### Q61: What requires special attention when flying in high mountains? ^t70q61 - A) FLARM may produce false warnings due to reflections off rock faces. - B) GPS signal reception may be lost. - C) Radio contact may be interrupted. - D) Weather conditions can change far more rapidly than expected (e.g. sudden thunderstorm development). **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In high mountain environments, weather can deteriorate with extreme speed due to orographic lifting and localized heating effects. This is the most significant hazard requiring special attention. Options A, B, and C describe technical inconveniences that may occasionally occur, but they are not the primary hazard. Rapid weather changes can trap a pilot in valleys with deteriorating visibility and violent turbulence, making option D the critical safety concern. ### Q62: When installing the oxygen system in a glider for an Alpine flight, what is absolutely essential? ^t70q62 - A) That the rubber seal is undamaged. - B) That all components in contact with oxygen are completely free of grease. - C) That the coupling nut is tightened to the correct torque. - D) That the cylinder connector is well greased. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Oxygen under pressure can react violently with hydrocarbon-based greases and oils, potentially causing a flash fire or explosion. All components in contact with oxygen must be completely grease-free. Option D is directly dangerous because greasing the connector introduces a combustion risk. Options A and C describe good practices but are not the absolute safety-critical requirement. The oxygen-grease incompatibility is a fundamental rule in aviation oxygen system handling. ### Q63: After a collision, you must bail out at approximately 400 m. When should the parachute be opened? ^t70q63 - A) After 2 to 3 seconds of freefall. - B) When you have stabilised in freefall. - C) Just before leaving the glider. - D) Immediately after leaving the glider. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** At only 400 m above ground, there is no time for any delay. The parachute must be deployed immediately after clearing the aircraft. Freefall covers roughly 50 m per second, so even 2-3 seconds of delay (option A) would consume 100-150 m of precious altitude. Option B (stabilizing in freefall) wastes critical seconds. Option C (before leaving) would entangle the parachute with the aircraft structure. At 400 m, every second counts for successful deployment and deceleration. ### Q64: On short final for an out-landing, you realise the field is too short. What do you do? ^t70q64 - A) Reduce speed to the minimum to shorten the landing distance. - B) Continue straight ahead, deploy full airbrakes, and prepare for an emergency stop using all available means. - C) Maintain heading and land using full airbrakes to stop as early as possible. - D) Attempt to turn and find a longer alternative field. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** On short final, the commitment to land has been made. The safest action is to continue straight ahead with full airbrakes and use every available means (wheel brake, ground friction) to stop in the shortest distance possible. Option A (reducing to minimum speed) risks stalling close to the ground. Option C is similar to B but less specific about using all stopping means. Option D (turning to find another field) at this low altitude is extremely dangerous and likely to result in a stall-spin accident. ### Q65: What does FLARM do? ^t70q65 - A) It shows the precise position of other gliders. - B) It warns of other FLARM-equipped aircraft that may pose a collision risk. - C) It recommends avoidance manoeuvres when a collision risk exists. - D) It shows the exact positions of all aircraft equipped with FLARM or a transponder. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** FLARM is a traffic awareness system that calculates collision risk based on predicted flight paths of nearby FLARM-equipped aircraft and issues warnings when a potential conflict is detected. Option A overstates its precision. Option C is incorrect because FLARM warns but does not recommend specific avoidance maneuvers. Option D is wrong because FLARM only detects other FLARM devices, not transponder-equipped aircraft (that would require a separate ADS-B receiver). ### Q66: During a cross-country flight, you must land at a high-altitude aerodrome with no wind. At what indicated airspeed do you fly the approach? ^t70q66 - A) About 5 km/h less than at sea level. - B) Increase the sea-level speed by 1% for every 100 m of altitude. - C) About 5 km/h more than at sea level. - D) The same as at sea level. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The indicated airspeed (IAS) for the approach should be the same as at sea level because the ASI measures dynamic pressure, which determines aerodynamic forces regardless of altitude. The stall IAS does not change with altitude. However, the true airspeed and groundspeed will be higher at altitude due to lower air density. Options A and C incorrectly adjust IAS, and option B applies a TAS correction to IAS, which is unnecessary. ### Q67: What do you notice when entering the centre of a downdraft? ^t70q67 - A) One wing rises and the aircraft begins to turn. - B) The nose pitches up and you feel a brief increase in g-load. - C) The glider accelerates and you feel increased g-load. - D) The glider slows and you feel a brief decrease in g-load. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When entering a downdraft, the descending air mass reduces the effective angle of attack on the wings, temporarily decreasing lift. The pilot feels a brief reduction in g-load (a sensation of lightness) as the aircraft begins to sink with the descending air. The glider's airspeed initially decreases momentarily. Option B describes what happens entering an updraft. Options A and C do not accurately describe the symmetrical effect of entering a downdraft center. ### Q68: During a cross-country flight over the Jura, you notice cirrus forming to the west. What should you expect? ^t70q68 - A) Weaker thermals due to reduced solar radiation. - B) Increased upper-level instability from moisture, producing stronger thermals. - C) A transition from cumulus thermals to blue (dry) thermals. - D) Cirrus have no effect on conditions in the thermal layer. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Cirrus clouds at high altitude filter incoming solar radiation, reducing the surface heating that drives thermal convection. Less heating means weaker thermals and potentially an earlier end to the soaring day. Option B is wrong because cirrus does not increase instability at thermal altitudes. Option C describes a shift that may occur but is not the primary effect. Option D underestimates the impact cirrus has on thermal generation through solar radiation reduction. ### Q69: What speed maximises distance covered against a headwind? ^t70q69 - A) Minimum sink speed. - B) Best glide ratio speed. - C) A speed higher than best glide ratio speed. - D) The speed corresponding to McCready zero. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** To maximize distance in a headwind, the pilot must fly faster than best-glide speed. The headwind reduces groundspeed, so the glider spends more time in the air and descends more before covering the desired ground distance. By increasing speed above best-glide, the pilot accepts a steeper glide angle but gains enough extra groundspeed to more than compensate. Option A (minimum sink) minimizes descent rate but covers minimal distance. Option B (best glide) is optimal only in still air. Option D (McCready zero) equals best-glide speed. ### Q70: Which of these fields is best for an out-landing? ^t70q70 - A) A 400 m freshly ploughed field. - B) A 300 m maize field with a steady headwind. - C) A 250 m country lane with a strong headwind. - D) A 200 m meadow that has just been mown. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A freshly mown meadow provides a smooth, firm surface free of tall vegetation and hidden obstacles, ideal for a short ground roll in a glider. Option A (ploughed field) has soft soil and deep furrows that can nose the glider over. Option B (maize field) has tall crops that obscure hazards and create drag inconsistencies. Option C (country lane) is narrow, potentially lined with trees and power lines, and poses collision risks with vehicles. ### Q71: May you use the on-board radio to communicate with your retrieve crew on the dedicated frequency without holding a radiotelephony extension? ^t70q71 - A) Only exceptionally - B) Yes - C) As a general rule, once per flight, shortly before landing - D) No **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Pilots may use the on-board radio on dedicated glider frequencies to communicate with their retrieve crew without needing a separate radiotelephony extension or rating. These frequencies are designated for glider operations and permit such operational communications. Option A unnecessarily restricts this practice. Option C invents a frequency limitation that does not exist. Option D incorrectly prohibits a communication that is routinely permitted. ### Q72: At an aerodrome at 1800 m AMSL, how does the ground speed compare to the indicated airspeed on approach? ^t70q72 - A) It depends on the temperature. - B) Ground speed is lower. - C) They are the same. - D) Ground speed is higher. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** At 1800 m AMSL, air density is lower than at sea level, so the true airspeed is higher than indicated airspeed for the same dynamic pressure reading. In nil-wind conditions, groundspeed equals TAS, which exceeds IAS. This means the aircraft approaches the runway at a higher groundspeed, requiring awareness of a longer ground roll. Options B and C underestimate the density altitude effect. Option A is partially true but the dominant factor is altitude. ### Q73: Is wearing a parachute compulsory during glider flights? ^t70q73 - A) Yes, for all flights above 300 m AGL - B) No - C) Only when performing aerobatics - D) Yes, always **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Wearing a parachute is not compulsory for glider flights under current regulations, although it is strongly recommended and standard practice. The decision is left to the pilot. Option A invents an altitude-based requirement. Option C creates a restriction limited to aerobatics that does not exist. Option D overstates the requirement. While practically all glider pilots wear parachutes, it remains a personal safety choice. ### Q74: During a winch launch, just after reaching the climbing angle, the cable breaks near the winch. How should you react? ^t70q74 - A) Extend the airbrakes immediately - B) First establish normal flight attitude, then release the cable - C) Report the incident by radio - D) Release the cable immediately, then establish a normal flight attitude **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** After a cable break during the climb phase, the immediate priority is to release the remaining cable (which could snag) and then lower the nose to establish a safe glide. Option A (airbrakes first) wastes altitude when every meter counts. Option B reverses the priority because establishing glide before releasing could allow the cable to become entangled. Option C (radio call) wastes precious seconds during a time-critical emergency. ### Q75: What must be considered during an aerotow departure in strong crosswind? ^t70q75 - A) The tow plane must lift off before the glider - B) After take-off, correct into the wind until the tow plane lifts off - C) The take-off distance will be shorter - D) Before departure, offset the glider to the upwind side **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In a strong crosswind aerotow departure, the glider should be positioned upwind of the tow aircraft's centerline to prevent being blown across the tug's path during the ground roll. Option A states a normal sequence that does not address crosswind specifically. Option B provides a partial technique but does not address the pre-departure setup. Option C is incorrect because crosswinds typically increase takeoff distance. ### Q76: You enter a thermal in the lowlands at 1500 m AGL with no other glider nearby. In which direction do you circle? ^t70q76 - A) Circle to the right - B) There is no regulation on this - C) Circle to the left - D) First perform a figure-eight to locate the best lift **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When entering a thermal alone, the recommended technique is to first perform a figure-eight pattern to identify the strongest part of the thermal before committing to a circling direction. This allows the pilot to center the thermal efficiently. Options A and C prescribe a fixed direction without first locating the core. Option B is technically correct regarding regulations but does not describe the best practice. The figure-eight technique optimizes climb rate by finding the thermal center. ### Q77: What lateral distance from a slope must you maintain in a glider? ^t70q77 - A) It depends on the lift conditions - B) 150 m horizontally - C) 60 m horizontally - D) A sufficient safety distance must be maintained **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When flying near a slope, the pilot must maintain a sufficient safety distance that accounts for current conditions including wind, turbulence, and terrain features. This is a judgment-based requirement rather than a fixed numeric value. Option A only considers one factor. Options B (150 m) and C (60 m) specify fixed distances that may be appropriate in some contexts but do not reflect the general guidance emphasizing adequate safety margin. ### Q78: You enter a thermal at 500 m AGL below a cumulus and see another glider circling 50 m above you. In which direction should you turn? ^t70q78 - A) You are free to choose, since the vertical separation is sufficient - B) Circle in the same direction as the glider above you - C) Circle in the opposite direction so you can observe the other glider from below - D) You cannot use this thermal because the height difference is less than 150 m **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When joining a thermal occupied by another glider, you must circle in the same direction to maintain a predictable traffic pattern and avoid head-on encounters. This is a fundamental rule of shared thermal etiquette. Option A incorrectly dismisses the need for directional coordination. Option C (opposite direction) creates dangerous head-on convergence paths. Option D invents a non-existent 150 m vertical separation requirement. ### Q79: During an off-field landing, the glider sustains 70% damage; the pilot is unhurt. What must be done? ^t70q79 - A) Submit a written report with a sketch to FOCA within 3 days - B) Notify the local police within 24 hours - C) Immediately notify the investigation bureau via REGA - D) Report the damage to the accident investigation bureau within the following week **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When a glider sustains major damage (70%) without injuries, the pilot must notify the local police within 24 hours. Option A (FOCA report in 3 days) does not meet the urgency required. Option C (immediate REGA notification) is the procedure for accidents involving injuries or fatalities. Option D (report within a week) is too slow for an incident involving 70% airframe damage. ### Q80: What requires special attention when taking off on a hard (paved) runway? ^t70q80 - A) The wingtip helper must run alongside for longer - B) Pull back on the stick longer than usual - C) Apply moderate wheel brake at the start of the roll - D) Expect a longer ground roll than normal **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** On a hard paved runway, a glider's main wheel has less rolling resistance compared to grass, which can affect the ground roll characteristics. Additionally, on pavement the aircraft may weathervane more easily. Option A is not specific to hard runways. Option B (pulling back longer) could cause the tail to strike the runway. Option C (wheel brake at start) would impede acceleration during the most critical phase. ### Q81: How should a water landing (ditching) be carried out? ^t70q81 - A) Just before contact, pitch the glider up sharply to touch tail-first - B) Tighten harnesses, close ventilation, and land at slightly above normal speed - C) Extend the undercarriage, tighten harnesses, and land at minimum speed with airbrakes retracted - D) Perform a sideslip to reduce impact force on the wing **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** For a water landing, the pilot should tighten all harnesses, close ventilation openings to slow water ingress, and approach at slightly above normal speed with gear retracted. Option A (tail-first) risks a violent pitch-forward on impact. Option C (extending gear) would cause the wheels to catch the water and likely flip the aircraft. Option D (sideslip) creates an asymmetric water entry that could cartwheel the aircraft. ### Q82: During an off-field landing, how can the wind direction best be determined? ^t70q82 - A) By observing movement of leaves in the trees - B) By watching wave patterns in wheat fields - C) By observing the glider's drift during altitude-losing spirals - D) By observing the behaviour of grazing livestock **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The most reliable method for determining wind direction from the air is to observe the glider's drift during altitude-loss spirals. The direction the aircraft drifts indicates the downwind direction, and the amount of drift indicates wind strength. This works at any altitude and any location. Options A (tree leaves) and B (wheat patterns) require being low enough to see detail. Option D (livestock) is unreliable as a wind indicator. ### Q83: You are flying fast along a ridge and spot a slower glider ahead at about the same altitude. How do you react? ^t70q83 - A) Make a 180-degree turn and return along the slope - B) Overtake on the side away from the slope - C) Establish radio contact and ask about the other pilot's intentions - D) Dive below and clear upward at a safe distance, then continue **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When overtaking a slower glider on a ridge, always pass on the valley side (away from the slope) to maintain safe terrain clearance and avoid trapping the other pilot against the hillside. Option A (turning back) is unnecessary and wastes energy. Option C (radio contact) takes too long at closing speed. Option D (diving below) risks flying into the turbulent rotor zone closer to the terrain. ### Q84: At the start of an aerotow, the glider rolls over the tow rope. What should you do? ^t70q84 - A) Apply the wheel brake to tension the rope - B) Extend the airbrakes - C) Release the rope immediately - D) Warn the tow pilot by radio **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the glider rolls over the slack tow rope, the rope can become entangled with the landing gear or other structures. The immediate action is to release the rope before any entanglement can occur. Option A (braking) does not prevent entanglement. Option B (airbrakes) is irrelevant to the immediate hazard. Option D (radio warning) wastes time during a situation requiring instant action. ### Q85: Are glider flights permitted in Class C airspace? ^t70q85 - A) Yes, provided the glider's transponder continuously transmits code 7000 - B) Yes, if the pilot holds the radiotelephony extension, has received ATC authorisation, and maintains a continuous radio watch; exceptions are published on the soaring chart - C) Yes, without restrictions, in VMC - D) Yes, provided no NOTAM expressly prohibits them **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Glider flights are permitted in Class C airspace under specific conditions: the pilot must hold the radiotelephony extension, receive ATC authorization, and maintain continuous radio contact. Certain exceptions for gliders may be published on the soaring chart. Option A assumes gliders carry transponders, which most do not. Option C ignores mandatory ATC clearance and radio requirements. Option D incorrectly implies Class C is open by default. ### Q86: You are flying along a slope on your right and spot an oncoming glider at the same altitude. How do you react? ^t70q86 - A) Extend airbrakes and dive for vertical separation - B) Move away on the side opposite to the slope - C) Climb away since you have enough speed - D) Maintain your heading **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When meeting an oncoming glider while ridge soaring, give way by turning away from the slope (toward the valley). Both pilots should take evasive action by moving away from the ridge. Option A (diving) risks terrain collision. Option C (climbing) may not be possible. Option D (maintaining heading) leads directly to a head-on collision. ### Q87: You must land on a 400 m field with a moderate tailwind. How do you fly the final approach? ^t70q87 - A) At best glide speed and somewhat higher than for a headwind landing - B) Normally, using a sideslip - C) Slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than for a headwind landing - D) Faster than for a headwind landing **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** With a tailwind on a limited field, fly slightly above minimum speed to minimize groundspeed at touchdown, and approach at a lower height to steepen the approach angle relative to the ground. Option A (best glide speed) is faster than needed and wastes field length. Option B (sideslip) addresses crosswind, not tailwind. Option D (faster approach) would increase groundspeed and ground roll on an already short field. ### Q88: What is the effect of a waterlogged grass runway on an aerotow departure? ^t70q88 - A) The take-off distance is the same as on a dry runway - B) The take-off distance will be longer - C) None of these answers is correct - D) The take-off distance will be shorter because the surface is slippery **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A waterlogged grass runway increases rolling resistance because the wheels sink into the soft, saturated surface, creating drag that slows acceleration. This results in a significantly longer takeoff distance. Option A ignores the substantial difference between conditions. Option D's logic is flawed because waterlogged grass creates suction and drag that impede acceleration, not help it. ### Q89: On approach to an off-field landing, you suddenly notice a high-voltage power line across your landing axis. How do you react? ^t70q89 - A) In all cases, fly over the power line - B) Pass under the line if flying over is not possible and no safe escape route exists - C) Execute a tight turn near the ground and land parallel to the line - D) Pass under the line as close as possible to a pylon **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The preferred action is always to fly over the power line. However, if altitude is insufficient and no alternative exists, passing under the line is acceptable as a last resort, between the pylons where cable sag provides maximum clearance. Option A (always fly over) is not possible when altitude is insufficient. Option C (tight turn near ground) risks a stall-spin accident. Option D (near a pylon) is where clearance is minimal because the cables attach at the top. ### Q90: What is the standard spin recovery procedure when the manufacturer has not specified one? ^t70q90 - A) Push the stick fully forward, apply full opposite rudder, then pull out - B) Push the stick forward, apply ailerons opposite to the spin, then pull out - C) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite rudder, keep ailerons neutral, ease the stick slightly forward, then pull out - D) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite ailerons, push the stick fully forward, rudder neutral, then pull out **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The standard spin recovery sequence is: (1) identify the spin direction, (2) apply full opposite rudder to stop the rotation, (3) keep ailerons neutral because aileron input during a spin can be counterproductive, (4) ease the stick slightly forward to reduce the angle of attack below the stall angle, and (5) once rotation stops, centralize rudder and smoothly pull out. Option A omits identifying spin direction. Option B uses ailerons, which can deepen the spin. Option D uses ailerons instead of rudder as primary anti-spin control.