### Q1: While flying slowly near stall with the left wing dropping, how can a full stall be avoided? ^t70q1 - A) Use rudder to the left, push the stick forward slightly, accelerate, then neutralise all controls - B) Lower the nose with elevator, maintain wings level using coordinated rudder and aileron - C) Deflect aileron to the right, push slightly forward on the stick, build speed, then neutralise controls - D) Apply aileron and rudder to the right, gain speed, push the stick forward slightly, then neutralise **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The correct stall recovery technique is to immediately reduce the angle of attack by lowering the nose with the elevator, while using coordinated rudder and aileron to keep the wings level. Option A applies rudder in the wrong direction (toward the dropping wing). Option C uses aileron alone without coordinated rudder, which near the stall can increase adverse yaw and potentially trigger a spin entry. Option D also prioritizes aileron over elevator, missing the critical first step of reducing the angle of attack. ### Q2: How is "flight time" defined? ^t70q2 - A) The total time from the first take-off until the last landing across one or more consecutive flights. - B) The time from engine start for take-off purposes until the pilot leaves the aircraft after engine shutdown. - C) The total time from the aircraft's first movement until it finally comes to rest after the flight. - D) The interval from the beginning of the take-off run to the final touchdown on landing. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Under EASA regulations for gliders, flight time is defined as the total time from the aircraft's first movement for the purpose of flight until it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. This includes ground handling and taxiing, not just airborne time. Option A only counts from takeoff to landing, excluding ground movement. Option B applies to powered aircraft with engines, not gliders. Option D is too narrow, covering only the takeoff run to touchdown and missing ground handling phases. ### Q3: What is a wind shear? ^t70q3 - A) A meteorological downslope wind event typical in alpine regions. - B) A gradual increase of wind speed at altitudes above 13000 ft. - C) A change in wind speed exceeding 15 kt. - D) A vertical or horizontal variation in wind speed and/or direction. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Wind shear is defined as any change in wind speed and/or direction over a relatively short distance, which can occur in both the vertical and horizontal planes. It is not limited to any particular speed threshold (option C), altitude range (option B), or geographic setting (option A). Wind shear is particularly dangerous during takeoff and landing when the aircraft is close to the ground with limited recovery margins. ### Q4: Which weather phenomenon is most commonly linked to wind shear? ^t70q4 - A) Stable high-pressure systems. - B) Thunderstorms. - C) Fog. - D) Invernal warm fronts. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Thunderstorms generate the most severe wind shear through their powerful updrafts, downdrafts, and microburst outflows, which can cause sudden wind reversals exceeding 50 knots within seconds. Stable high-pressure systems (option A) typically produce calm, uniform conditions. Fog (option C) is associated with light winds, not shear. Warm fronts (option D) can produce mild shear, but thunderstorms are by far the most common and dangerous source. ### Q5: Under what conditions should wind shear be expected? ^t70q5 - A) On a calm summer day with light winds - B) In cold weather with calm winds - C) During an inversion - D) When crossing a warm front **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A temperature inversion creates a stable boundary layer between two air masses that can move at different speeds and directions, producing wind shear at the inversion level. Inversions are common in the early morning and can significantly affect glider operations near the ground, particularly during approach and landing. Option A describes conditions with minimal shear risk. Option B and D can occasionally produce shear but are not the primary conditions associated with it. ### Q6: During approach, an aircraft encounters wind shear with decreasing headwind. Without pilot corrections, what happens to the flight path and indicated airspeed (IAS)? ^t70q6 - A) Flight path goes higher, IAS rises - B) Flight path goes lower, IAS rises - C) Flight path goes higher, IAS drops - D) Flight path goes lower, IAS drops **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When headwind suddenly decreases, the airflow over the wings drops, causing IAS to decrease and lift to reduce. With less lift, the aircraft sinks below the intended glide path. The aircraft's inertia maintains its groundspeed briefly, but the reduced relative airflow means less aerodynamic force. This is the most dangerous wind shear scenario on approach because both effects — lower path and lower airspeed — combine to reduce safety margins simultaneously. ### Q7: During approach, an aircraft encounters wind shear with increasing headwind. Without corrections, how are the flight path and IAS affected? ^t70q7 - A) Flight path drops, IAS drops - B) Flight path rises, IAS drops - C) Flight path drops, IAS rises - D) Flight path rises, IAS rises **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** An increasing headwind temporarily increases the relative airflow over the wings, raising both IAS and lift. The additional lift pushes the aircraft above the intended glide path. Although initially this appears favorable, the pilot must be alert — if the headwind later decreases, the aircraft will experience the opposite effect and may sink rapidly below the desired path. Options involving decreased IAS or a lower flight path contradict the aerodynamic response to an increasing headwind. ### Q8: During approach, the aircraft experiences wind shear with a decreasing tailwind. Without corrections, what happens to the flight path and IAS? ^t70q8 - A) Flight path drops, IAS rises - B) Flight path rises, IAS rises - C) Flight path drops, IAS drops - D) Flight path rises, IAS drops **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When a tailwind decreases, the aircraft's forward momentum is maintained while the air mass effectively decelerates around it, increasing the relative airflow over the wings. This raises IAS and lift, pushing the aircraft above the glide path. A decreasing tailwind has the same aerodynamic effect as an increasing headwind. Options with decreased IAS or lower flight path misinterpret the relationship between tailwind changes and relative airflow. ### Q9: What is the best way to avoid encountering wind shear during flight? ^t70q9 - A) Avoid thermally active areas, especially in summer, or remain below them - B) Refrain from taking off and landing when heavy showers or thunderstorms are passing - C) Avoid precipitation areas, particularly in winter, and choose low flight altitudes - D) Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay over flat terrain **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The most severe wind shear is associated with thunderstorms and heavy showers, which produce microbursts and gust fronts. Avoiding takeoffs and landings when such weather is passing through eliminates the most dangerous wind shear exposure during the most vulnerable flight phases. Option A addresses thermals, which cause turbulence but not dangerous shear. Option C targets winter precipitation, which is a lesser shear risk. Option D is overly restrictive and does not address the primary cause. ### Q10: During a cross-country flight, visual conditions begin to fall below minima. To maintain minimum visual conditions, the pilot decides to... ^t70q10 - A) Press on using radio navigation aids along the route - B) Continue based on sufficiently favourable forecasts - C) Request navigational assistance from ATC to continue - D) Turn back, since adequate VMC was confirmed along the previous track **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When VFR conditions deteriorate below minima, the safest action is to turn back to the area where adequate visual meteorological conditions (VMC) were confirmed. Continuing into worsening visibility is the leading cause of VFR-into-IMC accidents. Option A is inappropriate because gliders typically lack radio navigation equipment and VFR pilots should not rely on instrument navigation. Option B relies on forecasts rather than actual conditions, which is unsafe. Option C is not appropriate for gliders operating under VFR rules. ### Q11: Two identical aircraft at the same gross weight and configuration fly at different airspeeds. Which one produces stronger wake turbulence? ^t70q11 - A) The one at higher altitude - B) The one flying faster - C) The one flying slower - D) The one at lower altitude **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Wake turbulence intensity is directly related to the strength of wingtip vortices, which are strongest when the wing operates at high lift coefficients — that is, at low speeds and high angles of attack. The slower aircraft generates more intense vortices because it must produce the same lift at a lower speed, requiring a higher angle of attack and greater circulation around the wing. Altitude (options A and D) is not the determining factor. The faster aircraft (option B) produces weaker vortices at its lower lift coefficient. ### Q12: With only a light crosswind, what hazard exists when departing after a heavy aeroplane? ^t70q12 - A) Wake vortices are amplified and become distorted. - B) Wake vortices spin faster and climb higher. - C) Wake vortices remain on or near the runway. - D) Wake vortices twist across the runway transversely. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In light crosswind conditions, wake vortices from a heavy aircraft tend to remain on or near the runway rather than being blown clear. With a strong crosswind, the vortices drift away from the runway centerline, but a light crosswind is insufficient to displace them, creating a lingering hazard for departing aircraft. Option A incorrectly states vortices are amplified. Option B is wrong because vortices sink, not climb. Option D is incorrect because light crosswinds do not cause significant lateral twisting of vortices across the runway. ### Q13: Which surface is most suitable for an emergency off-field landing? ^t70q13 - A) A ploughed field - B) A harvested cornfield - C) A glade with long dry grass - D) A village sports ground **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A harvested cornfield offers a firm, relatively flat surface with short stubble that provides good ground friction without excessive deceleration forces — ideal for an emergency landing. Option A (ploughed field) has soft, uneven furrows that can cause the glider to nose over or ground-loop. Option C (long dry grass) may conceal obstacles such as rocks, ditches, or fences. Option D (sports ground) is typically surrounded by buildings, fences, and spectators, creating collision hazards. ### Q14: What defines a precautionary landing? ^t70q14 - A) A landing performed without engine power. - B) A landing made to preserve flight safety before conditions deteriorate further. - C) A landing carried out with flaps retracted. - D) A landing forced by circumstances requiring the aircraft to land immediately. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A precautionary landing is a proactive decision to land while options remain available, made to preserve flight safety before the situation worsens. It differs from a forced landing (option D), which is an immediate necessity with no alternative. Option A describes a normal glider landing or engine-out scenario, not specifically a precautionary landing. Option C describes a configuration choice, not a type of landing. The key distinction is that a precautionary landing involves foresight and planning. ### Q15: Which of these landing areas is best suited for an off-field landing? ^t70q15 - A) A lake with a smooth, undisturbed surface - B) A meadow free of livestock - C) A light brown field with short crops - D) A field with ripe, waving crops **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A light brown field with short crops indicates a harvested or nearly harvested surface that is firm and free of tall obstructions, making it suitable for a safe off-field landing. Option A (a lake) should only be considered as a last resort since water landings carry drowning risk. Option B (meadow without livestock) sounds safe but may have hidden obstacles; and option D (ripe, waving crops) indicates tall vegetation that could obscure hazards and cause the glider to nose over on landing. ### Q16: How does wet grass affect take-off and landing distances? ^t70q16 - A) Both take-off and landing distances decrease - B) Take-off distance increases while landing distance decreases - C) Take-off distance decreases while landing distance increases - D) Both take-off and landing distances increase **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Wet grass increases rolling resistance during the takeoff ground roll, requiring a longer distance to reach flying speed. On landing, wet grass reduces wheel braking friction (similar to aquaplaning), resulting in a longer stopping distance. Both phases are adversely affected. Option A reverses both effects. Option B correctly identifies the takeoff increase but incorrectly predicts a shorter landing roll. Option C reverses both effects entirely. ### Q17: What adverse effects can be expected when thermalling above industrial facilities? ^t70q17 - A) Extensive, strong downwind areas on the lee side of the plant - B) Very poor visibility of only a few hundred metres with heavy precipitation - C) Health hazards from pollutants, reduced visibility, and turbulence - D) Strong electrostatic charging and degraded radio communication **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Thermalling above industrial facilities exposes the pilot to harmful pollutants (smoke, chemical emissions), significantly reduced visibility from haze and particulates, and turbulence from the uneven heating of industrial structures. Option A describes a lee-side downdraft but not the full hazard picture. Option B exaggerates with "heavy precipitation," which is not caused by industrial plants. Option D describes electrostatic effects that are not typically associated with industrial thermal flying. ### Q18: When is an off-field landing most likely to result in an accident? ^t70q18 - A) When the approach uses distinct approach segments - B) When the decision to land off-field is taken too late - C) When the approach is made onto a harvested corn field - D) When the decision is made above the minimum safe altitude **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The most common cause of off-field landing accidents is delaying the decision too long, leaving insufficient altitude for proper field selection, a stabilized approach, and obstacle avoidance. Late decisions force rushed approaches, poor field choices, and inadequate speed management. Option A (distinct segments) is standard good practice. Option C (harvested cornfield) is actually a good surface choice. Option D (deciding above minimum safe altitude) is the correct time to decide, not a risk factor. ### Q19: How can mid-air collisions be avoided when circling in thermals? ^t70q19 - A) Enter the updraft quickly and pull back sharply to slow down - B) Circle in alternating directions at different altitudes - C) Mimic the movements of the glider ahead - D) Coordinate turns with other aircraft sharing the same thermal **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When sharing a thermal, all gliders should circle in the same direction and coordinate their turns to maintain consistent spacing and predictable flight paths. This minimizes the risk of convergence. Option A (entering quickly and pulling back sharply) can surprise other pilots and create a collision hazard. Option B (alternating directions) creates head-on crossing situations within the thermal. Option C (mimicking the glider ahead) could lead to following too closely without maintaining safe separation. ### Q20: How can danger be avoided when a glider's altitude nears circuit height during a cross-country flight? ^t70q20 - A) Seek thermals on the lee side of a chosen landing field - B) Regardless of the planned route, commit to an off-field landing - C) Maintain radio contact until fully stopped after an off-field landing - D) Aim for cumulus clouds visible on the distant horizon and use their thermals **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When altitude drops to circuit height, the pilot must commit to landing — continuing to search for lift at this altitude is dangerous and leaves no margin for error. Option A is hazardous because lee-side air typically contains sink, not thermals. Option C describes a good post-landing practice but does not address the immediate danger of low altitude. Option D risks flying into sink between thermals with no altitude reserve, potentially resulting in a crash rather than a controlled off-field landing. ### Q21: What must a pilot consider before entering a steep turn? ^t70q21 - A) Reduce speed in accordance with the target bank angle before starting the turn - B) Once the bank angle is achieved, push forward to increase speed - C) After reaching the bank angle, apply opposite rudder to reduce yaw - D) Build up sufficient speed for the intended bank angle before initiating the turn **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In a steep turn, the load factor increases (n = 1/cos(bank angle)), which raises the stall speed. The pilot must have adequate speed before entering the turn to maintain a safe margin above the increased stall speed. Option A (reducing speed before a steep turn) would dangerously bring the aircraft closer to stall. Option B (pushing forward during the turn) would cause altitude loss and nose-down pitch. Option C (opposite rudder) is not the primary concern — speed margin is the critical safety factor. ### Q22: A glider is about to stall and pitch down. Which control input prevents a nose-dive and spin? ^t70q22 - A) Hold ailerons neutral, apply strong rudder toward the lower wing - B) Maintain level flight using the rudder pedals - C) Pull the stick back slightly, deflect ailerons opposite to the lower wing - D) Release back pressure on the elevator, apply rudder opposite to the dropping wing **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The correct response to an incipient stall with wing drop is to release back pressure on the elevator (reducing angle of attack) and apply opposite rudder to prevent the yaw that would develop into a spin. Option A applies rudder toward the dropping wing, which would accelerate spin entry. Option B attempts to maintain level flight with rudder alone, which is ineffective near the stall. Option C pulls back on the elevator, which deepens the stall, and uses ailerons which can worsen the situation near the critical angle of attack. ### Q23: When aerotowing with a side-mounted release hook, the glider tends to... ^t70q23 - A) Display an increased pitch-up moment. - B) Exhibit particularly stable flight characteristics. - C) Turn rapidly about its longitudinal axis. - D) Yaw toward the side where the hook is mounted. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** A side-mounted (belly or CG) release hook creates a tow force that acts below and possibly offset from the aircraft's center of gravity. The cable pull from below the CG generates a nose-up pitching moment, which the pilot must actively counter with forward stick pressure. Option B is incorrect — side-mounted hooks do not improve stability. Option C (rapid roll) is not characteristic of this configuration. Option D describes yaw, which would occur with an asymmetric attachment but is not the primary effect. ### Q24: During aerotow, the glider has climbed excessively high behind the tug. What should the glider pilot do to prevent further danger? ^t70q24 - A) Initiate a sideslip to lose the excess height - B) Push firmly forward to bring the glider back to the normal position - C) Pull strongly, then release the cable - D) Gently extend the spoilers and steer the glider back to the correct tow position **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The safest correction for being too high behind the tug is to gently deploy spoilers to increase drag and lose excess height while steering back to the correct tow position. Option A (sideslip) would create erratic lateral movements that could endanger both aircraft. Option B (pushing firmly forward) could put the tug into a dangerous nose-down attitude by pulling its tail up via the cable. Option C (pulling then releasing) is dangerous — pulling when high compounds the problem, potentially lifting the tug's tail catastrophically. ### Q25: After a cable break during winch launch, what is the correct sequence of actions? ^t70q25 - A) Hold the stick back, stabilise at minimum speed, and land on the remaining field length - B) Push the nose down firmly, release the cable, then decide based on altitude and terrain whether to land ahead or fly a short circuit - C) Perform a 180-degree turn and land in the opposite direction, releasing the cable before touchdown - D) Release the cable first, then push the nose down; below 150 m AGL land straight ahead at increased speed **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** After a cable break during winch launch, the immediate priority is to lower the nose to maintain flying speed (preventing a stall from the steep climb attitude), then release the cable to prevent it from snagging during landing. After establishing safe flight, the pilot decides whether to land straight ahead or fly a modified circuit based on available altitude and terrain. Option A (holding the stick back) risks a stall. Option C (180° turn) is extremely dangerous at low altitude. Option D gets the sequence backward — nose down first, then release.