### Q91: Unless ATC directs otherwise, how should a glider approach an aerodrome? ^t70q91 - A) A straight-in approach must be flown to minimise disruption to other traffic - B) Follow the published approach procedures in the VFR guide or any other appropriate method - C) The landing must be preceded by at least one full circle above the signal area, with all turns to the left - D) The landing must be preceded by at least a half-circuit, with all turns to the left **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Unless ATC provides specific instructions, glider pilots should follow the published approach procedures for the aerodrome as described in the VFR guide or use any other method appropriate to the circumstances and traffic situation. This provides flexibility for glider operations, which differ from powered aircraft. Option A is too restrictive — straight-in approaches are not always required. Options C and D prescribe specific circuit patterns that may not apply to all aerodromes and do not reflect the flexibility that glider operations require. ### Q92: Flying fast along a ridge, you see a slower glider ahead at approximately your altitude. What should you do? ^t70q92 - A) Dive below and clear upward at a sufficient distance before continuing - B) Make a 180-degree turn and go back along the ridge - C) Establish radio contact and ask about the other pilot's intentions - D) Overtake on the valley side, away from the slope **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When overtaking a slower glider while ridge soaring, always pass on the valley side (away from the slope). This ensures both aircraft have adequate terrain clearance and the slower pilot is not trapped between you and the hillside. Option A (diving below) takes you into potential rotor turbulence near the terrain. Option B (turning back) is unnecessary when safe overtaking is possible. Option C (radio contact) is impractical at closing speed and delays the required action. ### Q93: In flight, the rudder jams in the neutral position. What should you do? ^t70q93 - A) Increase speed and continue the flight - B) Abandon the glider by parachute immediately - C) Control the glider with elevator and ailerons, make shallow turns, and land immediately - D) Consult the flight manual **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** With the rudder jammed in neutral, the glider can still be controlled using elevator for pitch and ailerons for roll. Shallow coordinated turns are possible using ailerons alone, though adverse yaw will be present. The pilot should fly a conservative approach and land as soon as possible. Option A (continuing the flight) is reckless with a jammed control surface. Option B (immediate bailout) is premature when the aircraft remains controllable. Option D (consulting the manual) wastes time during an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action. ### Q94: During the start of an aerotow, the glider rolls over the tow rope. What is the correct action? ^t70q94 - A) Release the rope immediately - B) Extend the airbrakes - C) Apply the wheel brake to tension the rope - D) Warn the tow pilot by radio **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** If the glider rolls over the slack tow rope during the initial ground roll, the rope must be released immediately to prevent it from becoming entangled with the undercarriage or other structural components. A tangled rope during acceleration could cause a violent upset or drag the aircraft off course. Option B (airbrakes) does not address the hazard. Option C (wheel brake) cannot prevent rope entanglement. Option D (radio call) wastes critical time when immediate action is needed. ### Q95: The tow rope breaks on the tug side before safety height is reached. How must the glider pilot react? ^t70q95 - A) Pull back on the stick, release the rope, and land with a tailwind - B) Make a flat turn and land diagonally - C) Actuate the release handle twice and land on the aerodrome without exception - D) Immediately actuate the release handle twice and land straight ahead in the runway extension **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Below safety height, the pilot must immediately release the remaining rope by actuating the handle twice (to ensure complete disconnection) and land straight ahead in the runway extension. There is insufficient altitude for a circuit or turn back to the field. Option A (pulling back) is dangerous as it reduces speed when close to the ground. Option B (flat turn) risks a stall-spin at low altitude. Option C insists on landing on the aerodrome itself, which may require a turn that is unsafe below safety height. ### Q96: How should the final approach be flown in a strong crosswind? ^t70q96 - A) Never fully extend the airbrakes - B) Maintain runway alignment using only the rudder - C) Crab into the wind and increase speed - D) Always approach with a sideslip on the lee side **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In a strong crosswind, the pilot should crab into the wind (point the nose upwind to maintain the desired ground track) and increase approach speed to improve control authority and provide a safety margin against gusts. The crab is maintained until the flare, where the pilot transitions to a wing-low or sideslip technique for touchdown. Option A arbitrarily restricts airbrake use. Option B (rudder only) cannot maintain runway alignment in a crosswind. Option D (sideslip from the lee side) is backwards — sideslip should be into the wind. ### Q97: How should a water landing be performed? ^t70q97 - A) Tighten harnesses, close ventilation, and land at slightly above normal speed - B) Just before landing, pitch up to touch down tail first - C) Perform a sideslip to reduce impact on the wing - D) Extend the undercarriage, tighten harnesses, and land at minimum speed with airbrakes retracted **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** For a water landing (ditching), the pilot should tighten harnesses securely, close all ventilation openings to delay water ingress, and land at slightly above normal approach speed with the gear retracted. The higher speed ensures adequate control and a flatter touchdown angle. Option B (pitching up for tail-first contact) can cause a violent forward pitch on water impact. Option C (sideslip) creates asymmetric water entry. Option D (extending gear) would cause the wheels to catch the water surface and likely flip the aircraft. ### Q98: You enter a thermal with no other glider nearby. In which direction do you circle? ^t70q98 - A) Circle to the left - B) Circle to the right - C) First perform a figure-eight to find the best lift - D) There is no regulation on this **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When thermalling alone with no other aircraft in the thermal, there is no regulation requiring a specific direction of turn. The pilot is free to choose based on personal preference, thermal characteristics, or whatever direction best centers the thermal core. Option A and B each prescribe a fixed direction without justification. Option C (figure-eight) is a useful technique for centering the thermal but is not a regulatory requirement. The obligation to match turn direction only applies when another glider is already established in the thermal. ### Q99: How is height expressed in a glider? ^t70q99 - A) In flight levels only - B) Always in altitude (metres or feet) - C) According to the regulations of the countries being overflown - D) In height above the ground only **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Height references in glider operations must follow the regulations of the country being overflown, which vary between metric (metres) and imperial (feet) systems and between different altitude reference systems (QNH, QFE, flight levels). For example, Switzerland uses metres in certain contexts while other European countries use feet. Option A (flight levels only) ignores low-altitude references. Option B (always altitude) ignores height AGL requirements. Option D (AGL only) ignores the need for altitude AMSL for airspace awareness. ### Q100: When the manufacturer has not specified a spin recovery procedure, what is the standard method? ^t70q100 - A) Push the stick fully forward, apply full opposite rudder, then pull out - B) Push the stick forward, deflect ailerons opposite to the spin, then pull out - C) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite ailerons, push the stick fully forward with rudder neutral, then pull out - D) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite rudder, keep ailerons neutral, ease the stick slightly forward, then pull out **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The standard spin recovery sequence is: identify the spin direction, apply full opposite rudder to arrest the rotation, keep ailerons neutral (aileron input can worsen a spin), ease the stick forward to reduce angle of attack below critical, and once rotation stops, centralize rudder and smoothly pull out of the dive. Option A skips identification and uses the stick too aggressively. Option B uses ailerons, which can deepen the spin by increasing drag on the outer wing. Option C relies on ailerons with rudder neutral, which is the wrong primary control for spin recovery. ### Q101: May changes be made at an accident site where a person has been injured, beyond essential rescue measures? ^t70q101 - A) Yes, if there is only material damage - B) Yes, the wreck must be evacuated quickly to prevent third-party interference - C) Yes, if the aircraft operator has formally instructed it - D) No, unless the investigation authority has formally given authorisation **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When a person has been injured in an aviation accident, the accident site must be preserved as-is for the investigation authority. No changes may be made beyond what is necessary for rescue and firefighting, unless the investigation authority formally authorizes modifications. This preserves evidence for determining the cause. Option A is irrelevant since a person was injured. Option B incorrectly prioritizes wreck removal over evidence preservation. Option C is wrong because the aircraft operator does not have authority to alter an accident scene. ### Q102: During aerotow, the pilot loses sight of the tug. What must be done? ^t70q102 - A) Ask the tow pilot by radio for his position - B) Extend the airbrakes and wait - C) Release the rope immediately - D) Prepare for a parachute bailout **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the glider pilot cannot see the tug aircraft during aerotow, the towrope must be released immediately. Flying in tow without visual contact with the tug is extremely dangerous — the pilot cannot anticipate turns, altitude changes, or emergency actions by the tug, risking mid-air collision or being pulled into an uncontrolled attitude. Option A (radio call) takes too long and does not resolve the immediate danger. Option B (airbrakes and wait) maintains the dangerous connection. Option D (parachute) is premature. ### Q103: Is it mandatory to wear a parachute when flying gliders? ^t70q103 - A) Yes, always - B) No - C) Only for aerobatic flights - D) For all flights above 300 m AGL **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** There is no legal requirement to wear a parachute during glider flights, although it is strongly recommended and is standard practice among glider pilots. The decision rests with the pilot. Option A overstates the requirement. Option C creates a non-existent aerobatic-specific mandate. Option D invents an altitude-based rule. While clubs and operators may have their own requirements, there is no regulatory obligation under current rules. ### Q104: You need to land on a 400 m field with a moderate tailwind. How do you fly the final approach? ^t70q104 - A) Faster than you would with a headwind - B) At best glide speed, slightly higher than with a headwind - C) Slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than with a headwind - D) Normally, with a sideslip **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** On a short field with a tailwind, the pilot must minimize groundspeed at touchdown by flying as slowly as safely possible — slightly above minimum speed. The approach should be flown lower than normal to steepen the ground-referenced descent angle, since the tailwind flattens the approach path relative to the ground. Option A (faster) increases groundspeed and ground roll. Option B (best glide speed, higher) produces a flat approach that wastes field length. Option D (sideslip) addresses crosswind, not tailwind. ### Q105: A motorglider with engine running approaches from your right at the same altitude. How do you react? ^t70q105 - A) Give way to the left - B) Maintain straight heading and keep the motorglider in sight - C) Extend airbrakes and give way downward - D) Give way to the right **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A glider has right-of-way over powered aircraft under SERA rules. However, when a powered aircraft (motorglider with engine running) approaches from the right, the standard "give way to the right" rule applies — the pilot seeing the other aircraft on the right must yield. In this case, the pilot should give way to the right. Option A (left) would cross the other aircraft's path. Option B (maintaining heading) ignores the collision threat. Option C (downward) may work but the standard maneuver is to turn right. ### Q106: Flying in a glider-specific restricted zone (LS-R), what cloud clearance must you maintain? (vertical / horizontal) ^t70q106 - A) 300 m vertically, 1500 m horizontally - B) 100 m vertically, 300 m horizontally - C) Clear of clouds with flight visibility - D) 50 m vertically, 100 m horizontally **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In glider-specific restricted zones (LS-R) in Switzerland, reduced cloud clearance minima apply for gliders: 50 m vertically and 100 m horizontally from clouds. These reduced minima recognize that glider pilots often operate near cloud base while thermalling and need to remain close to clouds for soaring purposes. Option A describes standard Class D minimums. Option B is a common misconception. Option C describes VFR "clear of cloud" requirements used in some other airspace classes. ### Q107: What is the correct procedure for abandoning the glider and bailing out by parachute? ^t70q107 - A) Unfasten harness, release canopy, jump, open parachute - B) Unfasten harness, pull parachute handle, release canopy, jump - C) Release canopy, unfasten harness, jump, open parachute - D) Release canopy, unfasten harness, open parachute, jump **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The correct bailout sequence is: (1) release canopy first (so it does not jam shut), (2) unfasten harness, (3) exit the aircraft, (4) deploy the parachute after clearing the airframe. Option A unfastens the harness first, which may cause the pilot to be thrown around the cockpit before the canopy is open. Option B deploys the parachute inside the cockpit, which would entangle it with the aircraft structure. Option D opens the parachute before jumping, which would inflate inside or near the aircraft. ### Q108: How should a landing on a slope be performed? ^t70q108 - A) Always across the slope - B) With left wind, across the slope - C) Always facing uphill regardless of wind - D) Downhill into the wind **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When landing on a slope with wind, the standard technique is to land downhill into the wind. The headwind reduces groundspeed while the downhill slope provides a more gradual transition from flight to ground roll, and the combination typically produces the safest outcome. Option A (across the slope) risks the aircraft rolling sideways. Option B applies only to one specific wind direction. Option C (uphill regardless of wind) ignores the significant deceleration hazard of landing uphill with a tailwind, which could cause a dangerously abrupt stop or flip. ### Q109: Which terrain is particularly well suited for an off-field landing? ^t70q109 - A) A large flat field, oriented into the wind, with no obstacles on the approach path - B) A field of tall cereal crops that provides a braking effect to shorten the roll - C) A vast, freshly ploughed field sloping upward - D) A field near a road and a telephone **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** The ideal off-field landing site is a large, flat field aligned with the wind direction and free of obstacles on the approach path. This allows a normal into-wind approach and provides maximum usable landing distance. Option B (tall crops) can flip the glider by catching a wing or the fuselage. Option C (ploughed, uphill) has soft ground that can nose the glider over, plus the uphill slope makes approach assessment difficult. Option D prioritizes convenience over safety — proximity to a road and phone is irrelevant if the field itself is unsuitable. ### Q110: An off-field landing ends in a ground loop caused by an obstacle, and the fuselage breaks near the rudder. What must be done? ^t70q110 - A) Notify FOCA in writing - B) If it is a minor accident, no report is necessary - C) Immediately notify the aviation accident investigation bureau via REGA - D) Notify the nearest police station **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A broken fuselage constitutes a serious accident requiring immediate notification of the aviation accident investigation bureau, which can be reached via REGA (the Swiss rescue coordination center). This is classified as a serious structural failure, not a minor incident. Option A (FOCA in writing) is not the immediate required action for an accident. Option B incorrectly classifies a broken fuselage as minor. Option D (police) may be appropriate for property damage but does not fulfill the primary obligation to notify the investigation authority immediately. ### Q111: An off-field landing on a steeply inclined site in mountainous terrain is the only option. How should it be conducted? ^t70q111 - A) Approach at minimum speed with a careful flare at the landing site - B) Approach parallel to the ridge with headwind, according to the prevailing wind - C) Approach down the ridge at increased speed, adjusting pitch to follow the terrain - D) Approach at increased speed with a quick flare to match the slope **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Landing uphill on a steep slope requires extra approach speed because the rising terrain rapidly decelerates the aircraft on contact. A quick, decisive flare matches the flight path to the slope gradient and ensures controlled touchdown. Option A (minimum speed) leaves no energy margin for the flare against the slope. Option B (parallel to ridge) does not use the slope for deceleration. Option C (downhill) dramatically increases groundspeed and stopping distance, making a safe stop nearly impossible on a steep slope. ### Q112: On final approach, you realise the landing gear has not been extended. How should the landing be conducted? ^t70q112 - A) Retract flaps, extend the gear, and land normally - B) Land without gear at higher-than-usual speed - C) Land without gear, touching down carefully at minimum speed - D) Extend the gear immediately and land as usual **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the gear cannot be extended on final approach, the pilot should perform a belly landing at minimum speed to minimize impact forces and structural damage. Low speed reduces kinetic energy at touchdown, protecting both the pilot and the aircraft. Option A and D assume the gear can still be extended, but the question implies it was not deployed and it is too late to safely manage gear extension on short final. Option B (higher speed) increases impact energy unnecessarily. ### Q113: At what height during a winch launch may the maximum pitch attitude be adopted? ^t70q113 - A) From 150 m or higher, once a straight-ahead landing after cable break is no longer possible - B) Shortly after lift-off, provided there is a sufficiently strong headwind - C) From approximately 50 m while maintaining a safe winch-launch speed - D) From 15 m once a speed of at least 90 km/h is reached **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The maximum (steep) pitch attitude during a winch launch should be adopted from approximately 50 m AGL, provided a safe winch-launch speed is maintained. Below this height, a moderate climb angle is used to ensure safe recovery options if the cable breaks. Option A (150 m) is too conservative — the steep climb should begin earlier to maximize launch altitude. Option B (shortly after lift-off) is dangerous at low altitude with no cable-break recovery margin. Option D (15 m, 90 km/h) is too low for the steep climb attitude. ### Q114: What factors must be considered for approach and landing speed? ^t70q114 - A) Altitude and weight - B) Wind speed and altitude - C) Aircraft weight and wind conditions - D) Wind speed and weight **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Approach and landing speed must account for aircraft weight (heavier aircraft need higher speeds to maintain the same lift) and wind conditions (gusts require additional speed margin, and crosswinds affect control requirements). Option A mentions altitude, which affects true airspeed but not indicated approach speed. Option B combines wind and altitude but omits weight. Option D is close but "wind conditions" (option C) is more comprehensive than "wind speed" alone, as it includes gusts and direction. ### Q115: How can wind direction be determined for an out-landing? ^t70q115 - A) By recalling the windsock reading at the departure airfield - B) By asking other pilots reachable by radio - C) From the wind forecast in the flight weather report - D) By observing smoke, flags, and rippling crop fields **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The most reliable method for determining local wind direction during an out-landing is direct observation of wind indicators on the ground: smoke drift, flags, wind-blown vegetation, and rippling patterns in crop fields. These provide real-time, local wind information at the landing site. Option A (departure windsock) may reflect different conditions far from the landing site. Option B (radio contact) is unreliable and time-consuming. Option C (forecast) provides area-wide predictions, not actual conditions at the specific field. ### Q116: What is the recommended technique for landing on a downhill grass area? ^t70q116 - A) Full airbrakes, gear retracted, and land in a stall - B) Use wheel brakes on the main wheel, no airbrakes - C) Generally land uphill - D) Land diagonally downhill **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** On a slope, the recommended technique is to land uphill whenever possible, as the rising terrain helps decelerate the aircraft naturally. Landing uphill converts forward speed into potential energy, shortening the ground roll significantly. Option A (stall landing with gear retracted) is dangerous and unnecessary. Option B (wheel brakes only) may be insufficient on a downhill slope. Option D (diagonally downhill) increases the risk of a lateral upset and still results in excessive groundspeed. ### Q117: What must be checked before changing direction during a glide? ^t70q117 - A) That loose objects are secured - B) That thermal clouds are nearby - C) That the airspace in the desired direction is clear - D) That the turn will be properly coordinated **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Before any turn, the pilot must visually check that the airspace in the intended direction of turn is clear of other traffic. This is the most critical safety check — a mid-air collision due to turning into occupied airspace is one of the most serious risks in gliding. Option A (loose objects) should be checked before flight, not before each turn. Option B (thermal clouds) relates to soaring strategy, not safety. Option D (coordination) is important for flying technique but is secondary to the primary lookout requirement. ### Q118: A light tailwind is detected before a winch launch. What should be considered? ^t70q118 - A) A weaker rated weak link can be used since the load will be lower - B) The ground roll until lift-off will be shorter since the tailwind pushes from behind - C) Pull firmly on the elevator immediately after lift-off to gain more height - D) The ground roll until lift-off will be somewhat longer; monitor speed carefully **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A tailwind reduces the relative airflow over the wings during the ground roll, requiring a longer distance to reach takeoff speed. The pilot must monitor airspeed carefully since the aircraft is accelerating more slowly than normal. Option A is wrong — a tailwind increases cable loads due to higher groundspeed requirements. Option B reverses the effect — tailwind increases, not decreases, ground roll. Option C (pulling firmly after lift-off) risks stalling at low altitude in already-unfavorable conditions. ### Q119: In a strong crosswind, how should the base-to-final turn be flown? ^t70q119 - A) Bank up to 60 degrees, use rudder to align early with the final track - B) Bank no more than 30 degrees, monitor speed and yaw string, correct track after any overshoot - C) Bank up to 60 degrees, monitor speed and yaw string, correct track after any overshoot - D) Bank no more than 30 degrees, use rudder to align early with the final track **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In a strong crosswind, the base-to-final turn should use a moderate bank angle of no more than 30 degrees to maintain a safe margin above the stall speed (which increases with bank angle). The pilot should monitor speed and the yaw string for coordination, and accept a minor overshoot of the final track rather than risk a steep turn at low altitude. Options A and C allow 60-degree bank, which dramatically increases stall speed and load factor at a critical low-altitude phase. Option D uses rudder to align early, which could cause a skidding turn. ### Q120: Another sailplane is circling close behind you in a thermal. What should you do to avoid a collision? ^t70q120 - A) Reduce your bank angle to widen the turn radius - B) Increase your bank angle to present a more visible profile - C) Slow down to let the other sailplane pass - D) Speed up to move to the opposite side of the circle **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** If another sailplane is close behind you in the same thermal, speeding up to increase the distance between you and move to the opposite side of the circle creates maximum separation. This allows both pilots to thermall safely with visual awareness of each other. Option A (reducing bank) widens your circle and may cause the other glider to close the gap. Option B (increasing bank) tightens the turn but does not solve the proximity issue. Option C (slowing down) brings the other glider even closer — exactly the opposite of what is needed.