ASI, the pilot should continue the launch to normal release altitude (since the launch is already established and stable), then release and fly an immediate circuit using the horizon for pitch reference and wind noise for approximate speed estimation. An immediate landing minimizes exposure to the instrument failure. Option A (aborting the launch) is unnecessarily risky at climb attitude. Option C (continuing the planned flight) is unsafe without airspeed indication. Option D (abrupt speed changes) could overstress the airframe during the launch. ### Q40: Why is launching with the centre of gravity beyond the aft limit prohibited? ^t70q40 - A) Because the maximum permissible speed would be significantly reduced - B) Because the increased nose-down moment could not be compensated - C) Because structural limits might be exceeded - D) Because elevator authority may be insufficient to control the flight attitude **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When the CG is too far aft, the moment arm between the CG and the tail becomes too short, reducing the elevator's ability to generate sufficient nose-down pitching moment. This can make the aircraft uncontrollable, particularly during the launch phase when pitch control is critical. Option A is incorrect — aft CG does not directly reduce VNE. Option B is backward — an aft CG reduces the nose-down moment, but the problem is insufficient elevator authority to correct nose-up tendencies. Option C addresses structural limits, which is a separate concern. ### Q41: What effect does ice accumulation on the wings have? ^t70q41 - A) It reduces friction drag - B) It improves slow-flight performance - C) It lowers the stall speed - D) It raises the stall speed **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Ice accumulation on the wing disrupts the smooth airflow over the aerofoil surface, reducing the maximum lift coefficient (CL_max) and increasing drag. Since stall speed is inversely proportional to the square root of CL_max, a lower CL_max means a higher stall speed. The aircraft must fly faster to maintain safe flight. Option A is wrong because ice roughness increases friction drag. Options B and C are incorrect because ice degrades aerodynamic performance in every respect. ### Q42: The landing gear extends but will not lock despite several attempts. How should the landing be performed? ^t70q42 - A) Retract the gear and perform a belly landing at increased speed - B) Keep the gear extended but unlocked and land normally - C) Retract the gear and perform a belly landing at minimum speed - D) Hold the gear handle firmly during a normal landing **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the gear will not lock, it must be retracted and a belly (gear-up) landing performed at minimum speed to minimize impact forces and structural damage. An unlocked gear (option B) could collapse asymmetrically on touchdown, causing a violent ground loop or cartwheel. Option A (belly landing at increased speed) unnecessarily increases impact energy. Option D (holding the handle) provides no mechanical lock and the gear could still collapse under landing loads. ### Q43: When flying into heavy snowfall, what is the greatest immediate danger? ^t70q43 - A) Rapid increase in airframe icing - B) Sudden blockage of the pitot-static system - C) Sudden loss of visibility - D) Sudden increase in aircraft mass **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The greatest immediate danger when encountering heavy snowfall is the sudden and complete loss of forward visibility, which can disorient the pilot and make terrain avoidance impossible within seconds. While icing (option A) and pitot blockage (option B) are real concerns, they develop more gradually. Option D (mass increase) is negligible in the short term. Loss of visibility is immediate, disorienting, and can lead to controlled flight into terrain. ### Q44: A tailwind off-field landing is unavoidable. How should it be executed? ^t70q44 - A) Approach at increased speed without using spoilers - B) Normal approach, then extend spoilers and push the nose down upon reaching the landing site - C) Approach at reduced speed, expecting shorter flare and ground roll - D) Approach at normal speed, expecting a longer flare and ground roll **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** With a tailwind, the groundspeed is higher than normal for the same indicated airspeed, resulting in a longer flare and longer ground roll. The pilot should maintain normal approach speed (not reduced, which would risk stalling) and prepare for the extended landing distance. Option A (increased speed without spoilers) would make the landing even longer. Option B (pushing the nose down at the field) would cause a hard landing. Option C (reduced speed) risks stalling at the higher groundspeed, and the ground roll will be longer, not shorter. ### Q45: When landing with a tailwind, what must the pilot do? ^t70q45 - A) Retract the landing gear to shorten the ground roll - B) Increase the approach speed - C) Approach at normal speed with a shallow angle - D) Compensate for the tailwind by sideslipping **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** With a tailwind, the pilot should maintain normal indicated approach speed (since the wing sees the same airflow regardless of wind) and fly a shallower approach angle to account for the increased groundspeed and reduced obstacle clearance gradient. Option A (retracting gear) would cause a belly landing, not shorten the roll. Option B (increasing speed) would extend the ground roll further. Option D (sideslipping) addresses crosswind, not tailwind, and would not be effective compensation. ### Q46: Tower reports: "Wind 15 knots, gusts 25 knots." How should the approach and landing be conducted? ^t70q46 - A) Approach at increased speed, but avoid using spoilers - B) Approach at normal speed, controlling speed with spoilers - C) Approach at minimum speed, making gentle control corrections - D) Approach at increased speed with firm control inputs to correct attitude changes **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In gusty conditions (10 kt gust factor), the pilot must add speed margin to the approach speed (typically half the gust factor, so about 5 kt extra) and make firm, positive control inputs to maintain attitude through the turbulent air. Option A avoids spoilers, which may be needed for path control. Option B uses normal speed with no gust margin, leaving the aircraft vulnerable to speed drops in gusts. Option C (minimum speed) is extremely dangerous in gusts — a momentary speed loss could cause a stall. ### Q47: A glider pilot encounters strong sink while ridge soaring. What is the recommended action? ^t70q47 - A) Increase speed and head away from the ridge - B) Continue flying, as mountain downdrafts are typically brief - C) Increase speed and move closer to the ridge - D) Increase speed and land parallel to the ridge **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** In strong sink near a ridge, the pilot must increase speed (to improve penetration through the sink) and fly away from the ridge into the valley where conditions may be more benign and landing options exist. Option B is dangerously complacent — mountain downdrafts can be sustained and severe. Option C (moving closer to the ridge) could trap the pilot against the terrain in strong sink. Option D (landing parallel to the ridge) may not be feasible on mountainous terrain and reduces options. ### Q48: A glider flying beneath an expanding cumulus that is developing into a thunderstorm rapidly approaches cloud base. What should the pilot do? ^t70q48 - A) Slow to minimum speed and exit the thermal area in a gentle turn - B) Tighten harness and be prepared for severe gusts while continuing to thermal - C) Enter the thunderstorm cloud and continue using instruments - D) Deploy spoilers within speed limits and leave the thermal area at maximum permissible speed **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When a cumulus develops into a cumulonimbus, the updrafts intensify dramatically and can suck the glider into the cloud against the pilot's wishes. The pilot must deploy full spoilers and fly at maximum permissible speed (VNE or the spoiler-extended limit) to escape the rapidly increasing updraft. Option A (minimum speed) would maximize the time in the updraft and the risk of being drawn in. Option B (continuing to thermal) is extremely dangerous near a thunderstorm. Option C (entering the cloud) violates VFR rules and exposes the aircraft to severe turbulence, hail, and lightning. ### Q49: After landing, you discover that a pen may have fallen into the cockpit. What must be considered? ^t70q49 - A) Other pilots due to fly the glider should be informed about the missing pen - B) A flight without a writing instrument on board is not permitted - C) Small, light loose items in the fuselage can be regarded as uncritical - D) The cockpit must be thoroughly checked for loose objects before the next flight **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Any loose object in a cockpit — even something as small as a pen — can jam flight controls by lodging in the control linkages, pushrods, or cable runs. The cockpit must be thoroughly inspected before the next flight to locate and remove the object. Option A merely passes the problem along without solving it. Option B is irrelevant — the concern is not having a pen but having a loose object. Option C is dangerously wrong — even small objects can jam critical controls and have caused fatal accidents. ### Q50: Flying near the aerodrome at about 250 m AGL, you encounter strong sink and decide on a safety landing. At what speed should you fly toward the airfield? ^t70q50 - A) Maximum manoeuvring speed VA - B) Best glide speed - C) Minimum sink rate speed - D) Best glide speed plus allowances for downdrafts and wind **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When encountering strong sink near the aerodrome, the pilot needs maximum range to reach the field. Best glide speed gives maximum range in still air, but additional speed is needed to compensate for the downdraft (which steepens the glide path) and any headwind component. Option A (VA) may be too fast and waste altitude. Option B (best glide speed alone) does not account for the sink and wind. Option C (minimum sink speed) maximizes time aloft but minimizes distance covered, which is counterproductive when trying to reach the field.