### Q31: A transponder capable of transmitting the current pressure altitude is a... ^t10q31 - A) Transponder approved for airspace "B". - B) Mode A transponder. - C) Pressure-decoder. - D) Mode C or S transponder. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A transponder that transmits pressure altitude information is either a Mode C or Mode S transponder. Mode C adds automatic pressure altitude reporting to the basic Mode A identity code, while Mode S provides all Mode C capabilities plus selective interrogation and data link features. Option A is incorrect because "approved for airspace B" is not a transponder classification. Option B is wrong because Mode A only transmits a 4-digit squawk code without altitude data. Option C is wrong because "pressure-decoder" is not an aviation term. ### Q32: Which transponder code signals a loss of radio communication? ^t10q32 - A) 7700 - B) 7000 - C) 7600 - D) 2000 **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Transponder code 7600 is the internationally recognised squawk for radio communication failure. Pilots must memorise the three emergency codes: 7700 for general emergency, 7600 for radio failure, and 7500 for unlawful interference (hijacking). Option A (7700) is for emergencies, not specifically communication loss. Option B (7000) is the standard European VFR conspicuity code. Option D (2000) is used when entering controlled airspace without an assigned code. ### Q33: In the event of a radio failure, which transponder code should be selected without any ATC request? ^t10q33 - A) 7000 - B) 7500 - C) 7700 - D) 7600 **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** When a pilot experiences radio communication failure, they must immediately squawk 7600 without waiting for any ATC instruction, since by definition communication is no longer possible. This proactive action alerts ATC to the situation and triggers loss-of-communications procedures. Option A (7000) is the general VFR code and does not communicate an emergency. Option B (7500) signals unlawful interference, which is a completely different situation. Option C (7700) is for general emergencies, not specifically radio failure. ### Q34: Which transponder code should be set automatically during an emergency without waiting for instructions? ^t10q34 - A) 7600 - B) 7000 - C) 7500 - D) 7700 **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** In any general emergency (engine failure, fire, medical emergency, structural damage), the pilot must immediately set transponder code 7700 without waiting for ATC instruction. This triggers an alarm on ATC radar displays and activates emergency response procedures. Option A (7600) is specifically for radio communication failure, not general emergencies. Option B (7000) is the standard VFR conspicuity code. Option C (7500) is reserved exclusively for unlawful interference (hijacking) and should never be set for other emergencies. ### Q35: Which air traffic service bears responsibility for the safe conduct of flights? ^t10q35 - A) FIS (flight information service) - B) AIS (aeronautical information service) - C) ATC (air traffic control) - D) ALR (alerting service) **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Air Traffic Control (ATC) is the service specifically responsible for providing separation between aircraft and ensuring the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic in controlled airspace. Per ICAO Annex 11, ATC actively manages aircraft movements to prevent collisions. Option A (FIS) provides useful information but does not direct or separate aircraft. Option B (AIS) publishes aeronautical information documents but has no operational control role. Option D (ALR) initiates search and rescue when aircraft are overdue or in distress, but does not manage ongoing flight safety. ### Q36: Which services make up the air traffic control service? ^t10q36 - A) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service) - B) TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) - C) FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service) - D) ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service) **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 11, the three constituent units of ATC are: TWR (Aerodrome Control, handling traffic at and around the aerodrome), APP (Approach Control, managing arriving and departing traffic in the terminal area), and ACC (Area Control Centre, handling en-route traffic). Option A incorrectly includes FIS, which is an information service separate from ATC. Option C lists information and communication services, none of which are ATC units. Option D mixes emergency services (ALR, SAR) with only one ATC unit (TWR). ### Q37: Regarding separation in airspace "E", which statement is correct? ^t10q37 - A) IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic - B) VFR traffic is separated from both VFR and IFR traffic - C) VFR traffic receives no separation from any traffic - D) VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** In Class E airspace, ATC separates IFR flights from other IFR flights, but VFR traffic receives no ATC separation service whatsoever -- neither from other VFR traffic nor from IFR traffic. VFR pilots in Class E must rely entirely on the see-and-avoid principle, with traffic information provided where possible. Option A incorrectly states IFR is separated only from VFR (it is separated from other IFR). Option B and Option D wrongly imply VFR traffic receives some form of separation. ### Q38: Which air traffic services are available within an FIR (flight information region)? ^t10q38 - A) ATC (air traffic control) AIS (aeronautical information service) - B) AIS (aeronautical information service) SAR (search and rescue) - C) FIS (flight information service) ALR (alerting service) - D) ATC (air traffic control) FIS (flight information service) **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A Flight Information Region (FIR) provides two universal services throughout its entire volume: FIS (Flight Information Service), which provides weather, NOTAM, and traffic information to pilots, and ALR (Alerting Service), which notifies rescue services when aircraft are in distress or overdue. ATC is not provided throughout the entire FIR -- it exists only within designated controlled airspace (CTAs, CTRs, airways) that may lie within the FIR. Options A, B, and D either include ATC incorrectly or omit the correct pairing. ### Q39: How can a pilot reach FIS (flight information service) during flight? ^t10q39 - A) Via telephone. - B) By a personal visit. - C) Via radio communication. - D) Via internet. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** FIS is an operational service provided to airborne pilots, and the primary means of contacting it during flight is via radio communication on the designated FIS frequency. While pre-flight information may be obtained by telephone or online, the in-flight FIS service itself is radio-based. Option A (telephone) and Option D (internet) are ground-based contact methods impractical for real-time in-flight communication. Option B (personal visit) is obviously impossible while airborne. ### Q40: What is the standard phraseology to warn that a light aircraft is following a heavier wake turbulence category aircraft? ^t10q40 - A) Attention propwash - B) Be careful wake winds - C) Danger jet blast - D) Caution wake turbulence **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The standard ICAO phraseology for wake turbulence warnings is "CAUTION WAKE TURBULENCE," as prescribed in ICAO Doc 4444 (PANS-ATM). Standardised phraseology is mandatory in aviation to eliminate ambiguity. Option A ("attention propwash"), Option B ("be careful wake winds"), and Option C ("danger jet blast") are all non-standard phrases not found in ICAO-approved phraseology. Using non-standard terms could cause confusion and is prohibited in EASA airspace. ### Q41: Which of the following represents a correct position report? ^t10q41 - A) DEABC over "N" at 35 - B) DEABC reaching "N" - C) DEABC, "N", 2500 ft - D) DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** A standard position report per ICAO Doc 4444 must include: aircraft callsign, position (fix or waypoint), and altitude or flight level. Option C (DEABC, "N", 2500 ft) provides all three elements correctly and concisely. Option A lacks a clear altitude reference ("at 35" is ambiguous). Option B is incomplete because it omits altitude entirely. Option D uses the nonsensical expression "FL 2500 ft" -- flight levels and feet are never combined this way; it should be either "FL 25" or "2500 ft." ### Q42: What kind of information is contained in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? ^t10q42 - A) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces - B) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces - C) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods - D) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** The AIP is structured in three parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). The GEN section contains general administrative information including map symbols/icons, radio navigation aid listings, sunrise/sunset tables, national regulations, airport fees, and ATC fees. Option A describes content found in the ENR section (airspace, routes, restrictions). Option B describes AD section content (aerodrome charts, approach charts). Option C mixes items that do not correspond to any single AIP section. ### Q43: Into which parts is the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) divided? ^t10q43 - A) GEN ENR AD - B) GEN AGA COM - C) GEN COM MET - D) GEN MET RAC **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 15, the AIP is divided into three standardised parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). This structure is universal across all ICAO member states. Option B (AGA, COM), Option C (COM, MET), and Option D (MET, RAC) use abbreviations from older ICAO documentation structures that are no longer part of the modern AIP organisation. Only Option A reflects the current ICAO-standard AIP structure. ### Q44: What kind of information is found in the "AD" section of the AIP? ^t10q44 - A) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces. - B) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees - C) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts - D) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The AD (Aerodromes) section of the AIP contains all aerodrome-specific information: aerodrome classification, runway data, approach and departure charts, taxi charts, lighting, frequencies, operating hours, and obstacle data. Option A describes ENR (En-Route) content covering airspace and restrictions. Option B describes GEN (General) content such as symbols and fees. Option D mixes regulatory and administrative items that do not correspond to the AD section. ### Q45: The NOTAM shown is valid until... A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400 E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE. ^t10q45 - A) 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC. - B) 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC. - C) 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC. - D) 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC. **Correct: A)** > **Explanation:** NOTAM time codes use the format YYMMDDHHMM in UTC. The "C)" field in a NOTAM specifies the end of validity. The code 1305211400 decodes as: year 2013 (13), month May (05), day 21, time 14:00 UTC -- giving 21 May 2013 at 14:00 UTC. Option B misreads the date format, interpreting the month as the date. Option C incorrectly reads the year as 2014. Option D completely misinterprets the encoding. Correct NOTAM decoding is a fundamental Air Law skill for all pilots. ### Q46: A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a compilation of current... ^t10q46 - A) AIP information of operational significance assembled prior to flight. - B) AIC information of operational significance assembled after the flight. - C) ICAO information of operational significance assembled after the flight. - D) NOTAM information of operational significance assembled prior to flight. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** A PIB (Pre-Flight Information Bulletin) is a standardised summary of current NOTAMs relevant to a planned flight, compiled and issued before departure. It filters pertinent NOTAMs for the route, departure, destination, and alternate aerodromes. Option A is wrong because a PIB is based on NOTAM data, not AIP data. Option B is wrong on two counts: it references AICs (not NOTAMs) and says "after the flight" (it is a pre-flight tool). Option C similarly misidentifies the source and timing. ### Q47: How is "aerodrome elevation" defined? ^t10q47 - A) The average value of the height of the manoeuvring area. - B) The highest point of the landing area. - C) The lowest point of the landing area. - D) The highest point of the apron. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 14, aerodrome elevation is defined as the elevation of the highest point of the landing area. This ensures the published value represents the most demanding terrain height aircraft must account for during approach and departure. Option A (average of the manoeuvring area) would understate the critical elevation. Option C (lowest point) is the opposite of the correct definition. Option D (highest point of the apron) is incorrect because the apron is not the landing area. ### Q48: How is the term "runway" defined? ^t10q48 - A) Rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. - B) Round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. - C) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. - D) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 14, a runway is a rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. The three key elements are: rectangular shape, land aerodrome, and aircraft in general. Option A is wrong because runways are specific to land aerodromes (water aerodromes have alighting areas, not runways). Option B is wrong because the shape is rectangular, not round. Option D is wrong because runways serve aircraft generally, not helicopters specifically (helicopters use helipads or FATO areas). ### Q49: How can a wind direction indicator be made more visible? ^t10q49 - A) By mounting it on top of the control tower. - B) By surrounding it with a white circle. - C) By placing it on a large black surface. - D) By constructing it from green materials. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 14, a wind direction indicator (windsock or wind tee) should be surrounded by a white circle to enhance its visibility from the air. The high-contrast white surround makes the indicator easier to identify against the aerodrome background. Option A (mounting on the control tower) is not a standard ICAO visibility-enhancement method and could interfere with tower operations. Option C (black surface) is not specified in ICAO standards. Option D (green materials) would actually reduce visibility against grass surfaces. ### Q50: What shape does a landing direction indicator have? ^t10q50 - A) An angled arrow - B) L - C) T - D) A straight arrow **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Per ICAO Annex 14, the landing direction indicator is T-shaped (commonly called a "landing T" or "signal T"). Aircraft land toward the cross-bar of the T and take off away from it, making the landing direction immediately clear. Option A (angled arrow) and Option D (straight arrow) are not the standard ICAO shape for this indicator. Option B (L-shape) is used for a different purpose -- indicating a right-hand traffic circuit, not the landing direction. ### Q51: Who bears the responsibility for ensuring that mandatory on-board documents are present and that logbooks are correctly maintained? ^t10q51 - A) The air transport company. - B) The operator of the aircraft. - C) The pilot-in-command. - D) The owner of the aircraft. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** The pilot-in-command (PIC) bears ultimate responsibility for ensuring that all required documents are on board and properly maintained before every flight. This is a fundamental principle of aviation law under both ICAO Annex 2 and EASA regulations. Option A (air transport company) and Option B (operator) have general oversight duties but the direct pre-flight responsibility rests with the PIC. Option D (owner) may not even be present at the time of flight. ### Q52: Which activities may the Federal Council require OFAC authorization for? ^t10q52 - A) Only public air shows, aerobatic flights and aerobatic demonstrations on aircraft. - B) Parachute descents, captive balloon ascents, public air shows, aerobatic flights and aerobatic demonstrations on aircraft. - C) None of the activities listed above requires OFAC authorization. - D) Only parachute descents and captive balloon ascents. No authorization is required for powered aircraft. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Under Swiss aviation law, the Federal Council may require OFAC (Federal Office of Civil Aviation) authorization for all listed special activities: parachute descents, captive balloon ascents, public air shows, aerobatic flights, and aerobatic demonstrations. These activities present elevated safety risks to participants and the public. Option A is too narrow because it excludes parachuting and captive balloons. Option C is wrong because authorization is indeed required. Option D incorrectly limits the requirement to only parachuting and captive balloons. ### Q53: Is dropping objects from an aircraft in flight prohibited in Switzerland? ^t10q53 - A) No, only the dropping of advertising material is prohibited. - B) Yes, it is strictly prohibited. - C) No. - D) Yes, subject to exceptions to be determined by the Federal Council. **Correct: D)** > **Explanation:** Under Swiss aviation law, dropping objects from an aircraft in flight is in principle prohibited, but the Federal Council may define specific exceptions such as parachuting, emergency drops, or authorised agricultural activities. Option A is wrong because the prohibition is not limited to advertising material. Option B is wrong because exceptions exist -- it is not a strict absolute prohibition. Option C is wrong because there is a general prohibition in place, even though exceptions are possible. ### Q54: Where specifically is the certification basis of an aircraft documented? ^t10q54 - A) In the VFR Manual. - B) In the annex to the certificate of airworthiness. - C) In the annex to the noise certificate. - D) In the insurance certificate. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** The certification basis of an aircraft (type certificate data sheet, approved operating conditions, mass limits, authorised flight categories, and required equipment) is documented in the annex to the Certificate of Airworthiness. This annex defines what the aircraft is certified to do. Option A (VFR Manual) contains operational procedures, not certification data. Option C (noise certificate annex) deals only with noise emissions. Option D (insurance certificate) covers financial liability, not airworthiness certification. ### Q55: Your aircraft, not used for commercial traffic, requires repairs abroad. Which statement applies? ^t10q55 - A) Repair work may only be carried out in Switzerland. - B) The work must be carried out by a maintenance organization recognized by OFAC. - C) The work must be carried out by a maintenance organization recognized as such by the competent aviation authority. - D) The work must be carried out by an EASA-certified maintenance organization. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** For a non-commercial aircraft requiring repairs abroad, the maintenance must be performed by an organisation recognised by the competent aviation authority of the country where the work is done. This provides flexibility while ensuring regulatory oversight. Option A is wrong because repairs are not restricted to Switzerland. Option B is wrong because OFAC recognition is not specifically required for foreign maintenance. Option D is too restrictive because EASA certification is not always required for non-commercial aircraft maintenance in all jurisdictions. ### Q56: A well-known watchmaker has painted an aircraft in the brand's colours with a large watch on its fuselage. Is this allowed? ^t10q56 - A) Yes, if the Federal Office of Civil Aviation has given its authorization, the operation has no political purpose and the advertising markings are limited to specific parts of the aircraft. - B) No, advertising is strictly prohibited on aircraft. - C) Yes, subject to other provisions of federal legislation. The nationality and registration marks must in all cases remain easily recognizable. - D) Yes, but only if the Federal Office of Civil Aviation has given its authorization and the nationality and registration marks remain easily recognizable. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Under Swiss law, advertising on aircraft is permitted subject to other provisions of federal legislation, with only one mandatory condition: the nationality and registration marks must remain easily recognisable at all times. No special OFAC authorisation is needed for applying advertising markings. Option A imposes unnecessary conditions (OFAC authorization, no political purpose, limited placement) that are not required. Option B is simply wrong -- advertising is not prohibited. Option D incorrectly requires OFAC authorization. ### Q57: Under what conditions may a person serve as a crew member on board an aircraft? ^t10q57 - A) When that person holds a valid licence issued by their country of origin. - B) When that person holds a valid licence issued or recognized by the country in which the aircraft is registered. - C) When that person holds a valid licence issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated. - D) When that person holds a valid licence recognized by their country of origin. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** A crew member must hold a valid licence issued or recognised by the state of registration of the aircraft, in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. The state of registration defines the qualification requirements for crew operating its aircraft. Option A and Option D reference the crew member's country of origin, which is irrelevant -- it is the aircraft's state of registration that matters. Option C references the country of operation, which is also not the determining factor under ICAO rules. ### Q58: Under what conditions is it permitted to carry and operate a radio on board? ^t10q58 - A) If a radio communication licence has been issued for the radio and crew members are trained in the use of the radio. - B) If authorization to install and use the radio has been granted and crew members using the radio hold the corresponding qualification. - C) If the frequency increments of the radio are at least 0.125 MHz and crew members using the radio hold the corresponding qualification. - D) If authorization to install and use the radio has been granted and crew members are trained in the use of the radio. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** Two cumulative conditions must be met: first, authorisation to install and use the radio must have been granted by the competent authority, and second, crew members who operate the radio must hold the corresponding formal qualification (not merely informal training). Option A is wrong because a "radio communication licence" is not the same as installation/use authorisation. Option C introduces an irrelevant technical specification about frequency increments. Option D is wrong because it requires only "training" rather than a formal qualification, which is insufficient. ### Q59: What must a pilot possess to be authorized to communicate by radio with air traffic services? ^t10q59 - A) A radiotelephony course certificate and sufficient mastery of standard phraseology. - B) In all cases, a radiotelephony qualification. Aeroplane and helicopter pilots must additionally hold a valid attestation of language proficiency in the language used. - C) A valid attestation of language proficiency in the language used. - D) A radiotelephony qualification and a valid attestation of language proficiency in the language used. **Correct: B)** > **Explanation:** All pilots wishing to communicate with ATC must hold a radiotelephony qualification. Additionally, aeroplane and helicopter pilots must also possess a valid language proficiency attestation in the language used on the frequencies, as required under Swiss regulations. Option A is insufficient because a course certificate alone does not constitute a formal qualification. Option C omits the radiotelephony qualification entirely. Option D applies the language proficiency requirement universally, but under Swiss rules it is specifically required for aeroplane and helicopter pilots, not necessarily for all pilot categories such as glider or balloon pilots. ### Q60: Your ophthalmologist has prescribed corrective lenses. Which statement is correct? ^t10q60 - A) You need not do anything. A visual deficiency that is well corrected has no effect on medical fitness. - B) You are immediately unfit. - C) You must promptly seek advice from your aviation medical examiner. - D) You can simply report your ophthalmologist's decision to your aviation medical examiner at the next routine examination. **Correct: C)** > **Explanation:** Any change in medical condition, including the prescription of corrective lenses, must be reported promptly to the aviation medical examiner (AME). The AME will assess whether the change affects medical fitness and whether additional restrictions or conditions must be placed on the licence. Option A is wrong because even well-corrected deficiencies may require documentation and a medical fitness reassessment. Option B is wrong because a corrective lens prescription does not automatically make a pilot unfit. Option D is wrong because waiting until the next routine examination could mean flying with an unreported medical change, which is not permitted.