### Q1: While flying slowly near stall with the left wing dropping, how can a full stall be avoided? ^t70q1 - A) Use rudder to the left, push the stick forward slightly, accelerate, then neutralise all controls - B) Lower the nose with elevator, maintain wings level using coordinated rudder and aileron - C) Deflect aileron to the right, push slightly forward on the stick, build speed, then neutralise controls - D) Apply aileron and rudder to the right, gain speed, push the stick forward slightly, then neutralise **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When approaching a stall with one wing dropping, the priority is to reduce the angle of attack by lowering the nose with forward elevator pressure, which prevents the full stall from developing. Coordinated rudder and aileron are then used to keep the wings level without introducing adverse yaw, which could trigger a spin entry near the stall. Option A applies rudder in the wrong direction (toward the dropping wing). Option C and Option D use aileron aggressively, which near the stall can worsen the wing drop and lead to a spin, because the down-going aileron increases the angle of attack on the already-stalling wing. ### Q2: How is "flight time" defined? ^t70q2 - A) The total time from the first take-off until the last landing across one or more consecutive flights. - B) The time from engine start for take-off purposes until the pilot leaves the aircraft after engine shutdown. - C) The total time from the aircraft's first movement until it finally comes to rest after the flight. - D) The interval from the beginning of the take-off run to the final touchdown on landing. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Under EASA regulations (specifically for gliders), flight time is defined as the total time from the moment the aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking off until it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. This includes ground roll, taxiing, and the entire airborne phase. Option A limits it to take-off and landing events, ignoring ground movement. Option B refers to engine start/shutdown procedures more applicable to powered aircraft. Option D counts only from the start of the take-off run to touchdown, excluding post-landing ground roll. ### Q3: What is a wind shear? ^t70q3 - A) An oscillating wind that always occurs during storms - B) A sudden directional and/or speed change in the wind over a short distance - C) A gusty wind that only occurs in mountain environments - D) A steady increase in wind speed with altitude **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Wind shear is defined as a sudden change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance, either vertically or horizontally. It can occur at any altitude and in various meteorological situations, including thunderstorm outflows, temperature inversions, frontal passages, and terrain-induced turbulence. Option A incorrectly limits it to storms and describes oscillation rather than a sudden change. Option C wrongly restricts it to mountain environments. Option D describes a normal wind gradient, not wind shear, which by definition involves an abrupt rather than steady change. ### Q4: A winch-launched glider has climbed through the normal circuit altitude and continues upward. Shortly afterward, the pilot hears a loud bang and is pressed into the seat. What has most likely happened, and what should the pilot do? ^t70q4 - A) The winch cable broke – immediately pull back on the elevator to stop the nose from dropping - B) The winch cable broke – push the stick forward, release the cable (twice), and build airspeed - C) The parachute deployed – reduce speed and land immediately - D) The canopy opened – secure it and continue the flight **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A loud bang followed by the pilot being pressed into the seat is the classic indication of a winch cable break at altitude. The glider, still pitched up steeply, will rapidly lose airspeed without the cable pulling it forward. The immediate action is to push the stick forward decisively to lower the nose and regain flying speed, then release the cable hook (pulling the release twice to ensure separation). Option A is dangerous because pulling back on the elevator would increase the pitch angle and lead to a stall at altitude. Options C and D describe unrelated emergencies that do not match the described symptoms. ### Q5: After a cable break during a winch launch, you have enough altitude to fly a modified circuit. What must be considered? ^t70q5 - A) You must fly a standard full circuit pattern and land with the normal traffic. - B) Fly a short approach straight onto the runway regardless of wind direction. - C) You must fly a modified (abbreviated) circuit, staying close to the field and planning a shortened approach. - D) Fly the normal circuit but at maximum speed. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** After a cable break at sufficient altitude, the pilot should fly a modified (abbreviated) circuit that stays close to the airfield and results in a shortened approach. This conserves the available altitude and keeps landing options within reach at all times. Option A (standard full circuit) wastes altitude and may leave the glider too far from the field if conditions deteriorate. Option B ignores wind direction, which can lead to a dangerous downwind landing. Option D suggests maximum speed, which would consume altitude rapidly and reduce the available time for decision-making. ### Q6: During an aerotow departure, the glider lifts off before the tow plane. What should the pilot do? ^t70q6 - A) Release the cable immediately and land straight ahead. - B) Hold the glider just above the ground in ground effect until the tow plane also lifts off. - C) Pull back to climb rapidly and gain separation from the tow plane. - D) Push the nose down firmly to put the glider back on the ground. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** It is normal for a glider to become airborne before the tow plane due to its lower wing loading. The correct procedure is to hold the glider in ground effect at a height of about 1-2 metres, maintaining a level attitude until the tow plane also lifts off. Option A (immediate release) is premature and unnecessary -- this is a normal situation, not an emergency. Option C (climbing rapidly) is dangerous because pulling up would lift the tow plane's tail, forcing its nose down and potentially causing the tow plane to crash. Option D (pushing back to the ground) can cause bouncing and loss of control. ### Q7: During an aerotow, the glider gets into a position well above the tow plane. What is the correct response? ^t70q7 - A) Pull the elevator to climb above the wake turbulence. - B) Release the tow cable immediately. - C) Gently push the elevator to descend back to the correct tow position. - D) Apply spoilers and use rudder to re-align with the tow plane. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** If a glider gets significantly above the tow plane during aerotow, it enters the extremely dangerous "high tow" position. The tow cable now pulls the tow plane's tail up, pushing its nose down, and the tow pilot may be unable to recover. The only safe action is to release the cable immediately to free the tow plane from the downward force. Option C (gentle correction) may be appropriate for small displacements, but a position well above the tow plane is an emergency requiring immediate release. Option A (climbing further) worsens the situation. Option D is inadequate for the severity of the situation. ### Q8: During the launch phase, at what point should the pilot abort a winch launch if the speed is insufficient? ^t70q8 - A) At any point during the launch if airspeed is below the recommended value. - B) Only after reaching the full climb attitude. - C) Only after reaching circuit altitude. - D) Speed is not a factor; the winch driver controls the launch speed. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** The pilot-in-command is ultimately responsible for flight safety and must abort a winch launch at any point if the airspeed is insufficient for safe flight. Insufficient airspeed during the steep climbing phase risks a stall at low altitude with no room for recovery. The abort procedure involves lowering the nose and releasing the cable. Option B and Option C delay the decision, which could be fatal at low altitude with inadequate speed. Option D is incorrect because while the winch driver influences speed, the pilot must monitor and take action if speed is insufficient. ### Q9: What is the primary risk when crossing behind and below a large aircraft? ^t70q9 - A) Radio interference from the aircraft's transponder - B) Jet blast damage to the glider's canopy - C) Encountering severe wake turbulence (wingtip vortices) - D) Being pulled into the aircraft's propwash **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The primary hazard when flying behind and below a large aircraft is wake turbulence -- powerful rotating vortices shed from the wingtips that can persist for several minutes and extend several miles behind the aircraft. These vortices can roll a glider inverted or impose structural loads exceeding the design limits. The vortices descend and drift with the wind, making the area below and behind a large aircraft particularly dangerous. Option A (radio interference) is not a physical flight hazard. Option B (jet blast) is only relevant very close on the ground. Option D (propwash) dissipates quickly and is a ground-proximity issue. ### Q10: What are the symptoms of the onset of a spin? ^t70q10 - A) A rapid increase in airspeed with the nose dropping below the horizon - B) One wing drops sharply while the nose yaws in the same direction, with airspeed near or below stall speed - C) Both wings stall simultaneously and the aircraft descends vertically - D) The aircraft enters a steep spiral with rapidly increasing speed **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A spin develops when one wing stalls more deeply than the other, causing it to drop sharply while the nose yaws toward the stalled wing. The airspeed remains near or below the stall speed, and the aircraft begins to autorotate around its vertical axis. Option A describes a dive or spiral dive, where speed increases -- in a spin, speed remains low. Option C (simultaneous stall with vertical descent) describes a symmetric deep stall, not a spin. Option D describes a spiral dive, which is characterised by increasing airspeed and bank angle, fundamentally different from a spin. ### Q11: What is the correct spin recovery procedure for most gliders? ^t70q11 - A) Pull back on the stick, apply full opposite rudder, then centralise all controls - B) Apply full rudder in the direction of the spin, push the stick forward, then centralise - C) Apply full opposite rudder, pause, then push the stick forward until rotation stops, then centralise and recover from the dive - D) Push the stick forward immediately, then apply aileron to level the wings **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The standard spin recovery follows a specific sequence: first, apply full opposite rudder to stop the yaw rotation. After a brief pause to allow the rudder to take effect, push the stick forward to unstall the wings by reducing the angle of attack. Once rotation stops, centralise the rudder and smoothly recover from the resulting dive. Option A pulls back on the stick, which deepens the stall and worsens the spin. Option B applies rudder in the spin direction, which would accelerate the rotation. Option D omits the critical rudder input and uses aileron, which can be ineffective or counterproductive in a spin. ### Q12: What must be checked during the pre-flight inspection regarding the control surfaces? ^t70q12 - A) Only the elevator must be checked for free movement. - B) All control surfaces must be checked for full and free movement in the correct sense. - C) Only the ailerons and elevator need checking; the rudder is checked by ground crew. - D) Control surfaces are checked only during the annual inspection. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** During every pre-flight inspection, the pilot must verify that all control surfaces -- ailerons, elevator, and rudder -- move freely through their full range without obstruction and deflect in the correct sense relative to stick and pedal inputs. This check ensures no mechanical binding, disconnection, or incorrect rigging has occurred. Option A checks only the elevator, missing critical aileron and rudder verification. Option C omits the rudder, which is equally essential. Option D is dangerously wrong -- control checks are mandatory before every flight, not just annually. ### Q13: Before a flight, the pilot notices that the canopy does not close completely flush. What should be done? ^t70q13 - A) Fly carefully and have it checked after landing. - B) Tape the gap and fly normally. - C) Do not fly until the problem is diagnosed and resolved. - D) The gap is normal and can be ignored. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A canopy that does not close flush may have a faulty latch, a misaligned frame, or a damaged hinge, any of which could lead to the canopy opening in flight. An unlatched canopy opening at speed can shatter, potentially injuring the pilot or blocking the controls, and the sudden drag change can cause loss of control. The glider must not be flown until the cause is identified and corrected. Option A risks a dangerous in-flight canopy failure. Option B (taping) does not address the root cause and provides no structural security. Option D ignores a potentially serious defect. ### Q14: What is the purpose of the daily inspection (DI) of a glider? ^t70q14 - A) To replace worn parts before every flight. - B) To verify the aircraft is fit for flight and no defects have developed since the last flight. - C) To calibrate instruments before the first flight of the day. - D) To check fuel levels and oil pressure. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The daily inspection (DI) is a systematic check performed before the first flight of each day to verify that the glider is in a fit-to-fly condition and that no damage, defects, or deterioration has occurred since the last flight. It covers the airframe, control system, instruments, canopy, undercarriage, and release mechanisms. Option A (replacing worn parts) goes beyond the scope of a DI -- that is a maintenance task. Option C (calibrating instruments) is a maintenance procedure, not a daily check. Option D applies to powered aircraft, not gliders, which have no fuel or oil systems. ### Q15: What is the standard way to signal "take up slack" to a winch or tow-car driver? ^t70q15 - A) Waggling the rudder rapidly - B) A steady signal via a light or radio call: "Take up slack" - C) Rocking the wings up and down - D) Flashing the landing light twice **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The standard procedure to request that slack be taken up on the winch cable before launch is a specific signal communicated via a signalling system (bat signals, lights) or a clear radio call stating "Take up slack." This ensures unambiguous communication between the pilot and the launch crew. Option A (rudder waggling) is not a standard launch signal. Option C (wing rocking) typically means "all out" or is used as an airborne greeting, not for cable management. Option D (landing light) does not apply to unpowered gliders, which typically lack such equipment. ### Q16: What does the signal "all out" mean during a winch launch? ^t70q16 - A) The winch driver should stop the winch immediately - B) The pilot wants the launch to proceed at full power - C) The cable has been released - D) The ground crew should clear the launch area **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The "all out" signal during winch launch preparation is the instruction for the winch driver to begin the launch at full power. It is given only after the cable is taut (slack taken up), the pilot is ready, and the launch area is clear. This is the final signal in the launch sequence. Option A (stop the winch) would be a "stop" signal, not "all out." Option C (cable released) occurs after the launch, not before. Option D (clear the area) would be communicated separately before the launch sequence begins. ### Q17: During the initial ground roll of a winch launch, the glider veers sharply to the left. What should the pilot do? ^t70q17 - A) Apply right rudder to correct the swing and continue the launch - B) Release the cable immediately - C) Apply left rudder and right aileron to correct - D) Wait for the speed to build before making corrections **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A sharp veer during the initial ground roll of a winch launch indicates a serious directional control problem that could quickly lead to a ground loop, wingtip strike, or cable entanglement. At this early stage the glider has insufficient speed for aerodynamic controls to be effective, making corrective inputs unreliable. The only safe response is to release the cable immediately and stop the launch. Option A attempts correction but may be ineffective at low speed. Option C combines inputs that may not work at low speed. Option D risks the situation worsening before any correction becomes possible. ### Q18: What is the recommended initial action if the canopy opens during flight? ^t70q18 - A) Attempt to close and re-latch the canopy while maintaining flight - B) Immediately jettison the canopy to prevent it from blocking controls - C) Maintain aircraft control, slow down to reduce aerodynamic forces, and attempt to secure the canopy - D) Declare an emergency and dive to increase speed **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the canopy opens in flight, the first priority is always maintaining aircraft control. The pilot should then reduce speed to decrease the aerodynamic forces acting on the canopy, making it easier to close or at least prevent it from departing the aircraft uncontrollably. Once at reduced speed, an attempt to re-secure the canopy may be possible. Option A risks losing control by diverting attention at high speed. Option B (jettisoning) should only be done if the canopy is blocking controls or cannot be secured. Option D (diving to increase speed) would worsen aerodynamic loads on the open canopy. ### Q19: What is the primary danger of flying in rain as a glider pilot? ^t70q19 - A) The glider becomes heavier, improving penetration speed - B) Water ingestion into the pitot tube causes the ASI to over-read - C) Performance degrades severely due to increased drag and disrupted airflow over the wings - D) Rain always brings thunderstorms **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Rain significantly degrades glider performance because water droplets roughen the wing surface, disrupting the laminar boundary layer and dramatically increasing drag while reducing lift. The glide ratio can drop by 30-50% in heavy rain, requiring much higher approach speeds and reducing range. This performance loss can be critical during cross-country flight or when trying to reach a suitable landing area. Option A is misleading -- while mass increases slightly, the drag penalty far outweighs any speed benefit. Option B (pitot blockage) is a secondary concern. Option D is an incorrect generalisation. ### Q20: What is the correct action if you encounter a dust devil or whirlwind while flying at low altitude? ^t70q20 - A) Fly directly through it to gain altitude from the updraft - B) Avoid it by a wide margin; the turbulence can be severe enough to cause structural damage or loss of control - C) Circle around it at a safe distance to exploit the associated thermal - D) Reduce speed to minimum sink to minimise structural loads **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Dust devils and whirlwinds contain extremely violent, rotating air with vertical and horizontal velocity components that can far exceed a glider's structural design limits. At low altitude, encountering one can cause loss of control with no recovery altitude available. The only safe action is to avoid them by a wide margin. Option A is extremely dangerous -- the turbulence inside can tear a glider apart. Option C is risky at low altitude where recovery from turbulence encounters is impossible. Option D (reducing speed) actually brings the aircraft closer to stall, making it more vulnerable to gusts. ### Q21: At what altitude does supplemental oxygen become mandatory for the pilot? ^t70q21 - A) Above 3000 m (10000 ft) - B) Above 4000 m (13000 ft) - C) Above 5000 m (16500 ft) - D) Above 6000 m (20000 ft) **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Under European aviation regulations, supplemental oxygen becomes mandatory for the pilot above a cabin pressure altitude of approximately 4000 m (13,000 ft). Above this altitude, the reduced partial pressure of oxygen begins to impair cognitive function, judgment, and reaction time -- the insidious nature of hypoxia means the pilot may not recognise their own deteriorating performance. Option A (3000 m) is too conservative as the mandatory threshold, though oxygen use is recommended above this altitude. Option C (5000 m) and Option D (6000 m) are dangerously high -- at these altitudes, useful consciousness time without oxygen is measured in minutes. ### Q22: What must a pilot consider before flying near or over a large body of water? ^t70q22 - A) There is no specific consideration needed for overwater flight in a glider - B) Thermals are typically stronger over water, providing reliable lift - C) Large bodies of water are generally poor thermal generators during the day, and emergency landing options are eliminated - D) Water acts as a heat source, always generating rising air **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Large bodies of water absorb solar energy slowly and do not produce convective thermals during the daytime the way land surfaces do, so gliders flying over water lose their primary source of lift. Additionally, a forced landing on water in a glider is extremely hazardous -- gliders are not designed for ditching and will sink rapidly. Pilots must plan carefully to have sufficient altitude and glide range to reach land at all times. Option A ignores significant safety considerations. Options B and D are meteorologically incorrect -- water is a poor thermal source during daytime heating. ### Q23: What should you do if you notice another glider circling in a thermal you wish to join? ^t70q23 - A) Enter the thermal circling in whichever direction gives the best climb rate - B) Join the thermal circling in the same direction as the other glider - C) Circle in the opposite direction to increase your chances of finding the core - D) Fly straight through the thermal at high speed to avoid conflict **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When joining a thermal already occupied by another glider, you must circle in the same direction as the aircraft already established. This is a fundamental safety rule that ensures predictable, coordinated flight paths and prevents head-on encounters within the thermal. The first glider in the thermal establishes the direction. Option A ignores the established direction and creates collision risk. Option C (opposite direction) is extremely dangerous as it creates opposing traffic at close quarters in a tight column of air. Option D wastes the thermal opportunity and could still create a conflict. ### Q24: A glider pilot is flying cross-country and notices deteriorating weather ahead. What is the recommended course of action? ^t70q24 - A) Continue flying because the weather may improve - B) Climb as high as possible and attempt to fly over the weather - C) Make a timely decision to divert or land while suitable fields and visibility are still available - D) Descend to fly below the cloud base and continue on course **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** When weather deteriorates ahead on a cross-country flight, the safest approach is to make an early decision to divert or select a landing field while options are still available. Waiting too long can result in being trapped in poor visibility with no suitable landing areas, which is one of the most dangerous situations for a glider pilot. Option A relies on hope rather than airmanship. Option B risks cloud entry and loss of visual references. Option D may lead to flight in deteriorating visibility at dangerously low altitude where terrain clearance becomes critical. ### Q25: What is the correct procedure if the cable release mechanism fails during a winch launch? ^t70q25 - A) Continue climbing to maximum altitude and then try again - B) Signal the winch driver to stop by rocking the wings, then use the backup release if available - C) Cut the cable by diving aggressively - D) Continue the launch to normal altitude; the cable will separate on its own **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** If the primary cable release fails during a winch launch, the pilot should first signal the winch driver to stop by the established signal (typically rocking the wings or via radio). Then the backup (secondary) release mechanism should be used. All gliders are required to have two independent release hooks precisely for this emergency. Option A prolongs the dangerous situation. Option C (aggressive diving) risks structural damage and is not a standard procedure. Option D is wishful thinking -- the cable may not separate on its own, and the glider could be dragged into the ground near the winch. ### Q26: What must a pilot check regarding the weight and balance before flying a glider? ^t70q26 - A) Only the pilot's weight matters; everything else is fixed - B) The total mass must not exceed the maximum take-off mass, and the centre of gravity must be within the permitted range - C) Weight and balance checks are only required for competition flights - D) As long as the pilot fits in the cockpit, the weight is acceptable **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Before every flight, the pilot must verify that the total mass (aircraft empty weight plus pilot, parachute, ballast, water, and any equipment) does not exceed the maximum permitted take-off mass and that the centre of gravity falls within the approved envelope specified in the flight manual. An aft CG can make the glider uncontrollable in pitch, while an overloaded glider has reduced performance margins and higher stall speeds. Option A ignores ballast, water, and equipment. Option C incorrectly limits the requirement to competition. Option D is dangerously casual about a critical safety check. ### Q27: What should you do if you experience sudden silence during an aerotow (loss of tow-plane engine sound)? ^t70q27 - A) Do nothing; the tow pilot will sort it out - B) Pull up to gain altitude while the tow plane still has momentum - C) Prepare for an immediate release; the tow pilot may need to make an emergency landing and you must not hinder the tow plane - D) Push forward to stay in formation with the descending tow plane **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** If the tow plane's engine fails during aerotow, the tow pilot will need to land immediately, and the glider must not remain attached because it would restrict the tow pilot's ability to manoeuvre for an emergency landing. The glider pilot should prepare to release promptly and fly independently, choosing a suitable landing area based on altitude and position. Option A is passive and potentially fatal for both pilots. Option B (pulling up) would lift the tow plane's tail and push its nose down during an already critical situation. Option D (staying in formation) keeps the glider dangerously close to a descending aircraft with limited options. ### Q28: What are the dangers of thermal flying near terrain (hillsides, ridges)? ^t70q28 - A) Thermals near terrain are always weak and not worth the risk - B) Reduced manoeuvring room, turbulence near terrain features, risk of collision with the slope if the thermal weakens or collapses - C) There are no additional dangers compared to open-area thermalling - D) Terrain thermals only work in the morning **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Thermal flying near terrain presents several compounded hazards: the available manoeuvring space is restricted by the proximity of slopes and ridges, thermal lift can be turbulent and unpredictable near terrain features, and if the thermal suddenly weakens or collapses on the terrain side of the circle, the glider may not have sufficient altitude or distance to clear the slope. Additionally, other traffic (hang gliders, paragliders, other sailplanes) may be concentrated near the same terrain features. Option A is incorrect -- terrain thermals can be very strong. Option C ignores real dangers. Option D is meteorologically wrong. ### Q29: What is the correct action if the airbrakes (spoilers) jam in the open position during flight? ^t70q29 - A) Continue the flight normally; the glider will simply fly slower - B) Increase speed to compensate for the increased drag and plan an immediate landing - C) Try to force the airbrakes closed by pushing the lever as hard as possible - D) Release the airbrakes by pulling the negative-G manoeuvre **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Jammed-open airbrakes significantly increase drag and sink rate, severely reducing the glider's performance and range. The pilot must recognise the situation, increase speed to maintain an adequate safety margin above the now-higher stall speed (due to reduced lift), and plan for an immediate landing at the nearest suitable site. Every minute of continued flight burns altitude rapidly. Option A underestimates the severity -- the glider will not just fly slower, it will descend much faster. Option C risks damaging the mechanism further or causing a sudden change. Option D suggests a dangerous manoeuvre that is not a standard procedure. ### Q30: During aerotow in a turn, the glider drifts to an outward offset position. How should the glider pilot correct this? ^t70q30 - A) Release the tow cable immediately - B) Increase the bank angle slightly to move back behind the tow plane - C) Decrease the bank angle and fly straight briefly to regain alignment - D) Apply rudder toward the tow plane to slide back into position **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** When the glider drifts to the outside of a turn during aerotow, it means the glider's bank angle is insufficient compared to the tow plane's turn. The correction is to increase the bank angle slightly, which tightens the glider's turn radius and allows it to move back behind the tow plane. Option A (releasing) is unnecessary for a minor positioning error. Option C (decreasing bank) would make the glider drift further outward. Option D (rudder only) would cause a skid and is not the primary correction for lateral offset in a turn -- bank angle is the correct control input.