### Q61: In which type of airspace may a Special VFR (SVFR) flight be authorized when the ceiling is below 450 m above ground and surface visibility is less than 5 km? ^t10q61 - A) FIR. - B) TMA. - C) CTR. - D) AWY. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Special VFR (SVFR) flights can only be authorised within a CTR (Control Zone), which is the controlled airspace immediately surrounding an aerodrome. When meteorological conditions fall below normal VMC minima, ATC within the CTR can grant SVFR clearance to permit operations. Option A (FIR) is too broad -- SVFR is not applicable to the entire flight information region. Option B (TMA) is terminal airspace above the CTR, not the zone where SVFR applies. Option D (AWY) is an airway where SVFR is not authorised. ### Q62: What evasive action should the pilots of two VFR aircraft on converging tracks generally take? ^t10q62 - A) One continues on track while the other turns right. - B) One turns left, the other turns right. - C) Each pilot turns left. - D) Each pilot turns right. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Per SERA.3210, the standard ICAO evasive action for converging aircraft is that each pilot turns right, ensuring both aircraft pass behind one another and diverge safely. This symmetrical rule eliminates ambiguity about who should manoeuvre. Option A is wrong because both aircraft must take action, not just one. Option B (one left, one right) would be uncoordinated and could worsen the situation. Option C (both turn left) would cause the aircraft to converge further rather than diverge. ### Q63: What are the minimum visibility and cloud distance requirements for VFR flight in Class D airspace below 10,000 ft AMSL? ^t10q63 - A) Visibility 1.5 km; clear of clouds and in permanent sight of ground or water. - B) Visibility 8 km; cloud distance: horizontally 1.5 km, vertically 450 m. - C) Visibility 5 km; cloud distance: horizontally 1.5 km, vertically 300 m. - D) Visibility 5 km; clear of clouds and in permanent sight of ground or water. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In Class D airspace below FL100 (10,000 ft AMSL), SERA.5001 prescribes VMC minima of: 5 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal cloud distance, and 300 m (1,000 ft) vertical cloud distance. These are the same minima as for Classes C and E in this altitude band. Option A describes conditions applicable to lower uncontrolled airspace. Option B uses 8 km visibility and 450 m vertical clearance, which do not match any standard SERA values for this context. Option D omits the required cloud distance values. ### Q64: Among the airspace classes used in Switzerland, which ones are classified as controlled airspace? ^t10q64 - A) D, C - B) G, E, D, C - C) E, D, C - D) E, C **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, airspace classes C, D, and E are all classified as controlled airspace. Class G is uncontrolled airspace. Classes A and B exist in the ICAO classification system but are not used in Switzerland. Option A omits Class E, which is controlled airspace (though VFR traffic does not receive separation in it). Option B incorrectly includes Class G, which is uncontrolled. Option D omits Class D, which is definitely controlled airspace surrounding many Swiss aerodromes. ### Q65: According to the applicable rules of the air, what is the definition of "day"? ^t10q65 - A) The period from sunrise to sunset. - B) The period between 06:00 and 20:00 in winter and between 06:00 and 21:00 in summer. - C) The period from the end of morning civil twilight to the beginning of evening civil twilight. - D) The period from the beginning of morning civil twilight to the end of evening civil twilight. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In aviation, "day" is defined as the period from the beginning of morning civil twilight to the end of evening civil twilight -- roughly 30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset. This broader definition gives pilots additional usable daylight at both ends. Option A (sunrise to sunset) is too restrictive and is the astronomical definition, not the aviation one. Option B uses fixed clock times that do not account for seasonal and geographic variations. Option C reverses the twilight references, which would result in a shorter rather than longer period. ### Q66: What constitutes an aviation accident? ^t10q66 - A) Any event associated with the operation of an aircraft in which at least one person is killed or seriously injured. - B) Any event associated with the operation of an aircraft that requires the aircraft to be repaired. - C) The crash of an aircraft. - D) Any event associated with the operation of an aircraft in which a person is killed or seriously injured, or in which the structural integrity, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft are significantly impaired. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Under ICAO Annex 13, an aviation accident is defined as an event associated with aircraft operation resulting in either fatal/serious injury to persons OR significant structural damage that impairs the aircraft's integrity, performance, or flight characteristics. Both criteria independently qualify an event as an accident. Option A is incomplete because it covers only personal injury, omitting aircraft damage. Option B is too broad -- not every repair constitutes an accident. Option C (crash) is too narrow and not the formal definition. ### Q67: You wish to carry out private flights for remuneration. What formality must you complete to limit your civil liability? ^t10q67 - A) Take out a special passenger insurance policy which passengers are required to accept. - B) No formality is required since the Montreal Convention releases the pilot from all liability. - C) Draw up a declaration to be signed by passengers releasing you from all liability. - D) Issue a transport document as proof that a contract of carriage has been concluded, which limits liability for damage to baggage and for delay. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Issuing a transport document (ticket) constitutes proof that a contract of carriage has been concluded between the pilot and the passenger. Under the Montreal Convention, the existence of such a contract limits the carrier's liability for baggage damage and delays. Option A is incorrect because special passenger insurance is not the mechanism for limiting civil liability under the Convention. Option B is wrong because the Montreal Convention does not release pilots from all liability -- it caps liability under certain conditions. Option C (liability waiver) is not a legally recognised mechanism under international aviation law. ### Q68: What type of information is disseminated through an AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular)? ^t10q68 - A) Aeronautical information of importance to persons involved in flight operations concerning the construction, condition or modification of aeronautical facilities and their duration. - B) An AIC is a notice containing information that does not meet the conditions for issuing a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, or technical, administrative or legislative matters. - C) The AIC is the manual for pilots flying IFR. Its structure and content are analogous to those of the VFR Manual. - D) In principle, any information that justifies the issuance of a NOTAM and relates to flight safety, air navigation, or technical or legislative matters may be published by AIC. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** An AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular) contains supplementary information that does not meet the criteria for publication as a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but is still relevant to flight safety, air navigation, or technical, administrative, and legislative matters. It fills the gap between urgent NOTAMs and permanent AIP entries. Option A describes NOTAM-type information rather than AIC content. Option C is completely wrong -- an AIC is not an IFR manual. Option D reverses the relationship: AICs contain information that does NOT justify a NOTAM, not information that does. ### Q69: What does the aerodrome operations manual govern? ^t10q69 - A) The certification of maintenance organizations located at the aerodrome. - B) The organization of the aerodrome, opening hours, approach and takeoff procedures, use of aerodrome facilities by passengers, aircraft and ground vehicles as well as other users, and ground handling services. - C) Employment contracts, vacation entitlement and shift work of the aerodrome operator. - D) The operation and opening hours of the aerodrome restaurant and other businesses located at the aerodrome. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The aerodrome operations manual is a comprehensive document governing all operational aspects of the aerodrome: its organisation, opening hours, approach and take-off procedures, use of facilities by all users (passengers, aircraft, ground vehicles), and ground handling services. Option A is wrong because maintenance organisation certification is handled by EASA/national authorities, not the aerodrome operations manual. Option C covers employment matters unrelated to aerodrome operations. Option D covers commercial businesses, which are outside the scope of the operations manual. ### Q70: What does this ground signal indicate? (Two dumbbells) ^t10q70 > **Ground signal:** > ![[figures/bazl_10_q03_ground_signal.png]] > *Two dumbbells -- signal indicating that landings and takeoffs are to be made on runways only, but that other maneuvers (taxiing) may be carried out outside the runways and taxiways.* - A) Landing and takeoff on runways only. Other manoeuvres may however be conducted outside the runways and taxiways. - B) Landing, takeoff and taxiing on runways and taxiways only. - C) Caution during takeoff or landing. - D) Landing and takeoff on hard-surfaced runways only. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** The dumbbell signal displayed in the signals area means that landings and take-offs must be made on runways only, but other manoeuvres such as taxiing, turning, and positioning may be conducted outside the runways and taxiways on the grass or other surfaces. Option B is too restrictive because it confines all manoeuvres to runways and taxiways (that would be the dumbbell with a cross bar). Option C describes a different signal entirely. Option D introduces "hard-surfaced" which is not what this signal communicates. ### Q71: When two aircraft approach each other head-on, what manoeuvre must both pilots perform? ^t10q71 - A) Each turns left. - B) One turns right, the other turns left. - C) One flies straight ahead while the other turns right. - D) Each turns right. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Per SERA.3210(c) and ICAO Annex 2, when two aircraft are on head-on or nearly head-on courses, both pilots must alter heading to the right, each passing the other on their left side. This mirrors road traffic conventions and eliminates ambiguity. Option A (both turn left) would cause the aircraft to pass on the wrong side and could lead to collision. Option B (one left, one right) is uncoordinated and dangerous. Option C (one straight, one turns) is incorrect because both pilots must take evasive action. ### Q72: Which of the following airspaces are not classified as controlled airspace? ^t10q72 - A) Class G airspace. - B) Class G and E airspaces. - C) Class C airspace. - D) Class G, E and D airspaces. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, Classes G and E are not classified as controlled airspace for VFR traffic purposes. Class G is uncontrolled airspace, and Class E, while technically controlled for IFR flights, provides no ATC separation for VFR traffic. Option A is incomplete because it lists only Class G and omits Class E. Option C is wrong because Class C is definitely controlled airspace. Option D incorrectly includes Class D, which is a controlled airspace requiring ATC clearance. ### Q73: To which authority has the Federal Council delegated aviation oversight in Switzerland? ^t10q73 - A) The Swiss air navigation services (Skyguide). - B) The Aero-Club of Switzerland. - C) The Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications (DETEC). - D) The cantonal police forces. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The Federal Council delegates aviation oversight to DETEC (Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications), which in turn delegates operational supervision to FOCA (Federal Office of Civil Aviation, known as BAZL/OFAC). Option A (Skyguide) provides air navigation services but is not the regulatory oversight authority. Option B (Aero-Club) is a private association, not a government supervisory body. Option D (cantonal police) have no aviation oversight role. ### Q74: For which of the following flights is filing a flight plan mandatory? ^t10q74 - A) For a VFR flight over the Alps, Pre-Alps or Jura. - B) For a VFR flight that requires the use of air traffic control services. - C) For a VFR flight covering more than 300 km without a stop. - D) For a VFR flight in Class E airspace. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, a VFR flight plan is mandatory when the flight requires the use of air traffic control services, such as transiting a CTR, TMA, or other controlled airspace where ATC interaction is needed. Option A (Alps/Pre-Alps/Jura) does not automatically require a flight plan. Option C (300 km distance) is not a Swiss flight plan trigger. Option D (Class E airspace) is incorrect because VFR flights in Class E do not require ATC services or a flight plan. ### Q75: What minimum height must be maintained above densely populated areas during VFR flight? ^t10q75 - A) At least 300 m above the ground. - B) At least 150 m above the highest obstacle within a 300 m radius of the aircraft. - C) At least 150 m above the ground. - D) At least 450 m above the ground. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Per SERA.5005 and ICAO Annex 2, the minimum height over densely populated areas is 150 m (approximately 500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a 300 m radius of the aircraft. This obstacle-clearance-based rule ensures safe separation from structures and terrain. Option A (300 m AGL) does not account for obstacles. Option C (150 m AGL) ignores the obstacle clearance requirement. Option D (450 m AGL) is not the standard minimum height specified in SERA. ### Q76: Among the aircraft listed below, which have priority for landing and takeoff? ^t10q76 - A) Aircraft manoeuvring on the ground. - B) Aircraft arriving from another aerodrome that are in the aerodrome circuit. - C) Aircraft on final approach. - D) Aircraft that have received an ATC clearance to taxi. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 2 and SERA.3210, aircraft on final approach or landing always have priority over all other aircraft in flight or manoeuvring on the ground. This rule exists because aircraft on final approach have limited ability to manoeuvre and are in the most critical phase of flight. Option A (ground manoeuvring aircraft) must yield to landing traffic. Option B (aircraft in the circuit) have lower priority than those on final. Option D (aircraft with taxi clearance) must also give way to landing aircraft. ### Q77: What does this signal indicate? ^t10q77 ![[figures/bazl_101_q7.png]] - A) All runways at this aerodrome are closed. - B) Glider flying in progress at this aerodrome. - C) Only hard-surface runways are to be used for landing and takeoff. - D) Takeoff and landing only on runways; other manoeuvres are not restricted to the use of runways and taxiways. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The signal shown indicates that glider flying is in progress at the aerodrome. This is a standard ICAO ground signal placed in the signals area to warn arriving and overflying aircraft that gliders may be operating in the vicinity, including tow-launching and soaring. Option A (all runways closed) uses a different signal. Option C (hard-surface runways only) is not what this signal communicates. Option D describes the dumbbell signal, which is a different ground marking entirely. ### Q78: Who has the responsibility for ensuring that the required documents are carried on board the aircraft? ^t10q78 - A) The operator of the air transport undertaking (Operator). - B) The owner of the aircraft. - C) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft. - D) The operator of the aircraft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The pilot-in-command (PIC) is responsible for ensuring that all required documents are carried on board the aircraft before flight. This is established in ICAO Annex 2 and EASA/Swiss aviation regulations. The PIC must personally verify document compliance as part of pre-flight preparation. Option A (operator of air transport undertaking) and Option D (operator) have organisational responsibilities but the direct duty falls on the PIC. Option B (owner) may not be involved in the flight operation at all. ### Q79: Which of the following instructions regarding runway direction in use takes precedence? ^t10q79 - A) The wind sock. - B) The landing T. - C) The ATC instruction transmitted by radio from the control tower. - D) The two digits displayed vertically on the control tower. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** ATC radio instructions from the control tower take the highest precedence over all visual indicators when determining the runway direction in use. ATC has the most current and comprehensive situational awareness and may assign a runway that differs from what the windsock or landing T suggests. Option A (windsock) indicates wind direction but does not override ATC. Option B (landing T) is a visual indicator subordinate to ATC instructions. Option D (tower digits) provides general runway information but is superseded by direct ATC radio instructions. ### Q80: In the event of a radio failure, what code must be set on the transponder? ^t10q80 - A) 7000 - B) 7500 - C) 7700 - D) 7600 **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Transponder code 7600 is the internationally standardised squawk for radio communication failure. Setting this code immediately alerts ATC that the pilot has lost radio contact and triggers loss-of-communications procedures. Option A (7000) is the standard European VFR conspicuity code and does not indicate any emergency. Option B (7500) is reserved for unlawful interference (hijacking). Option C (7700) is the general emergency code, not specifically for radio failure. ### Q81: Is it permitted to deviate from the rules of the air applicable to aircraft? ^t10q81 - A) Yes, but only in Class G airspace. - B) No, under no circumstances. - C) Yes, but only for safety reasons. - D) Yes, absolutely. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 2 and SERA, deviation from the rules of the air is permitted only when necessary for safety reasons and only to the extent strictly required to address the safety concern. This is the sole legal exception. Option A is wrong because the exception is not limited to any specific airspace class. Option B is wrong because safety-driven deviations are permitted. Option D is wrong because unrestricted deviation is never allowed -- the safety justification must exist. ### Q82: What are the minimum VMC values in Class E airspace at 2100 m AMSL? Visibility - Cloud clearance: Vertical / Horizontal ^t10q82 - A) 1.5 km / 50 m / 100 m - B) 8.0 km / 100 m / 300 m - C) 5.0 km / 300 m / 1500 m - D) 8.0 km / 300 m / 1500 m **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** At 2100 m AMSL (approximately 6900 ft), which is well above 3000 ft AMSL and 1000 ft AGL, the SERA.5001 VMC minima in Class E airspace are: 8 km visibility, 300 m vertical cloud clearance, and 1500 m horizontal cloud clearance. Option A describes values for low-altitude uncontrolled airspace, far below the required minima. Option B has incorrect vertical and horizontal clearance values. Option C uses 5 km visibility, which does not match the Class E requirement at this altitude. ### Q83: By what time at the latest must a daytime VFR flight be completed? ^t10q83 - A) 30 minutes before the end of civil twilight. - B) At the beginning of civil twilight. - C) At sunset. - D) At the end of civil twilight. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, a daytime VFR flight must be completed no later than sunset. Flying after sunset requires either a night flight qualification or special authorisation. Option A (30 minutes before end of civil twilight) is earlier than required. Option B (beginning of civil twilight) is ambiguous and does not correspond to the Swiss rule. Option D (end of civil twilight) is too late -- while "day" in aviation extends to the end of civil twilight, Swiss VFR completion requirements use sunset as the cut-off. ### Q84: Are you allowed to use the aircraft radio to communicate with ATC without holding the radiotelephony rating extension? ^t10q84 - A) Yes, provided other radio communications are not disrupted. - B) No. - C) Yes. - D) Yes, provided I have sufficient command of phraseology. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Under Swiss regulations, a pilot may use the aircraft radio to communicate with ATC without holding the specific radiotelephony extension, in airspaces where radio communication is required. The radiotelephony qualification is needed for certain controlled airspaces but basic radio use for ATC communication is permitted. Option A adds an unnecessary condition about not disrupting other communications. Option B is incorrect because the prohibition is not absolute. Option D adds a phraseology condition that, while good practice, is not the regulatory requirement. ### Q85: Which type of flights may be conducted below the prescribed minimum heights without specific FOCA authorization, to the extent necessary? ^t10q85 - A) Mountain flights. - B) Aerobatic flights. - C) Aerial photography flights. - D) Search and rescue flights. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Search and rescue (SAR) flights are permitted below prescribed minimum heights without special FOCA authorisation, to the extent operationally necessary to accomplish the rescue mission. The urgency and life-saving nature of SAR operations justifies this exemption. Option A (mountain flights), Option B (aerobatic flights), and Option C (aerial photography flights) all require specific authorisation to operate below minimum heights. ### Q86: Is it permitted to cross an airway at FL 115 under VFR when visibility is 5 km? ^t10q86 - A) Yes, but only if it is a special VFR flight (SVFR). - B) No. - C) Yes, in Class E airspace. - D) Yes, but only if it is a controlled VFR flight (CVFR). **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** At FL 115 (above FL 100), the minimum VFR visibility required is 8 km. With only 5 km visibility, the VMC minima are not met, and VFR flight through an airway is not permitted regardless of airspace class or flight type. Option A (SVFR) is not applicable at flight levels -- SVFR is only authorised within CTRs. Option C is wrong because the visibility requirement applies in all airspace at this altitude. Option D (CVFR) does not waive the VMC visibility minima. ### Q87: Are formation flights allowed? ^t10q87 - A) Yes, but only with authorisation from the Federal Office of Civil Aviation. - B) Yes, but only outside controlled airspace. - C) Yes, provided the pilots-in-command have coordinated beforehand. - D) Yes, but only if the pilots-in-command are in permanent radio contact with each other. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In Switzerland, formation flights are permitted provided the pilots-in-command have coordinated beforehand, agreeing on the formation procedures, positions, and responsibilities. No special FOCA authorisation is needed. Option A is wrong because FOCA authorisation is not required. Option B is incorrect because formation flights are not restricted to uncontrolled airspace. Option D is wrong because permanent radio contact, while useful, is not a regulatory requirement for formation flying. ### Q88: What does this signal mean? ^t10q88 ![[figures/bazl_101_q18.png]] - A) Caution during approach and landing. - B) This signal applies only to powered aircraft. - C) The pilot may choose the landing direction. - D) Landing prohibited. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A red square with two white diagonal crosses (St. Andrew's crosses) is the standard ICAO ground signal meaning "landing prohibited." It is placed in the signal square to warn all aircraft that the aerodrome is closed to landing operations. Option A (caution during approach) is a different signal. Option B is wrong because the signal applies to all aircraft, not just powered ones. Option C is wrong because the signal prohibits landing entirely rather than allowing direction choice. ### Q89: Can a Flight Information Zone (FIZ) be transited without any further formality? ^t10q89 - A) Only with the authorisation of the Flight Information Service (FIS) and if the pilot is qualified to use radiotelephony in English. - B) No, it is strictly prohibited for VFR flights. - C) Only if permanent contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained. Otherwise, the rules of the airspace class in which the FIZ is located apply. - D) Yes. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A FIZ (Flight Information Zone) may be transited provided permanent radio contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained. If radio contact cannot be established, the rules of the underlying airspace class apply. Option A incorrectly requires FIS authorisation and English proficiency, which are not the actual requirements. Option B is wrong because transit is not prohibited -- it is permitted under conditions. Option D is wrong because transit is not unconditional; maintaining AFIS contact is required. ### Q90: Which event qualifies as an aviation accident? ^t10q90 - A) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which at least one person was killed or seriously injured. - B) Only the crash of an aircraft or helicopter. - C) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which a person was killed or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustained damage notably affecting its structural strength, performance or flight characteristics. - D) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft requiring costly repairs. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 13, an aviation accident includes any event related to aircraft operation in which a person was killed or seriously injured, OR the aircraft sustained significant structural damage affecting its structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics. Both criteria independently qualify as an accident. Option A is incomplete because it covers only personal injury, omitting significant aircraft damage. Option B is too narrow -- an accident is not limited to crashes. Option D is wrong because costly repairs alone do not define an accident; the damage must significantly affect structural integrity or flight characteristics.