Principles of Flight
Q1: Regarding the forces at play, how is steady-state gliding flight best characterised? ^t80q1
DE · FR
- A) Lift alone compensates for drag
- B) The resultant aerodynamic force acts along the direction of the airflow
- C) The resultant aerodynamic force counterbalances the weight
- D) The resultant aerodynamic force is aligned with the lift vector
Answer
C)
Explanation
In steady (stationary) gliding flight, there is no thrust, so only two forces act: gravity (weight) and the total aerodynamic force (the vector sum of lift and drag). For the glider to be in equilibrium, these two must be equal and opposite — meaning the resultant air force exactly compensates gravity. Lift and drag are merely components of this single aerodynamic resultant; neither lift alone nor drag alone balances weight.
Q2: What happens to the minimum flying speed when flaps are extended, thereby increasing wing camber? ^t80q2
DE · FR
- A) The minimum speed rises
- B) The centre of gravity shifts forward
- C) The minimum speed drops
- D) The maximum permissible speed rises
Answer
C)
Explanation
Extending flaps increases wing camber, which raises the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax). From the stall speed formula Vs = sqrt(2W / (rho * S * CLmax)), a higher CL_max directly lowers the minimum flying speed Vs. This allows the aircraft to fly slower without stalling, which is why flaps are used during approach and landing. The maximum permissible speed typically decreases with flaps extended (not increases), because flap structures are not designed for high dynamic pressure.
Key Terms
- W — Weight — force due to gravity acting on the aircraft (W = m × g)
- rho — ρ (rho) — air density
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
- CL_max — Maximum Lift Coefficient — highest CL the wing can produce before stalling
- VS = Stall Speed
- CL — Lift Coefficient — dimensionless measure of aerodynamic lift
### Q3: After one wing stalls and the nose drops, what is the correct technique to prevent a spin? ^t80q3
DE · FR
- A) Pull the elevator to restore the aircraft to a normal attitude
- B) Deflect all control surfaces opposite to the lower wing
- C) Push the elevator forward to gain speed and re-attach airflow on the wings
- D) Apply rudder opposite to the lower wing and release elevator back-pressure to regain speed
Answer
D)
Explanation
An incipient spin begins when one wing stalls before the other — the stalled wing drops, creating a yawing and rolling moment. The correct response is to apply rudder opposite the direction of yaw/lower wing to stop the rotation, and simultaneously release elevator back-pressure (or push forward) to reduce the angle of attack below the critical value, allowing airflow to re-attach and lift to be restored. Pulling the elevator *(A)* would increase AoA and deepen the stall; pushing alone *(C)* without rudder does not stop the yaw.
Key Terms
AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q4: Which component is responsible for pitch stabilisation during cruise? ^t80q4
DE · FR

- A) Ailerons
- B) Wing flaps
- C) Vertical rudder
- D) Horizontal stabiliser
Answer
D)
Explanation
The lateral axis is the pitch axis (nose up/down). The horizontal stabilizer provides longitudinal (pitch) stability: it generates a restoring moment whenever the nose pitches up or down from trim, because its lift force changes with AoA at the tail. Ailerons control roll (longitudinal axis), the vertical rudder controls yaw (vertical axis), and flaps are high-lift devices, not stability surfaces.
Key Terms
AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q5: What can happen when the never-exceed speed (VNE) is surpassed in flight? ^t80q5
DE · FR
- A) Flutter and structural damage to the wings
- B) Lower drag accompanied by higher control forces
- C) Excessive total pressure rendering the airspeed indicator unusable
- D) An improved lift-to-drag ratio and a flatter glide angle
Answer
A)
Explanation
Exceeding VNE risks aeroelastic flutter — a self-reinforcing oscillation of the control surfaces or wings that can destroy the structure within seconds. Flutter onset speed is close to VNE. Structural failure of spars, attachments, or control surfaces may follow. The other options describe effects that do not occur at excessive speed: glide angle does not improve, drag does not decrease, and the ASI is designed to function at all normal and abnormal speeds.
Key Terms
VNE = Never Exceed Speed
### Q6: What effect does a rearward centre of gravity position have on a glider's handling? ^t80q6
DE · FR
- A) The aircraft becomes very stable in pitch
- B) The aircraft becomes less stable in pitch and is harder to control
- C) Roll control effectiveness increases
- D) The stall speed increases significantly
Answer
B)
Explanation
A rearward CG reduces the restoring moment arm between the CG and the horizontal stabiliser, diminishing longitudinal (pitch) stability. In extreme cases the aircraft can become unstable in pitch — the pilot may be unable to prevent a nose-up divergence, especially during winch launch or in turbulence. The forward CG limit ensures adequate pitch stability; the aft limit ensures adequate controllability. A rearward CG does not increase stall speed or roll effectiveness, and it makes the aircraft less, not more, stable.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
### Q7: What purpose does the vertical tail fin (rudder assembly) serve? ^t80q7

DE · FR
- A) Providing roll stability
- B) Providing pitch control
- C) Generating additional lift in turns
- D) Providing directional (yaw) stability and control
Answer
D)
Explanation
The vertical tail fin (fin + rudder) provides yaw stability and yaw control. The fixed fin acts as a weathervane that generates a restoring yaw moment if the aircraft sideslips. The movable rudder allows the pilot to command deliberate yaw inputs for coordination, crosswind correction, or spin recovery. The horizontal stabiliser handles pitch; wing dihedral handles roll stability; the vertical tail does not generate lift in the conventional sense.
Q8: In a coordinated level turn at 60 degrees of bank, the load factor is approximately ^t80q8
DE · FR
- A) 1.0
- B) 1.4
- C) 2.0
- D) 3.0
Answer
C)
Explanation
In a level coordinated turn, the load factor n = 1/cos(bank angle). At 60° bank, n = 1/cos(60°) = 1/0.5 = 2.0. This means the effective weight the wings must support doubles. Stall speed increases by a factor of √n = √2 ≈ 1.41, i.e. a 41% increase. This is why steep turns at low altitude are dangerous for gliders — the stall margin shrinks dramatically.
Key Terms
n — Load Factor (ratio of lift to weight: n = L/W)
### Q9: What is the relationship between aspect ratio and induced drag? ^t80q9
DE · FR
- A) Higher aspect ratio increases induced drag
- B) Aspect ratio has no effect on induced drag
- C) Higher aspect ratio reduces induced drag
- D) Induced drag depends only on airspeed
Answer
C)
Explanation
Induced drag is inversely proportional to aspect ratio (AR): D_induced ∝ CL² / (π × AR × e). A longer, narrower wing (high AR) produces the same lift with weaker wingtip vortices and therefore less induced drag. This is why gliders have very high aspect ratios — it is the primary design feature that maximises the lift-to-drag ratio and glide performance.
Key Terms
- D_induced — Induced Drag — drag created as a by-product of generating lift
- CL — Lift Coefficient — dimensionless measure of aerodynamic lift
- AR — Aspect Ratio — ratio of wingspan² to wing area
- e — Oswald Efficiency Factor — wing efficiency factor (1.0 for ideal elliptical lift distribution)
### Q10: When the elevator trim tab is deflected downward, what is the resulting pitch tendency? ^t80q10
DE · FR
- A) Nose-up
- B) No change
- C) The aircraft rolls
- D) Nose-down
Answer
A)
Explanation
A downward-deflected trim tab produces an upward aerodynamic force on the trailing edge of the elevator, pushing the elevator's trailing edge up and its leading edge down — this effectively deflects the elevator downward, creating a nose-up pitching moment. Trim tabs work by aerodynamic force to relieve the pilot of sustained stick forces; their deflection is opposite to the desired elevator deflection.
Q11: What does the polar curve of a glider depict? ^t80q11
DE · FR
- A) The relationship between altitude and airspeed
- B) The relationship between sink rate and airspeed
- C) The relationship between lift and weight
- D) The relationship between drag and altitude
Answer
B)
Explanation
The glider's speed polar plots the vertical sink rate (Vz, typically in m/s) against the horizontal airspeed (Vh). It is the fundamental performance diagram for a glider: it reveals the minimum sink speed (the lowest point on the curve), the best glide speed (given by the tangent from the origin), and inter-thermal cruise speeds (McCready tangents). All cross-country speed-to-fly decisions are based on this curve.
Key Terms
m — mass of the aircraft
### Q12: In straight and level flight, what happens to the required angle of attack as speed increases? ^t80q12
DE · FR
- A) It remains constant
- B) It increases
- C) It decreases
- D) It oscillates
Answer
C)
Explanation
In level flight, lift must equal weight (L = W). Since L = CL × 0.5 × ρ × V² × S, when speed V increases the lift coefficient CL must decrease to keep lift constant. A lower CL corresponds to a lower angle of attack. Therefore, faster flight requires a smaller angle of attack, and slower flight (toward the stall) requires a progressively larger angle of attack.
Key Terms
- L — Lift — aerodynamic force acting perpendicular to the airflow
- W — Weight — force due to gravity acting on the aircraft (W = m × g)
- CL = Lift Coefficient
- ρ (rho) — air density
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
### Q13: What is the function of wing fences or boundary layer fences? ^t80q13
DE · FR
- A) To increase the maximum speed
- B) To reduce weight
- C) To prevent spanwise flow of the boundary layer
- D) To increase induced drag
Answer
C)
Explanation
Wing fences are thin vertical plates on the upper surface of a swept or tapered wing that prevent the boundary layer from flowing spanwise (outward toward the tips). Without fences, the boundary layer migrates outward due to the pressure gradient, thickening at the tips and promoting tip stall. Fences confine the boundary layer to its local region, improving tip stall characteristics and aileron effectiveness at high angles of attack.
Q14: What happens to total drag at the speed for best glide ratio? ^t80q14
DE · FR
- A) Total drag is at its maximum
- B) Induced drag equals zero
- C) Total drag is at its minimum
- D) Parasite drag equals zero
Answer
C)
Explanation
The best glide ratio (maximum L/D) occurs at the speed where total drag is minimum. At this point, induced drag exactly equals parasite drag — any faster increases parasite drag more than induced drag decreases, and any slower increases induced drag more than parasite drag decreases. For a glider, this speed gives the flattest glide angle and the greatest distance per unit of altitude lost in still air.
Q15: What structural feature contributes to lateral (roll) stability in a glider? ^t80q15
DE · FR
- A) Horizontal stabiliser
- B) Vertical fin
- C) Wing dihedral
- D) Elevator trim
Answer
C)
Explanation
Wing dihedral — the upward V-angle of the wings — is the primary design feature providing lateral (roll) stability. When a gust or disturbance causes one wing to drop, the dihedral geometry increases the angle of attack on the lower wing, generating more lift and creating a restoring roll moment toward wings-level. The vertical fin provides directional stability; the horizontal stabiliser provides pitch stability; and elevator trim sets a pitch reference, not a roll reference.
Q16: How does increasing altitude affect true airspeed (TAS) for a given indicated airspeed (IAS)? ^t80q16
DE · FR
- A) TAS decreases
- B) TAS stays the same as IAS
- C) TAS increases
- D) TAS fluctuates unpredictably
Answer
C)
Explanation
IAS is based on dynamic pressure (q = 0.5 × ρ × V²). At higher altitude, air density ρ is lower, so a given IAS corresponds to a higher TAS. The relationship is TAS = IAS × √(ρ₀/ρ), where ρ₀ is sea-level density. For glider pilots, this means that at altitude, the ground speed for the same indicated approach speed is higher, and the landing roll will be longer.
Key Terms
- IAS = Indicated Airspeed
- q — dynamic pressure (q = ½ × ρ × V²)
- ρ (rho) — air density
- TAS = True Airspeed
- ρ₀ — air density at sea level (ISA: 1.225 kg/m³)
### Q17: What does the term "load factor" describe? ^t80q17
DE · FR
- A) The ratio of aircraft weight to wing area
- B) The ratio of lift to weight
- C) The ratio of drag to weight
- D) The ratio of thrust to drag
Answer
B)
Explanation
Load factor (n) is defined as the ratio of the lift generated by the wings to the aircraft's weight: n = L/W. In straight and level flight, n = 1. In a turn, n > 1 because extra lift is needed for the centripetal force. In a vertical pullup, n can exceed the design limits. The structural design of the glider is rated for specific load factor limits (typically +5.3g / -2.65g for utility category).
Key Terms
- n — Load Factor (ratio of lift to weight: n = L/W)
- L — Lift — aerodynamic force acting perpendicular to the airflow
- g — gravitational acceleration (9.81 m/s²)
- W — Weight — force due to gravity acting on the aircraft (W = m × g)
### Q18: How does increasing aircraft weight affect the best glide ratio? ^t80q18
DE · FR
- A) It improves the glide ratio
- B) It worsens the glide ratio
- C) It does not change the glide ratio
- D) It depends on the wing configuration
Answer
C)
Explanation
The best L/D ratio is determined by the aerodynamic shape of the aircraft and is independent of weight. Increasing weight shifts the speed polar downward and to the right — the best glide speed increases (must fly faster) but the maximum L/D ratio stays the same. This is why adding water ballast in gliders improves inter-thermal cruise speed without changing the glide angle — only the speed at which that angle is achieved changes.
Q19: A glider is flying at the speed for minimum sink rate. If the pilot accelerates, what happens to the sink rate? ^t80q19
DE · FR
- A) Sink rate decreases further
- B) Sink rate remains the same
- C) Sink rate increases
- D) Sink rate oscillates
Answer
C)
Explanation
The minimum sink rate speed is the speed at the lowest point of the speed polar. Any speed change — faster or slower — from this point increases the sink rate. Accelerating beyond minimum sink speed increases parasite drag faster than induced drag decreases, resulting in a higher total drag and therefore a greater rate of descent. This is the trade-off in cross-country flying: flying faster covers more ground but at the cost of increased sink rate.
Q20: What is the effect of extending airbrakes (spoilers) on a glider? ^t80q20

DE · FR
- A) Lift increases and drag decreases
- B) Both lift and drag decrease
- C) Drag increases and lift decreases
- D) Both lift and drag increase
Answer
C)
Explanation
Airbrakes (spoilers) disrupt the smooth airflow over the wing surface, reducing the pressure differential and therefore reducing lift. Simultaneously, the raised spoiler panels create a large increase in drag. This combined effect steepens the glide path dramatically, which is precisely their purpose — to allow the pilot to control the approach angle and land precisely. Without airbrakes, gliders would float long distances due to their excellent L/D ratio.
Q21: In which flight condition is induced drag greatest? ^t80q21
DE · FR
- A) High-speed cruise
- B) Diving flight
- C) Slow flight at high angle of attack
- D) At the best glide speed
Answer
C)
Explanation
Induced drag is proportional to CL², and CL is highest in slow flight at high angle of attack (where the wing must generate maximum lift per unit of dynamic pressure). In a dive or at high speed, CL is low and induced drag is minimal — parasite drag dominates instead. At best glide speed, induced drag equals parasite drag but is not at its maximum. The slow-flight regime is where induced drag dominates total drag.
Key Terms
CL — Lift Coefficient — dimensionless measure of aerodynamic lift
### Q22: What is the primary function of an elevator trim tab? ^t80q22
DE · FR
- A) To reduce control stick forces in sustained flight conditions
- B) To increase the maximum speed
- C) To improve lateral stability
- D) To prevent flutter
Answer
A)
Explanation
The elevator trim tab allows the pilot to reduce or eliminate the stick force needed to hold a given pitch attitude in steady flight. By deflecting the trim tab, an aerodynamic force is applied to the elevator that counters the natural hinge moment, allowing hands-off or reduced-force flight at the trimmed speed. This reduces pilot fatigue on long flights and allows the pilot to concentrate on navigation and thermal exploitation.
Q23: What happens to stall speed in a turn compared to straight-and-level flight? ^t80q23
DE · FR
- A) Stall speed decreases
- B) Stall speed remains unchanged
- C) Stall speed increases
- D) Stall speed depends only on altitude
Answer
C)
Explanation
In a turn, the load factor n = 1/cos(bank angle) exceeds 1, meaning the wings must generate more lift than in straight flight. The stall speed increases by the factor √n. At 45° bank, stall speed increases by 19%; at 60° bank by 41%. This is a critical safety consideration when thermalling near the ground — the steeper the bank, the closer the pilot is to the elevated stall speed.
Key Terms
n — Load Factor (ratio of lift to weight: n = L/W)
Q24: What is the centre of pressure of an aerofoil? ^t80q24
DE · FR
- A) The point where the aircraft's weight acts
- B) The point of maximum thickness on the aerofoil
- C) The point where the resultant aerodynamic force acts on the wing
- D) The geometric centre of the wing planform
Answer
C)
Explanation
The centre of pressure (CP) is the point on the chord line where the resultant aerodynamic force (sum of all pressure and friction forces) can be considered to act. Unlike the aerodynamic centre, the CP moves with changing angle of attack — it moves forward as AoA increases and rearward as AoA decreases. This movement is one reason why the CG position must remain within limits: if the CP moves too far from the CG, pitch control may be compromised.
Key Terms
- AoA = Angle of Attack
- CG = Centre of Gravity
### Q25: At what point during flight is parasite drag greatest? ^t80q25
DE · FR
- A) During slow flight near the stall
- B) At the minimum sink speed
- C) At the best glide speed
- D) At the highest permissible speed (VNE)
Answer
D)
Explanation
Parasite drag is proportional to V² (dynamic pressure). The faster the aircraft flies, the greater the parasite drag. At VNE — the maximum speed — parasite drag reaches its peak within the normal flight envelope. At slow speeds near the stall, parasite drag is minimal while induced drag dominates. Parasite drag includes form drag, skin friction drag, and interference drag — all of which grow with the square of the airspeed.
Key Terms
VNE — Never Exceed Speed
### Q26: What is the Bernoulli principle as applied to an aerofoil? ^t80q26
DE · FR
- A) Pressure increases where flow velocity increases
- B) Where flow velocity increases, pressure decreases
- C) Lift is generated solely by the deflection of air downward
- D) Drag is independent of velocity
Answer
B)
Explanation
Bernoulli's principle states that in a steady, incompressible flow, an increase in flow velocity is accompanied by a decrease in static pressure, and vice versa. Applied to an aerofoil, the air accelerates over the curved upper surface, creating a region of lower pressure compared to the lower surface. This pressure differential generates lift. While Newton's third law (downwash) also contributes to lift, the Bernoulli pressure distribution is the primary mechanism for conventional subsonic flight.
Q27: What is adverse yaw? ^t80q27
DE · FR
- A) The tendency to pitch nose-down in a steep turn
- B) Unwanted yaw in the direction opposite to the intended turn when ailerons are applied
- C) The yaw caused by rudder deflection in crosswind
- D) The yaw resulting from asymmetric thrust
Answer
B)
Explanation
Adverse yaw occurs because the down-going aileron (on the wing that rises) increases both lift and induced drag on that wing. The extra drag on the rising wing pulls the nose toward the descending wing — opposite to the intended turn direction. This is why coordinated use of rudder with aileron is essential, and why differential aileron deflection was developed as a design solution.
Q28: When does ground effect become significant? ^t80q28
DE · FR
- A) At any altitude in calm air
- B) Within approximately one wingspan of the ground
- C) Only during take-off roll
- D) Above 100 m AGL
Answer
B)
Explanation
Ground effect becomes significant when the aircraft is within approximately one wingspan of the surface. The ground physically restricts the development of wingtip vortices and reduces the induced downwash angle, which effectively increases lift and reduces induced drag. Pilots experience this as a floating sensation during the landing flare — the glider wants to keep flying in ground effect, which can cause overshooting the intended touchdown point if not anticipated.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
### Q29: What does the term "washout" refer to in wing design? ^t80q29
DE · FR
- A) The reduction of wing chord from root to tip
- B) A decrease in the angle of incidence from wing root to tip
- C) The cleaning procedure for wing surfaces
- D) The loss of lift during a stall
Answer
B)
Explanation
Washout is a deliberate design feature in which the wing's angle of incidence decreases progressively from root to tip (geometric washout) or the aerofoil section changes to produce less lift at the tip (aerodynamic washout). This ensures that the wing root stalls before the tip, preserving aileron effectiveness during a stall and making the stall behaviour more benign and recoverable. Washout is particularly important in gliders with their long, high-aspect-ratio wings.
Q30: What is the relationship between the angle of attack and the lift coefficient up to the stall? ^t80q30
DE · FR
- A) Lift coefficient decreases as angle of attack increases
- B) Lift coefficient increases approximately linearly as angle of attack increases
- C) Lift coefficient remains constant regardless of angle of attack
- D) Lift coefficient increases exponentially with angle of attack
Answer
B)
Explanation
The lift formula is:
L = CL x ½ρv² x S
where CL is the lift coefficient, ρ is air density, v is airspeed, and S is wing area. In the pre-stall regime, CL increases approximately linearly with angle of attack (AoA):
CL ≈ CL₀ + a x α
where a is the lift curve slope (typically about 2π per radian ≈ 0.11 per degree for a thin aerofoil), CL₀ is CL at zero AoA, and α is the angle of attack. This linear relationship continues until the critical angle of attack is reached, at which point flow separation causes CL to peak (CL_max) and then drop sharply — the stall.
Key Terms
- CL = Lift Coefficient
- AoA = Angle of Attack
- CL_max — Maximum Lift Coefficient — highest CL the wing can produce before stalling
### Q31: How does the flap position affect the stall speed? ^t80q31
DE · FR
- A) Extending flaps raises the stall speed
- B) Flap position has no effect on stall speed
- C) Extending flaps lowers the stall speed
- D) Retracting flaps lowers the stall speed
Answer
C)
Explanation
Extending flaps increases the wing's maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) by adding camber and, in some designs, wing area. From the stall speed formula Vs = sqrt(2W / (ρ × S × CLmax)), a higher CL_max yields a lower stall speed. This allows approach and landing at slower speeds with a shorter ground roll. Retracting flaps removes this benefit and returns stall speed to the higher clean-configuration value.
Key Terms
- W — Weight — force due to gravity acting on the aircraft (W = m × g)
- ρ (rho) — air density
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
- CL_max — Maximum Lift Coefficient — highest CL the wing can produce before stalling
- VS = Stall Speed
- CL — Lift Coefficient — dimensionless measure of aerodynamic lift
### Q32: What is the purpose of a laminar-flow aerofoil? ^t80q32
DE · FR
- A) To increase induced drag at low speeds
- B) To maximise the region of turbulent boundary layer
- C) To reduce skin friction drag by maintaining laminar flow over a larger portion of the wing
- D) To improve stall characteristics at high angles of attack
Answer
C)
Explanation
Laminar-flow aerofoils are designed with their maximum thickness further aft than conventional profiles, creating a favourable pressure gradient that keeps the boundary layer laminar over a larger portion of the chord. Since laminar boundary layers produce far less skin friction drag than turbulent ones, the overall profile drag is significantly reduced. Gliders exploit this extensively — clean laminar-flow wings are the reason modern gliders achieve glide ratios exceeding 50:1.
Q33: How does air density change with increasing altitude? ^t80q33
DE · FR
- A) It increases linearly
- B) It remains constant
- C) It decreases
- D) It increases then decreases
Answer
C)
Explanation
Air density decreases with altitude because atmospheric pressure drops and air expands. In the standard atmosphere, density at 5,500 m is roughly half the sea-level value. Reduced density means reduced dynamic pressure at a given TAS, which is why aircraft performance (lift and drag per unit TAS) degrades at altitude — the aircraft must fly faster in TAS to maintain the same IAS and lift.
Key Terms
- TAS = True Airspeed
- IAS = Indicated Airspeed
### Q34: What is the difference between static stability and dynamic stability? ^t80q34
DE · FR
- A) They are the same concept
- B) Static stability is the initial tendency to return to equilibrium; dynamic stability describes whether the subsequent oscillations damp out
- C) Dynamic stability is the initial tendency; static stability describes long-term behaviour
- D) Static stability only applies to pitch, dynamic stability only to roll
Answer
B)
Explanation
Static stability describes the aircraft's immediate response to a disturbance — whether restoring forces act to push it back toward the original equilibrium. Dynamic stability describes what happens over time: if the resulting oscillations decrease in amplitude and the aircraft eventually returns to its trimmed state, it is dynamically stable. An aircraft can be statically stable but dynamically unstable (oscillations grow), which is a dangerous condition.
Q35: What is the purpose of vortex generators on a wing? ^t80q35
DE · FR
- A) To increase the laminar boundary layer region
- B) To reduce the aircraft's weight
- C) To energise the boundary layer and delay flow separation
- D) To decrease the stall speed
Answer
C)
Explanation
Vortex generators are small tabs that protrude from the wing surface and create tiny vortices that mix high-energy air from outside the boundary layer into the slower boundary layer flow near the surface. This energised boundary layer can resist adverse pressure gradients more effectively, delaying flow separation and improving control effectiveness at high angles of attack. They trade a small increase in skin friction for a significant delay in stall onset and better aileron authority near the stall.
Q36: Which of the following factors does a pilot directly control that affects lift? ^t80q36
DE · FR
- A) Air density (rho)
- B) Wing area (S)
- C) Airspeed (V) and, indirectly, the lift coefficient (CL) through angle of attack
- D) All of the above
Answer
C)
Explanation
The pilot can directly change airspeed V (by adjusting pitch attitude) and indirectly change the lift coefficient CL (by changing the angle of attack, or by extending/retracting flaps). Air density ρ changes with altitude and temperature but is not directly controlled. Wing area S is fixed (except in rare variable-geometry designs or Fowler flap configurations). Airspeed and angle of attack are the pilot's primary tools for managing lift.
Key Terms
CL = Lift Coefficient
### Q37: In which direction does the centre of pressure move as the angle of attack increases (pre-stall)? ^t80q37
DE · FR
- A) Rearward along the chord
- B) It does not move
- C) Forward along the chord
- D) Upward, away from the wing surface
Answer
C)
Explanation
As angle of attack increases in the pre-stall range, the pressure distribution shifts such that the centre of pressure moves forward along the chord. This forward CP movement produces a nose-up pitching moment that must be counteracted by the tail — one of the main reasons aircraft require a horizontal stabiliser. At very low (or negative) angles of attack, the CP moves rearward. This CP migration is why the aerodynamic centre concept is useful: the moment about the aerodynamic centre stays constant regardless of AoA.
Key Terms
AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q38: What determines the critical angle of attack at which a wing stalls? ^t80q38
DE · FR
- A) The aircraft's weight
- B) The altitude at which the aircraft is flying
- C) The airspeed
- D) The aerofoil shape (profile geometry)
Answer
D)
Explanation
The critical angle of attack is an inherent property of the aerofoil's geometric shape — it is the angle at which the flow can no longer remain attached to the upper surface and separates, causing the stall. It does not change with weight, altitude, or airspeed. What changes with those factors is the stall speed — the speed at which the wing reaches the critical angle of attack in level flight. The aerofoil geometry (camber, thickness, leading edge radius) determines how well the flow follows the upper surface at high angles.
Q39: How does induced drag behave with increasing airspeed in level flight? ^t80q39
DE · FR
- A) It decreases continuously
- B) It reaches a maximum, then decreases
- C) It remains constant
- D) It increases with increasing airspeed
Answer
A)
Explanation
Induced drag decreases monotonically with increasing airspeed in level flight: D_induced = 2W^2 / (rho * V^2 * S^2 * pi * AR * e). As V increases, induced drag continuously falls — there is no minimum/maximum within the normal flight envelope. Parasite drag (not induced drag) has the U-shaped curve described in options B and C. Total drag has a minimum at the speed where induced drag equals parasite drag; induced drag itself simply decreases with speed.
Key Terms
- D_induced — Induced Drag — drag created as a by-product of generating lift
- W — Weight — force due to gravity acting on the aircraft (W = m × g)
- rho — ρ (rho) — air density
- V — Velocity / Airspeed
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
- AR — Aspect Ratio — ratio of wingspan² to wing area
- e — Oswald Efficiency Factor — wing efficiency factor (1.0 for ideal elliptical lift distribution)
### Q40: Which types of drag make up total drag? ^t80q40
DE · FR
- A) Induced drag, form drag, and skin-friction drag
- B) Interference drag and parasite drag
- C) Form drag, skin-friction drag, and interference drag
- D) Induced drag and parasite drag
Answer
D)
Explanation
The standard aerodynamic breakdown of total drag is: Total drag = Induced drag + Parasite drag. Induced drag arises from lift generation (wingtip vortices). Parasite drag is the collective term for all non-lift-related drag: form/pressure drag, skin friction drag, and interference drag.
- Options A and C list sub-components of parasite drag but omit induced drag or incorrectly combine them.
- Option B omits induced drag, which is a major component especially at low speeds.
Q41: How do lift and drag change when a stall is approached? ^t80q41
DE · FR
- A) Both lift and drag increase
- B) Lift rises while drag falls
- C) Lift falls while drag rises
- D) Both lift and drag fall
Answer
C)
Explanation
As the critical angle of attack is reached, flow begins to separate from the upper surface, starting at the trailing edge and progressing forward. Once past the critical AoA, the clean attached flow that generated lift breaks down — CL drops sharply. Simultaneously, the separated flow creates a large turbulent wake with very high pressure drag, so CD rises dramatically. The drag polar shows this clearly: the nose of the polar curves sharply as the stall condition is approached, with CL falling and CD rising.
Key Terms
- AoA = Angle of Attack
- CL = Lift Coefficient
- CD = Drag Coefficient
### Q42: To recover from a stall, it is essential to ^t80q42
DE · FR
- A) Increase the bank angle and reduce the speed
- B) Increase the angle of attack and increase the speed
- C) Decrease the angle of attack and increase the speed
- D) Increase the angle of attack and reduce the speed
Answer
C)
Explanation
Stall recovery requires reducing angle of attack below the critical value so that airflow can re-attach to the upper surface and lift can be restored. The pilot must push forward on the elevator control to lower AoA, which also allows the aircraft to accelerate (or the pilot applies power if available). Increasing AoA (B, D) deepens the stall. Reducing speed (D, A) worsens the condition. Banking *(A)* increases the load factor, which raises the stall speed — exactly the wrong input.
Key Terms
AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q43: During a stall, how do lift and drag behave? ^t80q43
DE · FR
- A) Lift rises while drag rises
- B) Lift rises while drag falls
- C) Lift falls while drag falls
- D) Lift falls while drag rises
Answer
D)
Explanation
This is the definitive stall characteristic: lift collapses because boundary layer separation destroys the pressure differential that generates it, while drag rises dramatically due to the large turbulent separated wake.
The lift and drag formulas show why:
L = CL x ½ρv² x S (Lift = Lift Coefficient x dynamic pressure x wing area)
D = CD x ½ρv² x S (Drag = Drag Coefficient x dynamic pressure x wing area)
At the stall, CL drops sharply (past CL_max on the CL vs. AoA curve), so lift falls. At the same time, CD rises steeply due to the massive flow separation, so drag increases. This combination (less lift, more drag) is why the stall is critical — the aircraft loses lift while simultaneously experiencing high drag that further reduces speed.
Key Terms
- CL = Lift Coefficient
- AoA = Angle of Attack
- CL_max — Maximum Lift Coefficient — highest CL the wing can produce before stalling
- CD = Drag Coefficient
### Q44: The critical angle of attack ^t80q44
DE · FR
- A) Changes with increasing weight
- B) Is independent of the aircraft's weight
- C) Increases with a rearward centre of gravity position
- D) Decreases with a forward centre of gravity position
Answer
B)
Explanation
The critical (stall) angle of attack is a fixed aerodynamic property of the aerofoil shape — it is the AoA at which flow separation occurs regardless of airspeed, weight, or altitude. What changes with weight is the stall speed (Vs = sqrt(2W / (rho * S * CL_max))), not the stall AoA. A heavier aircraft must fly faster to generate the same lift, but it still stalls at the same critical AoA. C.G. position affects pitch stability and control effectiveness but does not change the aerofoil's critical angle.
Key Terms
- W — Weight — force due to gravity acting on the aircraft (W = m × g)
- rho — ρ (rho) — air density
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
- CL_max — Maximum Lift Coefficient — highest CL the wing can produce before stalling
- AoA = Angle of Attack
- VS = Stall Speed
- CL — Lift Coefficient — dimensionless measure of aerodynamic lift
### Q45: What leads to a lower stall speed Vs (IAS)? ^t80q45
DE · FR
- A) Higher load factor
- B) Lower air density
- C) Decreasing weight
- D) Lower altitude
Answer
C)
Explanation
From Vs = sqrt(2W / (rho * S * CLmax)): stall speed decreases when weight (W) decreases, since less lift is needed to maintain equilibrium. Lower density ****(B)**** increases true airspeed (TAS) stall speed but the IAS stall speed remains approximately constant (since IAS is based on dynamic pressure q = 0.5 * rho * VTAS^2, which equals 0.5 * rho0 * VIAS^2). Higher load factor *(A)* effectively increases apparent weight (n*W), raising stall speed. Lower altitude means higher density, which slightly lowers TAS stall speed but does not significantly change IAS stall speed.
Key Terms
- W — Weight — force due to gravity acting on the aircraft (W = m × g)
- TAS = True Airspeed
- IAS = Indicated Airspeed
- q — dynamic pressure (q = ½ × ρ × V²)
- rho — ρ (rho) — air density
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
- CL_max — Maximum Lift Coefficient — highest CL the wing can produce before stalling
- n — Load Factor (ratio of lift to weight: n = L/W)
- VS = Stall Speed
- CL — Lift Coefficient — dimensionless measure of aerodynamic lift
### Q46: Which statement about a spin is correct? ^t80q46
DE · FR
- A) Speed constantly increases during the spin
- B) During recovery, ailerons should be kept neutral
- C) During recovery, ailerons should be crossed
- D) Only very old aircraft risk spinning
Answer
B)
Explanation
Spin recovery technique (PARE: Power off, Ailerons neutral, Rudder opposite to spin direction, Elevator forward) requires keeping ailerons neutral because using ailerons during a spin can worsen the rotation — applying aileron into the spin raises the inner wing's AoA (which may already be stalled) and can deepen the spin. Rudder opposite to spin direction stops the autorotation; forward elevator then reduces AoA to unstall both wings. Speed does not constantly increase in a spin — the aircraft reaches a stabilised spin with relatively constant speed and rotation rate.
Key Terms
AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q47: The laminar boundary layer on the aerofoil lies between ^t80q47
DE · FR

- A) The transition point and the separation point
- B) The stagnation point and the centre of pressure
- C) The transition point and the centre of pressure
- D) The stagnation point and the transition point
Answer
D)
Explanation
The boundary layer development follows a specific sequence: flow is divided at the stagnation point, a laminar boundary layer develops from the stagnation point rearward, then at the transition point the laminar layer converts to turbulent, and finally at the separation point the turbulent layer detaches from the surface. The laminar boundary layer therefore occupies the region from the stagnation point to the transition point. Laminar flow aerofoils are designed to push the transition point as far aft as possible to minimise friction drag.
Q48: What types of boundary layers are found on an aerofoil? ^t80q48
DE · FR

- A) Turbulent layer at the leading edge areas, laminar boundary layer at the trailing areas
- B) Laminar boundary layer along the complete upper surface with non-separated airflow
- C) Laminar layer at the leading edge areas, turbulent boundary layer at the trailing areas
- D) Turbulent boundary layer along the complete upper surface with separated airflow
Answer
C)
Explanation
The natural sequence of boundary layer development on an aerofoil runs from laminar (near the leading edge, where the flow is orderly and Reynolds number is low) to turbulent (further aft, after transition). The reverse sequence (turbulent first, then laminar) does not occur naturally. This forward laminar / aft turbulent arrangement is why designers place the maximum thickness of laminar-flow aerofoils further back — to extend the favourable pressure gradient that maintains laminar flow as far as possible before transition.
Q49: How does a laminar boundary layer differ from a turbulent one? ^t80q49
DE · FR
- A) The turbulent boundary layer is thicker but produces less skin-friction drag
- B) The laminar layer generates lift while the turbulent layer generates drag
- C) The laminar layer is thinner and produces more skin-friction drag
- D) The turbulent boundary layer can remain attached to the aerofoil at higher angles of attack
Answer
D)
Explanation
The turbulent boundary layer, despite having higher skin friction drag than the laminar layer, has more energetic mixing that allows it to remain attached to the surface against an adverse pressure gradient at higher angles of attack. This is its critical advantage: it resists flow separation better. The laminar boundary layer is indeed thinner (C is partly correct about thickness) and has lower friction drag — but it separates more easily. This is why turbulators are sometimes used on gliders: deliberately triggering transition to turbulent flow to prevent laminar separation bubbles.
Q50: Which structural element provides lateral (roll) stability? ^t80q50
DE · FR

- A) Elevator
- B) Wing dihedral
- C) Vertical tail
- D) Differential aileron deflection
Answer
B)
Explanation
Lateral (roll) stability — the tendency to return to wings-level after a roll disturbance — is primarily provided by wing dihedral (the upward angle of the wings from horizontal). When a gust rolls the aircraft, the lower wing descends and its angle of attack increases (it meets more airflow), generating more lift and creating a restoring moment back to level. The vertical tail provides directional (yaw) stability; ailerons are roll control surfaces (not stability), and the elevator controls pitch. High-wing aircraft achieve similar lateral stability through the pendulum effect of the fuselage hanging below the wings.
Q51: What is the mean value of gravitational acceleration at the Earth's surface? ^t80q51
DE · FR
- A) 15° C/100 m
- B) 100 m/sec²
- C) 9.81 m/sec²
- D) 1013.25 hPa
Answer
C)
Explanation
The standard gravitational acceleration at the Earth's surface is 9.81 m/s² (ISA value). This value is fundamental in aeronautics: it is used to calculate weight (W = m × g), load factor, and appears in all performance equations. 1013.25 hPa is the standard pressure at sea level, and 15°C/100 m is not a correct gradient (the standard lapse rate is 0.65°C/100 m).
Key Terms
- ISA = International Standard Atmosphere
- W — Weight — force due to gravity acting on the aircraft (W = m × g)
### Q52: During a sideslip, the permitted flap position is ^t80q52
DE · FR
- A) Flaps fully retracted
- B) Flaps fully extended
- C) Determined by the downward vertical component of the airspeed
- D) Specified in the flight manual (AFM)
Answer
D)
Explanation
The permitted flap position during a sideslip is always specified in the aircraft flight manual (AFM/POH). Some gliders prohibit extended flaps in a sideslip because the combination of flaps and deflected rudder can create dangerous aerodynamic couples or exceed structural limits. Others permit certain configurations. The only correct answer is therefore to consult the AFM.
Q53: An aircraft is said to have dynamic stability when ^t80q53
DE · FR
- A) It is able to stabilise automatically at a new equilibrium after a disturbance
- B) It is able to return automatically to its original equilibrium after a disturbance
- C) The rotation about the pitch axis is automatically corrected by the ailerons
- D) The permitted load factor allows a positive acceleration of at least 4 g and a negative acceleration of at least 2 g with landing flaps retracted
Answer
B)
Explanation
Dynamic stability describes the behaviour of an aircraft over time after a disturbance. A dynamically stable aircraft returns automatically to its original equilibrium (trim) after being disturbed — the oscillations progressively damp out. Answer A describes so-called "neutral or convergent stability towards a new equilibrium", which is different. Static stability (the immediate tendency to return) is a necessary but not sufficient condition for dynamic stability.
Q54: In severe turbulence, airspeed must be reduced ^t80q54
DE · FR
- A) To normal cruising speed
- B) To a speed within the yellow arc of the airspeed indicator
- C) To the minimum constant speed in landing configuration
- D) To below the manoeuvring speed V_A
Answer
D)
Explanation
The manoeuvring speed VA (or turbulence penetration speed) is the maximum speed at which full control surface deflections or severe wind gusts will not cause the structural limit load to be exceeded. Below VA, the wing will stall before the structural limit load is reached, thereby protecting the structure. In severe turbulence, speed must be reduced below V_A to avoid structural damage from gust dynamic loads.
Q55: In the ICAO standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate in the troposphere is ^t80q55
DE · FR
- A) 2°C/100 ft
- B) 0.65°C/1000 ft
- C) 0.65°C/100 m
- D) 2°C/100 m
Answer
C)
Explanation
In the ICAO standard atmosphere (ISA), temperature decreases by 0.65°C for every 100 m of altitude in the troposphere (or equivalently, 2°C per 1000 ft, or 6.5°C/1000 m). Answer B (0.65°C/1000 ft) is incorrect because the unit is wrong — this would be far too small a lapse rate. Answer C is the only correct one: 0.65°C per 100 m of altitude.
Key Terms
- ISA = International Standard Atmosphere
- ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization
### Q56: At approximately what altitude does atmospheric pressure fall to half its sea-level value? ^t80q56
DE · FR
- A) 5,500 m
- B) 6,600 m
- C) 6,600 ft
- D) 5,500 ft
Answer
A)
Explanation
Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude in an approximately exponential manner. In the ICAO standard atmosphere, pressure is approximately half the sea-level pressure (1013.25 hPa → ~506 hPa) at an altitude of approximately 5,500 m (18,000 ft). This value is important for high-altitude physiology (oxygen requirements) and for density altitude performance calculations.
Key Terms
ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization
### Q57: Density altitude always corresponds to ^t80q57
DE · FR
- A) The altitude at which atmospheric pressure and temperature correspond to those of the standard atmosphere
- B) The true indicated altitude, after correction for instrument error
- C) Pressure altitude, corrected for the temperature deviation from standard temperature
- D) The altitude read when the altimeter is set to QNH, corrected for the temperature deviation from standard temperature
Answer
C)
Explanation
Density altitude is the altitude at which the aircraft would be in the ISA standard atmosphere if the air density were the same as in actual conditions. It is calculated from pressure altitude (altimeter set to 1013.25 hPa) corrected for the temperature deviation from ISA. A temperature higher than ISA gives a density altitude higher than pressure altitude, reducing aircraft performance. Answer A describes pressure altitude, not density altitude.
Key Terms
- ISA = International Standard Atmosphere
- QNH = Pressure adjusted to mean sea level
### Q58: The simplified continuity law applied to an airflow states: In a given period of time, a flowing air mass is conserved regardless of the cross-section it passes through. This means that ^t80q58
DE · FR
- A) Airflow velocity decreases when the cross-section decreases
- B) Airflow velocity increases when the cross-section increases
- C) Airflow velocity remains constant
- D) Airflow velocity increases when the cross-section decreases
Answer
D)
Explanation
The continuity equation states that for an incompressible fluid, the volumetric flow rate Q = S × V is constant along a streamtube. If the cross-section S decreases, the velocity V must increase proportionally to keep Q constant. This principle, combined with Bernoulli's theorem, explains why air accelerates over the curved upper surface of an aerofoil, creating a low-pressure region that generates lift.
Key Terms
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
- V — Velocity / Airspeed
Q59: The aerodynamic resultant (drag and lift) depends on air density. When air density decreases ^t80q59
DE · FR
- A) Both drag and lift decrease
- B) Both drag and lift increase
- C) Drag increases while lift decreases
- D) Drag decreases while lift increases
Answer
A)
Explanation
Both lift and drag are proportional to the dynamic pressure q = 0.5 × ρ × V². When air density ρ decreases (at altitude or in high temperatures), q decreases for a given speed, which reduces both lift and drag. This is why aircraft performance deteriorates at high altitude or in great heat: the aircraft must fly faster (higher TAS) to generate the same lift, while the total aerodynamic resistance decreases for a constant indicated airspeed.
Key Terms
- q — dynamic pressure (q = ½ × ρ × V²)
- ρ (rho) — air density
- TAS = True Airspeed
### Q60: What is the name of the point about which, when the angle of attack changes, the pitching moment around the lateral axis does not vary? ^t80q60
DE · FR
- A) Centre of symmetry
- B) Centre of gravity
- C) Aerodynamic centre
- D) Neutral point
Answer
D)
Explanation
The neutral point (also called the aerodynamic centre at wing level, but "neutral point" for the complete aircraft) is the point about which the pitching moment remains constant regardless of changes in angle of attack. For a stable aircraft, the centre of gravity must be forward of the neutral point — the CG-to-neutral point distance constitutes the static stability margin. Note: for an isolated aerofoil, this point corresponds to the aerodynamic centre (at approximately 25% of the chord); for the complete aircraft, the neutral point accounts for the contribution of the horizontal stabiliser.
Key Terms
CG — Centre of Gravity
### Q61: The angle between the aerofoil chord line and the aircraft's longitudinal axis is called ^t80q61
DE · FR
- A) The sweep angle
- B) The angle of attack
- C) The dihedral angle
- D) The rigging angle (angle of incidence)
Answer
D)
Explanation
The rigging angle (or angle of incidence) is the fixed angle, defined at construction, between the aerofoil chord line and the longitudinal axis of the fuselage. It does not vary in flight. It should not be confused with the angle of attack, which is the angle between the chord line and the direction of the relative wind (and which varies in flight according to attitude and speed). The rigging angle is chosen by the manufacturer so that the wing generates the necessary lift in cruise at an aerodynamically favourable fuselage attitude.
Q62: What does the transition point correspond to? ^t80q62
DE · FR
- A) The lateral roll of the aircraft
- B) The point at which CL_max is reached
- C) The change from a turbulent boundary layer to a laminar one
- D) The change from a laminar boundary layer to a turbulent one
Answer
D)
Explanation
The transition point is precisely the location on the aerofoil where the boundary layer changes from a laminar regime (ordered flow, in parallel layers) to a turbulent regime (disordered flow, with transverse mixing). This transition is irreversible in the direction of flow: the change is from laminar to turbulent, never the reverse. The position of the transition point depends on the Reynolds number, the pressure gradient, and surface roughness — a favourable pressure gradient (acceleration) maintains laminar flow, while an adverse gradient (deceleration) triggers transition.
Q63: Geometric or aerodynamic wing twist results in ^t80q63
DE · FR
- A) Partial compensation of adverse yaw at low speed
- B) A higher cruise speed
- C) Progressive flow separation along the wingspan
- D) Simultaneous flow separation along the wingspan at low speed
Answer
C)
Explanation
Wing twist (geometric or aerodynamic) varies the angle of incidence or aerodynamic characteristics along the span, so that the stall does not occur simultaneously across the entire wing. The root (higher angle of incidence) reaches the critical angle first and stalls progressively, while the outer sections remain attached. This progressive (rather than simultaneous) flow separation improves stall safety and maintains roll control via the ailerons. The effect on adverse yaw *(A)* is indirect and marginal.
Q64: The profile drag (form drag) of a body is primarily influenced by ^t80q64
DE · FR
- A) Its mass
- B) Its internal temperature
- C) Its density
- D) The formation of vortices
Answer
D)
Explanation
Form drag (pressure drag) is caused by the pressure difference between the front and rear of a body, due to boundary layer separation and the formation of vortices in the wake. The more intense the vortex formation (unStreamlined body, blunt trailing edge), the higher the form drag. This is why streamlined aerofoils have much lower form drag than a flat plate or sphere — their progressively converging shape allows the flow to remain attached longer, reducing the turbulent wake.
Q65: The aerodynamic drag of a flat disc in an airflow depends notably on ^t80q65
DE · FR
- A) Its weight
- B) Its density
- C) The surface area perpendicular to the airflow
- D) The tensile strength of its material
Answer
C)
Explanation
The drag of a flat disc (non-streamlined body) is pressure drag: it depends primarily on the frontal surface area S exposed perpendicularly to the airflow, and on the dynamic pressure q = 0.5 × ρ × V². The formula is D = CD × q × S. The material strength, the disc's own density, or its weight do not influence aerodynamic drag — this is purely a function of shape, projected area, and flow conditions.
Key Terms
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
- q — dynamic pressure (q = ½ × ρ × V²)
- ρ (rho) — air density
- D — Drag
- CD = Drag Coefficient
### Q66: On the speed polar, which tangent touches the curve at the point of minimum sink rate? ^t80q66
DE · FR
Speed Polar:

A = tangent from a point above the origin on the W axis (McCready) → optimal inter-thermal cruise speed
B = tangent from the origin → best glide speed (best L/D ratio)
C = tangent from a point shifted to the right on the V axis → best glide with headwind
D = horizontal tangent at the top of the polar → minimum sink rate speed (Vmin sink)
- A) Tangent (A)
- B) Tangent (B)
- C) Tangent (D)
- D) Tangent (C)
Answer
C)
Explanation
On the speed polar (sink rate W vs. airspeed V), the minimum sink rate is at the highest point of the curve (least negative W). At that point the tangent to the curve is horizontal — this is tangent (D) on the diagram. Flying at this speed maximises flight time and is used when circling in thermals.
The other tangents: (B) from the origin gives best L/D (best glide angle). (C) from a right-shifted point on V compensates for headwind. (A) from a point above the origin on the W axis is the McCready tangent for optimal inter-thermal cruise speed.
Q67: Induced drag increases ^t80q67
DE · FR
- A) As parasite drag increases
- B) With decreasing angle of attack
- C) With increasing angle of attack
- D) With increasing airspeed
Answer
C)
Explanation
Induced drag is proportional to CL²: D_induced = CL² / (π × AR × e) × q × S. By increasing the angle of attack, CL increases, and therefore CL² increases, causing induced drag to grow.
- In level flight at constant speed, an increase in angle of attack corresponds to a lower speed, which further increases induced drag (D_induced ∝ 1/V²). By increasing speed (D), CL decreases in level flight and induced drag decreases.
- Parasite drag (A) varies independently of induced drag.
Key Terms
- D_induced — Induced Drag — drag created as a by-product of generating lift
- CL = Lift Coefficient
- AR — Aspect Ratio — ratio of wingspan² to wing area
- e — Oswald Efficiency Factor — wing efficiency factor (1.0 for ideal elliptical lift distribution)
- q — dynamic pressure (q = ½ × ρ × V²)
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
### Q68: How does the minimum speed of an aircraft in a level turn at 45-degree bank compare to straight-and-level flight? ^t80q68
DE · FR
- A) It decreases
- B) It does not change
- C) It increases
- D) It depends on the aircraft type
Answer
C)
Explanation
In a horizontal turn at bank angle φ, the load factor is n = 1/cos(φ). At 45° of bank, n = 1/cos(45°) = 1/0.707 ≈ 1.41. The stall speed in the turn is Vs_turn = Vs × √n = Vs × √1.41 ≈ Vs × 1.19. Therefore the minimum speed increases by approximately 19% compared to straight-and-level flight. This increase in stall speed during turns is a fundamental safety concept — tight turns at low altitude (such as on final approach) are particularly dangerous because the margin above the stall is reduced.
Key Terms
- n — Load Factor (ratio of lift to weight: n = L/W)
- VS = Stall Speed
### Q69: Adverse yaw is caused by ^t80q69
DE · FR
- A) The gyroscopic effect when a turn is initiated
- B) The lateral airflow over the wing after a turn has been initiated
- C) The increase in induced drag of the aileron on the wing that goes up
- D) The increase in induced drag of the aileron on the wing that goes down
Answer
D)
Explanation
Adverse yaw is caused by the asymmetry of drag between the two ailerons during turn entry. The aileron that rises (on the high-wing side) increases the local angle of attack, generating more lift but also more induced drag. This additional drag on the rising side creates a yawing moment towards the rising side — i.e. in the opposite direction to the turn (hence "adverse yaw"). Differential ailerons and spoiler-airbrakes are technical solutions to mitigate this effect.
Q70: True Airspeed (TAS) is the speed shown by the ASI ^t80q70
DE · FR
- A) Corrected for position and instrument errors only
- B) Without any correction
- C) Adjusted for air density only
- D) Corrected for both position/instrument errors and air density
Answer
D)
Explanation
True airspeed (TAS) is obtained from indicated airspeed (IAS) by applying two successive corrections: first, position and instrument errors (yielding calibrated airspeed, CAS), then the density correction (accounting for the difference between actual air density and standard sea-level density). TAS is therefore the actual speed of the aircraft through the air mass. At high altitude, TAS is significantly higher than IAS because air density is lower.
Key Terms
- TAS = True Airspeed
- IAS = Indicated Airspeed
- CAS = Calibrated Airspeed
### Q71: The speed range authorised for the use of slotted flaps is: ^t80q71
DE · FR
- A) Unlimited
- B) Limited at the lower end by the bottom of the green arc
- C) Indicated in the Flight Manual (AFM) and normally shown on the airspeed indicator (ASI)
- D) Limited at the upper end by the manoeuvring speed (Va)
Answer
C)
Explanation
The slotted flap speed range is indicated in the Flight Manual (AFM) and normally on the airspeed indicator (white or light green arc). It varies by glider type.
Key Terms
VA = Manoeuvring Speed
### Q72: Wing tip vortices are caused by pressure equalisation from: ^t80q72
DE · FR
- A) The lower surface toward the upper surface at the wing tip
- B) The upper surface toward the lower surface at the wing tip
- C) The lower surface toward the upper surface along the entire trailing edge
- D) The upper surface toward the lower surface along the entire trailing edge
Answer
A)
Explanation
Wing tip vortices (induced vortices) come from pressure equalization from the lower surface (high pressure) to the upper surface (low pressure) at the wing tip. This phenomenon generates induced drag.
Q73: The angle of attack of an aerofoil is always the angle between: ^t80q73
DE · FR
- A) The chord line and the relative airflow direction
- B) The longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the general airflow direction
- C) The horizon and the general airflow direction
- D) The longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the horizon
Answer
A)
Explanation
Angle of attack is the angle between the chord line and the general airflow direction (relative wind direction). It is not the angle with the horizon nor with the longitudinal axis.
Q74: In the standard atmosphere, the values of temperature and atmospheric pressure at sea level are: ^t80q74
DE · FR
- A) 15 °C and 1013.25 hPa
- B) 59 °C and 29.92 hPa
- C) 15 °C and 1013.25 inHg
- D) 15 °F and 29.92 inHg
Answer
A)
Explanation
The ICAO Standard Atmosphere sea-level values are:
- Temperature: 15 °C (= 288.15 K = 59 °F)
- Pressure: 1013.25 hPa (= 1013.25 mbar = 29.92 inHg = 760 mmHg)
Option A matches both.
- B is wrong on both counts: 59 is in °F, not °C; and 29.92 is in inHg, not hPa.
- C has the right temperature but the wrong unit for the pressure value: 1013.25 is in hPa, not inHg.
- D has the wrong temperature (15 °F is far below the standard 15 °C), although the pressure number (29.92 inHg) is correct.
Key Terms
- ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization
- hPa = hectopascal (= mbar)
- inHg = inches of mercury
### Q75: Regarding airflow, the simplified continuity equation states: At the same moment, the same mass of air passes through different cross-sections. Therefore: ^t80q75
DE · FR

- A) The air mass flows through a larger cross-section at a higher speed
- B) The air mass flows through a smaller cross-section at a lower speed
- C) The speed of the air mass does not vary
- D) The air mass flows through a larger cross-section at a lower speed
Answer
B)
Explanation
The mean camber line is the line equidistant between the lower and upper surfaces. In the figure, it is represented by line B.
Q76: In a correctly executed turn without altitude loss, why is slight back-pressure on the elevator necessary? ^t80q76
DE · FR
- A) To prevent slipping inward in the turn
- B) To reduce speed and therefore centrifugal force
- C) To prevent an outward sideslip in the turn
- D) To slightly increase lift
Answer
A)
Explanation
In a coordinated turn without altitude loss, back pressure is needed to increase lift and balance centrifugal force (load factor > 1). Lift must compensate for both gravity and centrifugal force.
Q77: When the frontal area of a disc in an airflow is tripled, drag increases by: ^t80q77

DE · FR
- A) 9 times
- B) 1.5 times
- C) 3 times
- D) 6 times
Answer
C)
Explanation
The drag equation is D = ½ × rho × V² × Cd × A, where A is the frontal (reference) area. Drag is directly proportional to frontal area: if A triples, drag triples.
- A (9 times) is wrong — that would apply if drag were proportional to A² (it is not).
- B (1.5 times) is wrong — there is no ½ factor when scaling area.
- D (6 times) is wrong — no physical basis for this multiplier.
- C (3 times) is correct because D is linearly proportional to A.
Key Terms
- D — Drag force
- rho — ρ (rho) — air density
- V — Velocity / Airspeed
- Cd — Drag Coefficient — dimensionless shape-dependent factor
- A — Frontal Area — cross-sectional area perpendicular to the airflow
Q78: Aerodynamic wing twist (washout) is a modification of: ^t80q78

DE · FR
- A) The angle of incidence of the same aerofoil, from root to wing tip
- B) The aerofoil profile from root to wing tip
- C) The angle of attack at the wing tip by means of the aileron
- D) The wing dihedral, from root to tip
Answer
B)
Explanation
There are two types of wing twist (washout):
- Geometric washout changes the angle of incidence of the SAME aerofoil from root to tip (the wing is physically twisted so the tip has a lower angle).
- Aerodynamic washout changes the AEROFOIL PROFILE from root to tip (different cross-sections are used so the tip section has a lower zero-lift angle or stalls at a higher local angle of attack).
The question specifically asks about "aerodynamic wing twist," which is the aerofoil profile change (B). Both types aim to make the wing root stall before the tip, preserving aileron effectiveness during stall.
- A describes geometric washout, not aerodynamic washout.
- C is wrong — ailerons change angle of attack dynamically, not as a permanent design feature.
- D is wrong — dihedral is a separate concept (wing angled upward for lateral stability).
Key Terms
- Washout — wing twist that reduces lift at the tip to delay tip stall
- Geometric washout — same profile, twisted to lower incidence at the tip
- Aerodynamic washout — different profiles from root to tip
- Dihedral — upward angle of the wing from root to tip for lateral stability
Q79: What is the average value of gravitational acceleration at the Earth's surface? ^t80q79
DE · FR
- A) 1013.25 hPa
- B) 15° C/100 m
- C) 9.81 m/sec²
- D) 100 m/sec²
Answer
C)
Explanation
Standard gravitational acceleration at Earth's surface is 9.81 m/s². This is the ISA value used in all performance calculations.
Key Terms
ISA = International Standard Atmosphere
### Q80: The speed displayed on the airspeed indicator (ASI) is a measurement of: ^t80q80
DE · FR
- A) Total pressure in an aneroid capsule
- B) The difference between static pressure and total pressure
- C) Static pressure around an aneroid capsule
- D) The weathervane effect, where pressure decreases
Answer
B)
Explanation
Airspeed indicator reading is based on the difference between static pressure and total pressure (dynamic pressure). The ASI measures this difference via the Pitot tube and static port.
Q81: The horizontal and vertical stabilisers serve in particular to: ^t80q81

DE · FR
- A) Control the aircraft around its longitudinal axis
- B) Reduce the formation of wing tip vortices
- C) Stabilise the aircraft in flight
- D) Reduce air resistance
Answer
C)
Explanation
The horizontal and vertical stabilizers serve primarily to stabilize the aircraft in flight (longitudinal and directional stability). Without them, the aircraft would be unstable.
Q82: When slotted flaps are extended, airflow separation: ^t80q82
DE · FR
- A) Occurs at the same speed as before extending the flaps
- B) Occurs at a higher speed
- C) None of the answers is correct
- D) Occurs at a lower speed
Answer
D)
Explanation
When extending slotted flaps, airflow separation occurs at a lower speed, because flaps increase the maximum lift coefficient (CL max). Stall speed decreases.
Key Terms
CL = Lift Coefficient
### Q83: The aerodynamic centre of an aerofoil in an airflow is the point of application of: ^t80q83
DE · FR
- A) The weight
- B) The resultant of all pressure forces acting on the aerofoil
- C) The tyre pressure on the runway
- D) The airflow at the leading edge
Answer
B)
Explanation
The aerodynamic centre (or centre of pressure) is the point where the resultant of all aerodynamic pressure forces (lift + drag) acts on the aerofoil. It lies on the chord line, typically near the quarter-chord point (~25% of chord from the leading edge).
- A (weight) acts at the centre of gravity, not the aerodynamic centre.
- C (tyre pressure) is irrelevant to aerodynamics.
- D (airflow at the leading edge) describes the stagnation point, not the aerodynamic centre.
Q84: Pressures are expressed in: ^t80q84
DE · FR
- A) Pa, psi, g
- B) Bar, Pa, m/sec²
- C) Bar, psi, Pa
- D) Bar, psi, a(Alpha)
Answer
C)
Explanation
Pressures are expressed in bar, psi (pounds per square inch) and Pa (Pascal). g is an acceleration, not a pressure. Alpha (a) is not a pressure unit.
Q85: TAS (True Air Speed) is the speed of: ^t80q85
DE · FR
- A) The aircraft relative to the ground
- B) The aircraft relative to the surrounding air mass
- C) The aircraft relative to the air, corrected for wind component and atmospheric pressure
- D) The reading on the airspeed indicator (ASI)
Answer
B)
Explanation
TAS (True Air Speed) is the aircraft's speed relative to the surrounding air mass. It is the actual speed through the air, corrected for atmospheric density.
Key Terms
TAS = True Airspeed
### Q86: Yaw stability of an aircraft is provided by: ^t80q86
DE · FR
- A) Leading edge slats
- B) The horizontal stabiliser
- C) The fin (vertical stabiliser)
- D) Wing dihedral
Answer
C)
Explanation
Yaw stability is provided by the fin (vertical stabilizer/rudder). Wing sweep contributes to roll stability, not yaw.
Q87: The trailing edge flap shown below is a: ^t80q87
DE · FR

- A) Fowler
- B) Split Flap
- C) Slotted Flap
- D) Plain Flap
Answer
C)
Explanation
The flap shown, extending from the wing with a slot, is a Slotted Flap. The slot channels air from the lower to upper surface, delaying separation.
Q88: The risk of airflow separation on the wing occurs mainly: ^t80q88
DE · FR
- A) In straight climbing flight at high speed, in atmospheric turbulence
- B) In calm air, in gliding flight, at the minimum authorised speed
- C) During an abrupt pull-out after a dive
- D) In straight level cruise flight, in atmospheric turbulence
Answer
C)
Explanation
The risk of stall/separation appears mainly during an abrupt pull-out after a dive, as the angle of attack increases very rapidly and can exceed the critical angle before the pilot can react.
Q89: The drag of a body in an airflow depends notably on: ^t80q89
DE · FR
- A) The mass of the body
- B) The chemical composition of the body
- C) The density of the air
- D) The density of the body
Answer
C)
Explanation
Aerodynamic drag depends notably on air density (ρ), since F_D = Cd × 0.5 × ρ × v² × A. The body's own density, chemical composition, and mass do not directly affect aerodynamic drag.
Key Terms
- ρ (rho) — air density
ρ (rho) — air density
Q90: In the drawing below, the aerofoil chord is represented by: ^t80q90
DE · FR

Answer
C)
Explanation
The chord line is the straight line connecting the leading edge to the trailing edge. In the figure, it is represented by H.
Q91: The angle of attack of an aerofoil is always measured between: ^t80q91
DE · FR
- A) The chord line and the direction of the relative airflow
- B) The longitudinal axis and the general airflow direction
- C) The longitudinal axis and the horizon
- D) It varies depending on the pilot's weight
Answer
A)
Explanation
The angle of attack (AoA) is defined as the angle between the chord line and the direction of the undisturbed relative airflow, making A correct.
- Option B is wrong because the longitudinal axis is a structural reference, not an aerodynamic one; AoA is measured from the chord line.
- Option C confuses AoA with pitch attitude, which relates the longitudinal axis to the horizon.
- Option D is nonsensical — AoA is a geometric and aerodynamic property entirely independent of the pilot's weight.
Key Terms
AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q92: Given equal frontal area and equal airflow speed, what determines the drag of a body? ^t80q92
DE · FR
- A) Its weight
- B) Its density
- C) Its shape
- D) The position of its centre of gravity
Answer
C)
Explanation
When frontal area and airspeed are held constant, the remaining variable in the drag equation D = CD × 0.5 × rho × V² × S is the drag coefficient CD, which is determined entirely by the body's shape. A streamlined shape produces far less drag than a blunt one.
- Options A and B are wrong because weight and material density have no direct aerodynamic effect — drag depends on external geometry, not internal mass distribution.
- Option D is incorrect because the centre of gravity affects stability, not the aerodynamic drag coefficient.
Key Terms
- D — Drag
- CD = Drag Coefficient
- rho — ρ (rho) — air density
- S — Wing Area — total planform area of the wings
### Q93: What is the origin of induced drag on a wing? ^t80q93
DE · FR
- A) The angle formed at the wing-fuselage junction
- B) Airspeed
- C) Pressure equalisation from the lower surface toward the upper surface
- D) Pressure equalisation from the upper surface toward the lower surface
Answer
C)
Explanation
Induced drag originates from the pressure difference between the lower (high pressure) and upper (low pressure) wing surfaces. At the wingtips, air flows from the high-pressure lower surface around to the low-pressure upper surface, forming trailing vortices that tilt the lift vector rearward, creating induced drag.
Option D reverses the flow direction — air moves from high to low pressure, not the other way.
Option A describes interference drag at the wing root, and option B is too vague — airspeed alone is not the origin of induced drag.
Q94: What is the sea-level pressure in the ICAO standard atmosphere? ^t80q94
DE · FR
- A) 29.92 hPa
- B) 1012.35 hPa
- C) 1013.25 hPa
- D) It depends on latitude
Answer
C)
Explanation
The ICAO International Standard Atmosphere defines sea-level pressure as exactly 1013.25 hPa (hectopascals).
- Option A gives 29.92, which is the equivalent value in inches of mercury (inHg), not hPa — 29.92 hPa would be an absurdly low pressure.
- Option B (1012.35 hPa) is simply incorrect.
- Option D is wrong because the ISA is a standardized model that does not vary with latitude, even though real atmospheric pressure does.
Key Terms
- ISA = International Standard Atmosphere
- ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization
### Q95: In the aerofoil diagram below, which line represents the mean camber line? ^t80q95
DE · FR

Answer
B)
Explanation
The mean camber line is the locus of points equidistant between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil, representing the profile's curvature. In this diagram, line B corresponds to this curved reference line.
- Options A, C, and D represent other aerofoil features such as the chord line, thickness distribution, or surface contours, not the mean camber line.
Q96: In a level turn without sideslip or altitude loss, why is back pressure on the elevator necessary? ^t80q96
DE · FR
- A) To prevent an inward slip during the turn
- B) To slow down and reduce centrifugal force
- C) To prevent an outward skid during the turn
- D) To increase lift so it balances both weight and centrifugal force
Answer
D)
Explanation
In a banked turn at constant altitude, the load factor exceeds 1 because lift must counterbalance both the aircraft's weight and provide the centripetal force for the curved flight path. Back pressure on the elevator increases the angle of attack and thus total lift to meet this requirement.
- Option A is wrong because slips are corrected with rudder, not elevator.
- Option B is incorrect — the purpose is not to slow down.
- Option C is also wrong because skid prevention is a rudder function, not an elevator function.
Q97: A wing stall occurs: ^t80q97
DE · FR
- A) At the red radial line on the airspeed indicator
- B) When a critical angle of attack is exceeded
- C) Following a reduction in engine power
- D) Only when the nose is pitched excessively above the horizon
Answer
B)
Explanation
A stall occurs when the wing's angle of attack exceeds the critical value (typically around 15-18 degrees), causing flow separation from the upper surface and a sudden loss of lift. This is a fundamental aerodynamic principle independent of airspeed or attitude.
- Option A is wrong because the red line (VNE) relates to structural speed limits, not stall.
- Option C is incorrect — reducing power alone does not cause a stall if AoA remains below critical.
- Option D is false because a stall can occur at any pitch attitude or airspeed, as long as the critical AoA is exceeded.
Key Terms
- VNE = Never Exceed Speed
- AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q98: At what condition does airflow separation from an aerofoil occur? ^t80q98
DE · FR
- A) Only at a specific aircraft altitude
- B) Only at a given nose position relative to the horizon
- C) Simultaneously across the entire span
- D) At a specific angle of attack
Answer
D)
Explanation
Airflow separation occurs when the angle of attack reaches the critical stall angle, which is a fixed aerodynamic property of the aerofoil shape.
- Option A is wrong because stall AoA is independent of altitude.
- Option B confuses pitch attitude with angle of attack — a wing can stall at any nose position.
- Option C is incorrect because, thanks to wing design features like washout, the stall typically progresses from root to tip rather than occurring simultaneously across the entire span.
Key Terms
AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q99: What is the mean gravitational acceleration at the surface of the Earth? ^t80q99
DE · FR
- A) 9.81 m/sec2
- B) 100 m/sec2
- C) 1013.5 hPa
- D) 15° C/100 m
Answer
A)
Explanation
The standard gravitational acceleration at sea level is 9.81 m/s², used throughout aviation for weight, load factor, and performance calculations.
- Option B (100 m/s²) is roughly ten times too large.
- Option C (1013.5 hPa) is a pressure value close to the ISA sea-level pressure, not an acceleration.
- Option D (15°C/100 m) resembles a temperature lapse rate format but is far too high — the ISA lapse rate is 0.65°C per 100 m.
Key Terms
ISA = International Standard Atmosphere
### Q100: True Airspeed (TAS) is obtained from the airspeed indicator (ASI) reading by: ^t80q100
DE · FR
- A) No corrections at all
- B) Correcting for position and instrument errors
- C) Applying corrections for both position/instrument errors and atmospheric density
- D) Adjusting for atmospheric density alone
Answer
C)
Explanation
TAS is derived from the ASI reading (IAS) through two successive corrections: first, position and instrument errors are removed to obtain calibrated airspeed (CAS), then a density correction accounts for the difference between actual air density and ISA sea-level density.
- Option A is wrong because uncorrected IAS does not equal TAS.
- Option B yields only CAS, not TAS.
- Option D omits the instrument/position error correction, which is always the first step.
Key Terms
- TAS = True Airspeed
- IAS = Indicated Airspeed
- CAS = Calibrated Airspeed
- ISA = International Standard Atmosphere
### Q101: A shift of the centre of gravity is caused by: ^t80q101
DE · FR
- A) Changing the angle of attack
- B) Moving the load
- C) Changing the angle of incidence
- D) Changing the position of the aerodynamic centre
Answer
B)
Explanation
The centre of gravity (CG) is determined by the distribution of mass within the aircraft, so only physically moving mass — such as shifting ballast, passengers, or baggage — changes it.
- Option A is wrong because changing angle of attack alters aerodynamic forces, not mass distribution.
- Option C is incorrect because the angle of incidence is a fixed structural dimension.
- Option D is wrong because the aerodynamic centre is a property of the wing shape, not of the aircraft's mass distribution.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
### Q102: The high-lift device shown in the diagram is a: ^t80q102
DE · FR

- A) Plain Flap
- B) Split Flap
- C) Slotted Flap
- D) Fowler
Answer
D)
Explanation
A Fowler flap moves rearward and downward, simultaneously increasing both wing area and camber, making it the most effective type of trailing-edge flap. The diagram shows this characteristic rearward extension.
- A plain flap (A) simply hinges downward without moving aft.
- A split flap (B) deflects only the lower surface panel.
- A slotted flap (C) opens a gap but does not significantly increase wing area like the Fowler design.
Q103: The resultant of all aerodynamic forces on a wing profile acts through the: ^t80q103
DE · FR
- A) Centre of gravity
- B) Stagnation point
- C) Aerodynamic centre
- D) Centre of symmetry
Answer
C)
Explanation
The aerodynamic centre is the point on the aerofoil through which the resultant of all aerodynamic pressure forces (lift and drag combined) is considered to act, and about which the pitching moment coefficient remains approximately constant with changes in angle of attack, located near the quarter-chord point.
- Option A is wrong because the centre of gravity is where weight acts, not aerodynamic forces.
- Option B is incorrect because the stagnation point is where airflow velocity is zero at the leading edge.
- Option D is not a standard aerodynamic term.
Q104: At approximately what altitude is the air density half of its sea-level value? ^t80q104
DE · FR
- A) 2,000 ft
- B) 20,000 metres
- C) 2,000 metres
- D) 6,600 metres
Answer
D)
Explanation
In the ICAO standard atmosphere, air density decreases approximately exponentially with altitude and reaches half its sea-level value at roughly 6,600 m (about 21,600 ft).
- Option A (2,000 ft) is far too low — density barely changes at that altitude.
- Option B (20,000 m) is in the stratosphere, where density is far below half.
- Option C (2,000 m) is also too low — density there is still about 80% of the sea-level value.
Key Terms
ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization
### Q105: The airspeed indicator (ASI) reading is based on a measurement of: ^t80q105
DE · FR
- A) The weathervane effect where pressure decreases
- B) The difference between total pressure and static pressure
- C) Total pressure in an aneroid capsule
- D) Static pressure around an aneroid capsule
Answer
B)
Explanation
The ASI measures dynamic pressure, which is the difference between total (pitot) pressure and static pressure: q = ptotal - pstatic = 0.5 × rho × V². This differential measurement directly indicates airspeed.
- Option A is nonsensical — a weathervane measures wind direction, not pressure.
- Option C is wrong because measuring only total pressure without subtracting static pressure gives no speed information.
- Option D is also incorrect because static pressure alone tells you only about altitude, not airspeed.
Key Terms
- q — dynamic pressure (q = ½ × ρ × V²)
- rho — ρ (rho) — air density
- D — Drag
### Q106: Roll stability is influenced by: ^t80q106
DE · FR
- A) The use of leading edge slats
- B) Rotations around the lateral axis
- C) The action of the horizontal stabiliser
- D) Wing sweep and dihedral
Answer
D)
Explanation
Roll (lateral) stability — the tendency to return to wings-level after a disturbance — is primarily provided by wing dihedral and wing sweep, both of which create restoring roll moments when the aircraft sideslips after a bank disturbance.
- Option A is wrong because leading-edge slats are high-lift devices that delay stall, not stability features.
- Option B describes pitch motion, not roll stability.
- Option C is incorrect because the horizontal stabiliser provides pitch (longitudinal) stability, not roll stability.
Q107: The speed range for operating slotted flaps: ^t80q107
DE · FR
- A) Is without any upper limit
- B) Is limited at the upper end by the manoeuvring speed
- C) Is published in the Flight Manual (AFM)
- D) Is limited at the lower end by the red radial line on the ASI
Answer
C)
Explanation
The permitted speed range for flap operation varies between aircraft types and is always specified in the Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM), typically also indicated on the ASI as a white arc.
- Option A is dangerously wrong — flaps have structural speed limits.
- Option B is incorrect because the upper flap speed (VFE) is typically different from the manoeuvring speed (VA).
- Option D is wrong because the red radial line is VNE (never-exceed speed), which has nothing to do with the lower flap speed limit.
Key Terms
- VA = Manoeuvring Speed
- VNE = Never Exceed Speed
### Q108: When the wing's angle of incidence is larger at the root than at the tip, this is called: ^t80q108
DE · FR
- A) Aspect ratio
- B) Aerodynamic twist
- C) Geometric twist (washout)
- D) Interference compensation
Answer
C)
Explanation
Geometric twist (washout) is a physical twist built into the wing so that the angle of incidence progressively decreases from root to tip. This ensures the root stalls first, preserving aileron effectiveness near the tips.
- Option A (aspect ratio) is the span-to-chord ratio.
- Option B (aerodynamic twist) achieves a similar stall progression by using different aerofoil profiles along the span rather than physical twist.
- Option D (interference compensation) is not a standard aerodynamic term for wing twist.
Key Terms
D — Drag
### Q109: Barometric pressure in the Earth's atmosphere has the characteristic of: ^t80q109
DE · FR
- A) Decreasing linearly with increasing altitude
- B) Remaining constant
- C) Decreasing in the troposphere then increasing in the stratosphere
- D) Decreasing exponentially with increasing altitude
Answer
D)
Explanation
Atmospheric pressure follows an approximately exponential decay with altitude, as described by the barometric formula. Each equal altitude increment reduces pressure by the same percentage, not the same absolute amount.
- Option A is wrong because the relationship is exponential, not linear.
- Option B is obviously false — pressure clearly drops with altitude.
- Option C is incorrect because pressure continues to decrease in the stratosphere; it is temperature, not pressure, that stabilises or increases in the stratosphere.
Q110: The simplified continuity equation says the same mass of air passes through different cross-sections at the same instant. Therefore: ^t80q110
DE · FR
- A) The air speed does not vary
- B) Air flows at a lower speed through a larger cross-section
- C) Air flows at a higher speed through a larger cross-section
- D) Air flows at a lower speed through a smaller cross-section
Answer
B)
Explanation
The continuity equation for incompressible flow states A1 × V1 = A2 × V2 (area times velocity is constant). If the cross-section increases, velocity must decrease proportionally to maintain the same mass flow rate.
- Option A is wrong because velocity does change with cross-section.
- Option C reverses the relationship — velocity decreases, not increases, with a larger cross-section.
- Option D also reverses it — velocity increases through a smaller section, not decreases.
Q111: On the aerofoil diagram, what does point number 4 represent? ^t80q111
DE · FR

- A) Stagnation point
- B) Separation point
- C) Centre of pressure
- D) Transition point
Answer
B)
Explanation
Point 4 on the boundary layer diagram marks the separation point, where the boundary layer detaches from the upper wing surface due to an adverse pressure gradient, forming a turbulent wake behind it.
- Option A is wrong because the stagnation point is at the leading edge (point 1).
- Option C is incorrect because the centre of pressure is a theoretical force application point, not a boundary layer feature.
- Option D is wrong because the transition point (laminar to turbulent) occurs further forward on the surface.
Q112: On the aerofoil diagram, what does point number 1 represent? ^t80q112
DE · FR

- A) Transition point
- B) Centre of pressure
- C) Stagnation point
- D) Separation point
Answer
C)
Explanation
Point 1 on the boundary layer diagram is the stagnation point at the leading edge, where the incoming airflow divides into upper and lower streams, velocity is zero, and static pressure reaches its maximum.
- Option A is wrong because the transition point occurs further aft where laminar flow becomes turbulent.
- Option B is incorrect because the centre of pressure is a resultant force point, not a physical flow location on the leading edge.
Q113: What constructive feature is depicted in the figure? ^t80q113
DE · FR

- A) Directional stability achieved through lift generation
- B) Longitudinal stability through wing dihedral
- C) Lateral stability provided by wing dihedral
- D) Differential aileron deflection
Answer
C)
Explanation
The figure shows wing dihedral — the upward V-angle of the wings relative to the horizontal plane — which provides lateral (roll) stability. When one wing drops in a sideslip, the lower wing experiences a higher effective angle of attack, generating more lift and producing a restoring roll moment.
- Option A is wrong because directional stability comes from the vertical tail, not dihedral.
- Option B incorrectly identifies the axis — dihedral affects roll (lateral), not pitch (longitudinal) stability.
- Option D describes an aileron design feature unrelated to the figure.
Q114: "Longitudinal stability" refers to stability around which axis? ^t80q114
DE · FR
- A) Vertical axis
- B) Longitudinal axis
- C) Lateral axis
- D) Propeller axis
Answer
C)
Explanation
Despite its potentially confusing name, longitudinal stability refers to pitch stability, which is rotation around the lateral axis (the axis running from wingtip to wingtip). It describes the aircraft's tendency to return to a trimmed pitch attitude.
- Option A is wrong because the vertical axis governs yaw (directional stability).
- Option B is incorrect because the longitudinal axis governs roll (lateral stability).
- Option D is not a recognised stability axis in standard aeronautical terminology.
Q115: Rotation about the vertical axis is termed ^t80q115
DE · FR
- A) Pitching
- B) Yawing
- C) Rolling
- D) Slipping
Answer
B)
Explanation
Yawing is the rotation of the aircraft around the vertical (normal) axis, causing the nose to swing left or right. It is controlled primarily by the rudder.
- Option A (pitching) is rotation around the lateral axis.
- Option C (rolling) is rotation around the longitudinal axis.
- Option D (slipping) describes a flight condition with a sideways airflow component, not a specific rotational axis.
Q116: Rotation about the lateral axis is termed ^t80q116
DE · FR
- A) Stalling
- B) Rolling
- C) Yawing
- D) Pitching
Answer
D)
Explanation
Pitching is the rotation of the aircraft around the lateral axis (wingtip to wingtip), resulting in nose-up or nose-down movement, controlled by the elevator.
- Option A (stalling) is an aerodynamic phenomenon of flow separation, not a rotational term.
- Option B (rolling) is rotation around the longitudinal axis.
- Option C (yawing) is rotation around the vertical axis.
Q117: The elevator causes the aircraft to rotate around the ^t80q117

DE · FR
- A) Longitudinal axis
- B) Lateral axis
- C) Elevator axis
- D) Vertical axis
Answer
B)
Explanation
The elevator controls pitch, which is rotation around the lateral axis (running from wingtip to wingtip). By deflecting the elevator, the pilot changes the aerodynamic force on the tail, creating a pitching moment that raises or lowers the nose.
- Option A is wrong because the longitudinal axis governs roll, controlled by ailerons.
- Option C is not a standard aeronautical axis.
- Option D is wrong because the vertical axis governs yaw, controlled by the rudder.
Q118: What must be considered regarding the centre of gravity position? ^t80q118
DE · FR
- A) The C.G. position can only be determined once the aircraft is airborne
- B) Moving the aileron trim tab can correct the C.G. position
- C) Only proper loading ensures a correct and safe C.G. position
- D) Adjusting the elevator trim tab can shift the C.G. to the correct position
Answer
C)
Explanation
The centre of gravity position is determined solely by how mass is distributed within the aircraft — only correct loading of occupants, baggage, and ballast within approved limits ensures a safe CG.
- Option A is wrong because CG must be verified on the ground before flight using weight and balance calculations.
- Option B is incorrect because aileron trim tabs adjust roll forces, not mass distribution.
- Option D is also wrong because trim tabs change aerodynamic balance forces, they cannot physically move the CG.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
### Q119: What benefit does differential aileron deflection provide? ^t80q119

DE · FR
- A) The ratio of drag coefficient to lift coefficient increases
- B) Total lift remains constant during aileron deflection
- C) Adverse yaw is increased
- D) Drag on the down-going aileron is reduced, making adverse yaw smaller
Answer
D)
Explanation
Differential aileron deflection means the down-going aileron deflects less than the up-going aileron, which reduces the extra induced drag on the descending wing and thus minimises adverse yaw — the unwanted yawing opposite to the intended roll direction.
- Option A is wrong because the purpose is drag reduction, not increasing the drag-to-lift ratio.
- Option B is incorrect because total lift does change somewhat during aileron deflection.
- Option C states the opposite of the actual effect — differential ailerons decrease adverse yaw, not increase it.
Q120: What does the aerodynamic rudder balance accomplish? ^t80q120
DE · FR
- A) It improves rudder effectiveness
- B) It reduces the control stick forces
- C) It delays the stall
- D) It reduces the control surfaces
Answer
B)
Explanation
An aerodynamic rudder balance (such as a horn balance or set-back hinge) positions part of the control surface ahead of the hinge line, so that aerodynamic pressure partially assists the pilot's input, reducing the force needed to deflect the control.
- Option A is incorrect because the purpose is force reduction, not improved effectiveness.
- Option C is wrong because stall delay is achieved by devices like slats or vortex generators, not control surface balancing.
- Option D makes no sense — aerodynamic balance does not reduce the size of control surfaces.
Q121: What purpose does static rudder (mass) balancing serve? ^t80q121
DE · FR
- A) To limit the control stick forces
- B) To increase the control stick forces
- C) To prevent control surface flutter
- D) To enable force-free trimming
Answer
C)
Explanation
Static (mass) balancing places counterweights ahead of the hinge line to move the control surface's centre of mass to or forward of the hinge. This prevents flutter — a dangerous self-exciting aeroelastic oscillation that can destroy the control surface and airframe at speed.
- Option A is wrong because limiting stick forces is the role of aerodynamic balance, not mass balance.
- Option B is the opposite of any balancing goal.
- Option D is incorrect because force-free trimming is achieved by trim tabs, not mass balance.
Q122: When the elevator trim tab is deflected upwards, what does the trim indicator show? ^t80q122
DE · FR
- A) Laterally trimmed
- B) Neutral position
- C) Nose-down position
- D) Nose-up position
Answer
C)
Explanation
An upward-deflected trim tab generates a downward aerodynamic force on the trailing edge of the elevator, which pushes the elevator's leading edge upward, creating a nose-down pitching moment. The trim indicator therefore shows a nose-down position.
- Option A is irrelevant — lateral trim concerns roll, not pitch.
- Option B would require the tab to be neutral.
- Option D is the opposite — a nose-up indication would require the trim tab to deflect downward.
Q123: On the polar diagram, what flight condition does point number 1 indicate? ^t80q123
DE · FR

- A) Slow flight
- B) Best gliding angle
- C) Stall
- D) Inverted flight
Answer
D)
Explanation
Point 1 on the polar diagram lies in the region of negative lift coefficient, representing inverted flight where the aircraft flies upside down and the wing produces downward lift relative to its normal orientation.
- Options A, B, and C all correspond to positive (upright) portions of the polar curve — slow flight is near maximum CL, stall is at CL_max, and best gliding angle is at the tangent point from the origin.
Key Terms
- CL = Lift Coefficient
- CL_max — Maximum Lift Coefficient — highest CL the wing can produce before stalling
### Q124: In a coordinated turn, what is the relationship between load factor (n) and stall speed (Vs)? ^t80q124
DE · FR
- A) n is less than 1 and Vs is lower than in straight-and-level flight
- B) n is greater than 1 and Vs is higher than in straight-and-level flight
- C) n is less than 1 and Vs is higher than in straight-and-level flight
- D) n is greater than 1 and Vs is lower than in straight-and-level flight
Answer
B)
Explanation
In a coordinated banked turn, the lift vector must support both the weight and provide centripetal force, so the load factor n = 1/cos(bank angle) is always greater than 1. The stall speed increases by the factor sqrt(n), because more lift is needed and thus a higher speed is required to avoid the stall.
- Options A and C are wrong because n is always above 1 in a level turn.
- Option D incorrectly states that Vs decreases — higher load factor always raises stall speed.
Key Terms
- n — Load Factor (ratio of lift to weight: n = L/W)
- D — Drag
- VS = Stall Speed
### Q125: The pressure equalisation between the upper and lower wing surfaces results in ^t80q125
DE · FR
- A) Profile drag caused by wingtip vortices
- B) Laminar airflow caused by wingtip vortices
- C) Lift generated by wingtip vortices
- D) Induced drag caused by wingtip vortices
Answer
D)
Explanation
The pressure difference between the lower (high pressure) and upper (low pressure) wing surfaces causes air to flow around the wingtips, forming trailing vortices. These vortices create downwash that tilts the lift vector rearward, producing induced drag.
- Option A is wrong because wingtip vortices cause induced drag, not profile drag.
- Option B is incorrect because vortices create turbulent, not laminar, flow.
- Option C is false because vortices actually reduce effective lift by reducing the local angle of attack.
Q126: In steady glide at equal mass, how does using a thicker aerofoil compare to a thinner one? ^t80q126
DE · FR
- A) Less drag, same lift
- B) More drag, less lift
- C) Less drag, less lift
- D) More drag, same lift
Answer
D)
Explanation
In a steady glide at the same mass, lift must equal weight regardless of the aerofoil thickness, so lift remains the same. However, a thicker aerofoil generates greater form (pressure) drag due to its larger cross-section and more severe adverse pressure gradients.
- Options A and C are wrong because a thicker profile produces more, not less, drag.
- Option B is incorrect because lift does not decrease — it is fixed by the weight requirement in steady flight.
Q127: What does a profile polar diagram display? ^t80q127
DE · FR
- A) The lift coefficient cA at various angles of attack
- B) The ratio of minimum sink rate to best glide
- C) The ratio between total lift and drag as a function of angle of attack
- D) The relationship between cA and cD at different angles of attack
Answer
D)
Explanation
A profile polar (Lilienthal polar) plots the lift coefficient (cA or CL) against the drag coefficient (cD or CD) at various angles of attack, showing how aerodynamic efficiency changes across the operating range.
- Option A describes only a CL-vs-alpha curve, not a polar.
- Option B relates to the speed polar of a glider, not a profile polar.
- Option C is imprecise — the polar shows the CL-CD relationship directly, not a simple ratio.
Key Terms
- CL = Lift Coefficient
- CD = Drag Coefficient
### Q128: Any arbitrarily shaped body placed in an airflow (v > 0) always produces ^t80q128
DE · FR
- A) Drag that remains constant at any speed
- B) Lift without drag
- C) Drag
- D) Both drag and lift
Answer
C)
Explanation
Any body in a moving airflow always experiences drag due to viscous friction and pressure forces opposing the motion — this is unavoidable in a real fluid. Lift, however, requires specific aerodynamic shaping or orientation.
- Option A is wrong because drag varies with the square of velocity, not constant.
- Option B is physically impossible — drag-free lift does not exist.
- Option D is incorrect because an arbitrarily shaped body is not guaranteed to produce lift; only specifically shaped or oriented bodies generate lift.
Q129: In the diagram, what does number 3 represent? ^t80q129
DE · FR

- A) Chord
- B) Chord line
- C) Camber line
- D) Thickness
Answer
C)
Explanation
In the aerofoil diagram, number 3 represents the camber line (mean camber line), which is the curved line equidistant between the upper and lower surfaces of the aerofoil.
- Options A and B both refer to the straight reference line from leading to trailing edge, which is a different feature.
- Option D (thickness) is the perpendicular distance between the upper and lower surfaces, not a line on the diagram.
Q130: Which design feature can compensate for adverse yaw? ^t80q130
DE · FR
- A) Wing dihedral
- B) Full deflection of the aileron
- C) Differential aileron deflection
- D) Increasing the wing sweep angle
Answer
C)
Explanation
Differential aileron deflection reduces adverse yaw by deflecting the down-going aileron less than the up-going aileron, thereby reducing the extra induced drag on the descending wing that causes the nose to yaw opposite to the intended turn.
- Option A is wrong because wing dihedral provides roll stability, not yaw compensation.
- Option B would actually worsen adverse yaw because full deflection maximises the drag asymmetry.
- Option D is wrong because wing sweep primarily affects high-speed stability and critical Mach number, not adverse yaw compensation.
Q131: What does "wing loading" describe? ^t80q131
DE · FR
- A) Drag per weight
- B) Wing area per weight
- C) Drag per wing area
- D) Weight per wing area
Answer
D)
Explanation
Wing loading is defined as total aircraft weight divided by wing reference area, expressed in units such as N/m² or kg/m². It determines stall speed, gust sensitivity, and overall handling characteristics.
Q132: On the polar diagram, what flight state does point number 5 represent? ^t80q132
DE · FR

- A) Best gliding angle
- B) Inverted flight
- C) Stall
- D) Slow flight
Answer
D)
Explanation
Point 5 on the polar diagram corresponds to slow flight — a high angle of attack, low speed condition on the positive portion of the polar before reaching the stall point.
- Option A (best gliding angle) corresponds to the tangent from the origin touching the polar.
- Option B (inverted flight) would appear on the negative CL side.
- Option C (stall) is at the CL_max point, which is the very top of the polar, beyond slow flight.
Key Terms
- CL = Lift Coefficient
- CL_max — Maximum Lift Coefficient — highest CL the wing can produce before stalling
### Q133: What is the aerodynamic effect of deploying airbrakes? ^t80q133

DE · FR
- A) Both drag and lift increase
- B) Both drag and lift decrease
- C) Drag increases while lift decreases
- D) Drag decreases while lift increases
Answer
C)
Explanation
Airbrakes (spoilers/dive brakes) serve to steepen the glide path by significantly increasing drag while simultaneously disrupting upper-surface airflow, which reduces lift.
- Option A is wrong because lift decreases with airbrakes deployed.
- Option B is incorrect because drag increases, not decreases.
- Option D reverses both effects — airbrakes increase drag and decrease lift.
Q134: Which combination of measures can improve the glide ratio of a sailplane? ^t80q134
DE · FR
- A) Forward C.G. position, correct speed, taped gaps between wing and fuselage
- B) Higher mass, thin aerofoil, taped gaps between wing and fuselage
- C) Lower mass, correct speed, retractable gear
- D) Cleaning surfaces, correct speed, retractable gear, taped gaps between wing and fuselage
Answer
D)
Explanation
Glide ratio (L/D) is maximised by minimising total drag while flying at the optimal speed. Cleaning surfaces reduces skin friction, taping gaps prevents leakage drag, retractable gear eliminates a major source of parasite drag, and maintaining best-glide speed keeps the aircraft at peak L/D.
- Option A is suboptimal because a forward CG increases trim drag.
- Option B is wrong because higher mass does not improve the L/D ratio itself.
- Option C omits important drag-reduction measures like taping gaps and surface cleaning.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
### Q135: What distinguishes a spin from a spiral dive? ^t80q135
DE · FR
- A) Spin: outer wing stalled, speed constant; Spiral dive: both wings flying, speed rising rapidly
- B) Spin: inner wing stalled, speed constant; Spiral dive: both wings flying, speed rising rapidly
- C) Spin: outer wing stalled, speed rising rapidly; Spiral dive: both wings flying, speed constant
- D) Spin: inner wing stalled, speed rising rapidly; Spiral dive: both wings flying, speed constant
Answer
B)
Explanation
In a spin, the inner (lower) wing is deeply stalled while the outer wing may still be producing some lift, creating autorotation at a near-constant, relatively low airspeed. In a spiral dive, neither wing is stalled, and the aircraft descends in a tightening bank with rapidly increasing airspeed.
- Option A incorrectly identifies the outer wing as stalled.
- Options C and D incorrectly assign speed characteristics — in a spin, speed is roughly constant; in a spiral dive, speed increases rapidly.
Q136: The longitudinal position of the centre of gravity primarily affects stability around which axis? ^t80q136
DE · FR
- A) Longitudinal axis
- B) Gravity axis
- C) Lateral axis
- D) Vertical axis
Answer
C)
Explanation
The longitudinal (fore-aft) position of the CG directly determines pitch stability, which is stability around the lateral axis. The CG must be forward of the neutral point for positive pitch stability; the further forward, the more statically stable but the heavier the elevator forces.
- Option A is wrong because the longitudinal axis governs roll stability, influenced by dihedral.
- Option B is not a standard axis.
- Option D is wrong because the vertical axis governs directional stability, influenced by the vertical tail.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
### Q137: Which structural element provides directional stability? ^t80q137
DE · FR
- A) Wing dihedral
- B) A large elevator
- C) A large vertical tail
- D) Differential aileron deflection
Answer
C)
Explanation
The vertical tail fin acts as a weathervane, producing a restoring yawing moment whenever the aircraft sideslips, thereby providing directional (yaw) stability around the vertical axis. A larger fin provides greater stability.
- Option A (wing dihedral) provides lateral (roll) stability.
- Option B (elevator) contributes to pitch stability.
- Option D (differential aileron deflection) reduces adverse yaw but is not a stability feature.
Q138: In straight-and-level flight at constant engine power, how does the wing's angle of attack compare to that in a climb? ^t80q138
DE · FR
- A) Larger than in a climb
- B) Larger than at take-off
- C) Smaller than in a descent
- D) Smaller than in a climb
Answer
D)
Explanation
In a climb at the same engine power, the aircraft flies slower because more energy goes into gaining altitude, requiring a higher angle of attack to maintain sufficient lift. Therefore, the level-flight angle of attack is smaller than in a climb.
- Option A reverses the relationship.
Option B compares to take-off, which is not directly related to the question.
Option C is incorrect because in a descent the aircraft accelerates, typically reducing AoA below the level-flight value.
Key Terms
AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q139: What is one function of the horizontal tail? ^t80q139
DE · FR
- A) To stabilise the aircraft around the lateral axis
- B) To initiate a turn around the vertical axis
- C) To stabilise the aircraft around the vertical axis
- D) To stabilise the aircraft around the longitudinal axis
Answer
A)
Explanation
The horizontal tail (stabiliser and elevator) provides longitudinal (pitch) stability, which is stability around the lateral axis. It generates restoring moments when the aircraft's pitch attitude is disturbed.
- Option B is wrong because turns around the vertical axis are initiated by the rudder.
- Option C is incorrect because vertical axis stability comes from the vertical tail.
- Option D is wrong because longitudinal axis (roll) stability is provided by wing dihedral and sweep.
Q140: What happens when the rudder is deflected to the left? ^t80q140

DE · FR
- A) The aircraft pitches to the right
- B) The aircraft yaws to the right
- C) The aircraft pitches to the left
- D) The aircraft yaws to the left
Answer
D)
Explanation
When the rudder is deflected to the left, it produces a sideways aerodynamic force on the tail that pushes the tail to the right, yawing the nose to the left around the vertical axis.
- Options A and C are wrong because pitching is a nose-up/nose-down motion controlled by the elevator, not the rudder.
- Option B reverses the yaw direction — left rudder produces left yaw.
Q141: Differential aileron deflection is employed to ^t80q141
DE · FR
- A) Increase the rate of descent
- B) Prevent stalling at low angles of attack
- C) Minimise adverse yaw
- D) Reduce wake turbulence
Answer
C)
Explanation
Differential aileron deflection gives the down-going aileron less deflection than the up-going aileron, reducing the drag asymmetry between the two wings during a roll input and thereby minimising adverse yaw.
- Option A is wrong because descent rate is controlled by airbrakes or speed, not aileron geometry.
- Option B is incorrect because stall prevention at low AoA is not an issue.
- Option D is wrong because wake turbulence is caused by wingtip vortices, not aileron design.
Key Terms
AoA = Angle of Attack
### Q142: How is the force balance affected during a banked turn? ^t80q142
DE · FR
- A) A lower lift force is sufficient because the net force is reduced compared to level flight
- B) The horizontal component of the lift during the turn constitutes the centrifugal force
- C) Lift must be increased to balance the combined effect of gravity and centrifugal force
- D) The net force is the vector sum of gravitational and centripetal forces
Answer
C)
Explanation
In a banked turn at constant altitude, the tilted lift vector must be large enough that its vertical component still equals weight while its horizontal component provides the centripetal force for the curved path. This means total lift must exceed the straight-and-level value, with the load factor n = 1/cos(bank angle).
- Option A is wrong because more, not less, lift is needed.
- Option B is imprecise — from the aircraft's reference frame it appears as centrifugal force, but the actual physics involves centripetal force.
- Option D does not fully describe the force balance requirement.
Key Terms
- n — Load Factor (ratio of lift to weight: n = L/W)
- D — Drag
### Q143: On a Touring Motor Glider (TMG), which engine arrangement produces the least drag? ^t80q143
DE · FR
- A) Engine and propeller fixed at the aircraft's nose
- B) Engine and propeller fixed on the fuselage
- C) Engine and propeller retractable into the fuselage
- D) Engine and propeller fixed at the horizontal stabiliser
Answer
C)
Explanation
A retractable engine and propeller can be fully stowed inside the fuselage when not in use, completely eliminating the parasite drag from the powerplant and propeller during soaring flight.
- Options A, B, and D all involve fixed (non-retractable) installations that continuously produce drag even when the engine is shut down, because the propeller and engine cowling remain exposed to the airstream.
Key Terms
TMG = Touring Motor Glider
### Q144: What effect is known as "adverse yaw"? ^t80q144
DE · FR
- A) Aileron input yaws the nose toward the intended turn direction because the down-deflected aileron has less drag
- B) Rudder input creates a rolling moment toward the opposite side due to extra lift on the faster-moving wing
- C) Aileron input yaws the nose away from the intended turn due to increased drag on the down-deflected aileron
- D) Aileron input yaws the nose away from the intended turn due to increased drag on the up-deflected aileron
Answer
C)
Explanation
Adverse yaw occurs because the down-deflected aileron increases both lift and induced drag on its wing. This extra drag on the rising wing yaws the nose toward it — away from the intended direction of turn.
- Option A describes the opposite effect.
- Option B describes a secondary effect of rudder, not the primary adverse yaw phenomenon.
- Option D incorrectly attributes the extra drag to the up-deflected aileron, when in fact it is the down-deflected aileron that produces more drag.
Q145: What is the "ground effect"? ^t80q145
DE · FR
- A) An increase in lift and decrease in induced drag near the ground
- B) A decrease in lift and increase in induced drag near the ground
- C) A decrease in both lift and induced drag near the ground
- D) An increase in both lift and induced drag near the ground
Answer
A)
Explanation
When flying within approximately one wingspan of the ground, the ground surface restricts the full development of wingtip vortices, reducing downwash. This effectively increases the local angle of attack (more lift) and reduces induced drag simultaneously.
Q146: Rudder deflections rotate the aircraft around the ^t80q146

DE · FR
- A) Longitudinal axis
- B) Rudder axis
- C) Lateral axis
- D) Vertical axis
Answer
D)
Explanation
The rudder controls yaw, which is rotation around the vertical axis, causing the nose to swing left or right.
- Option A is wrong because the longitudinal axis governs roll, controlled by ailerons.
- Option B is not a standard aeronautical axis designation.
- Option C is wrong because the lateral axis governs pitch, controlled by the elevator.
Q147: Which of the following factors causes the load factor to increase during cruise flight? ^t80q147
DE · FR
- A) A forward centre of gravity
- B) Higher aircraft weight
- C) An upward gust
- D) Lower air density
Answer
C)
Explanation
An upward gust suddenly increases the wing's angle of attack, temporarily generating lift in excess of the aircraft's weight. This additional lift translates into a load factor greater than 1, stressing the structure.
- Option A (forward CG) affects pitch stability and trim drag but does not directly cause load factor spikes.
- Option B (higher weight) means higher sustained loads but does not itself cause an increase in load factor n.
- Option D (lower density) reduces lift for a given speed, which would lower, not raise, the instantaneous load factor.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
### Q148: While approaching the next updraft, the variometer shows 3 m/s descent. You expect a mean climb rate of 2 m/s in the thermal. How should you set the McCready ring? ^t80q148
DE · FR
- A) Set the ring to 3 m/s and read the recommended speed next to the expected climb rate (2 m/s)
- B) Set the ring to 0 m/s outside thermals and read the recommended speed next to the current sink rate (3 m/s)
- C) Set the ring to 2 m/s and read the recommended speed next to the current sink rate (3 m/s)
- D) Set the ring to 2 m/s and read the recommended speed next to the sum of current sink rate and expected climb rate (5 m/s)
Answer
C)
Explanation
The McCready ring is always set to the expected climb rate in the next thermal (2 m/s in this case), and the recommended inter-thermal cruise speed is then read at the variometer needle position showing the current sink rate (3 m/s).
- Option A incorrectly sets the ring to the sink rate instead of the thermal strength.
- Option B sets the ring to zero, which would give a minimum-sink rather than optimal cruise speed.
- Option D erroneously adds the sink rate and climb rate together, which is not how McCready theory works.
Q149: What must be considered when flying a sailplane equipped with camber flaps? ^t80q149
DE · FR
- A) During winch launch, camber must be set to full positive
- B) During approach and landing, camber must not be changed from negative to positive
- C) During approach and landing, camber must not be changed from positive to negative
- D) During winch launch, camber must be set to full negative
Answer
C)
Explanation
During approach and landing, switching the camber flap from positive (increased camber, higher lift) to negative (reduced or reflexed camber) would cause a sudden and dramatic drop in lift close to the ground, potentially leading to a dangerous sink or ground contact.
- Option A is not universally correct — winch launch flap settings vary by type.
- Option B reverses the restriction.
- Option D is wrong because negative camber is a cruise setting, not appropriate for the high-lift-demand winch launch phase.
Key Terms
D — Drag
### Q150: On the aerofoil diagram, what does point number 3 represent? ^t80q150
DE · FR

- A) Separation point
- B) Centre of pressure
- C) Stagnation point
- D) Transition point
Answer
D)
Explanation
Point 3 on the boundary layer diagram is the transition point, where the boundary layer changes from smooth laminar flow to turbulent flow. The position of this transition depends on Reynolds number, surface roughness, and pressure gradient.
- Option A (separation point) occurs further aft, where flow detaches entirely.
- Option B (centre of pressure) is not a boundary layer feature but a force application point.
- Option C (stagnation point) is at the leading edge, where flow velocity is zero.
Q151: In the diagram, what does number 2 correspond to? ^t80q151
DE · FR

- A) Angle of attack
- B) Profile thickness
- C) Chord line
- D) Mean camber line
Answer
C)
Explanation
Number 2 in figure represents the chord line — the straight reference line connecting the leading edge to the trailing edge of the aerofoil. It is the baseline from which the angle of attack and camber are measured.
- Option A (angle of attack) is an angular measurement, not a line on the diagram.
- Option B (profile thickness) is the perpendicular distance between the upper and lower surfaces, not a straight reference line.
Q152: In the figure, the angle (alpha) is referred to as ^t80q152
DE · FR

- A) Angle of inclination
- B) Angle of incidence
- C) Angle of attack
- D) Lift angle
Answer
C)
Explanation
The angle alpha between the chord line and the direction of the oncoming airflow is the angle of attack, the primary aerodynamic variable determining lift coefficient and stall behaviour.
- Option A (angle of inclination) is not a standard aeronautical term.
- Option B (angle of incidence) is the fixed structural angle between the chord line and the aircraft's longitudinal axis, set during manufacturing.
- Option D (lift angle) is not a recognized aviation term.
Q153: If the right aileron deflects upward and the left aileron deflects downward, how does the aircraft react? ^t80q153

DE · FR
- A) Rolling to the right with yaw to the left
- B) Rolling to the right with yaw to the right
- C) Rolling to the left with no yawing
- D) Rolling to the left with yaw to the right
Answer
A)
Explanation
When the right aileron deflects upward (reducing lift on the right wing) and the left aileron deflects downward (increasing lift on the left wing), the aircraft rolls to the right. Simultaneously, the down-deflected left aileron creates more induced drag on the left wing, producing adverse yaw — the nose swings to the left, opposite the intended roll direction.
- Options C and D incorrectly identify a leftward roll.
- Option B states yaw to the right, but adverse yaw always opposes the roll direction.
Q154: What must be taken into account when flying a sailplane with water ballast? ^t80q154
DE · FR
- A) Best glide angle becomes worse
- B) Best glide speed decreases
- C) Significant C.G. shifts occur
- D) The aircraft should stay below the freezing level
Answer
D)
Explanation
Water ballast must be kept above freezing (i.e., the aircraft should stay below the freezing level) to prevent the water from freezing in the wing tanks, which could jam dump valves, cause unpredictable CG shifts, and damage wing structure.
- Option A is wrong because the best glide angle (L/D ratio) is theoretically unchanged with ballast.
- Option B is incorrect — best glide speed increases with additional weight.
- Option C is misleading because water ballast tanks are designed to minimise CG shifts, keeping them within approved limits.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
### Q155: Which description characterises static stability? ^t80q155
DE · FR
- A) After an external disturbance, the aircraft can return to its original position through rudder input
- B) After an external disturbance, the aircraft maintains the displaced position
- C) After an external disturbance, the aircraft tends toward an even more deflected position
- D) After an external disturbance, the aircraft tends to return to its original position
Answer
D)
Explanation
Static stability means that when an aircraft is displaced from equilibrium by an external force, inherent aerodynamic forces automatically tend to return it toward its original state without pilot input.
- Option A describes active pilot correction, not inherent stability.
- Option B describes neutral stability, where the aircraft stays wherever it is displaced.
- Option C describes static instability, where the aircraft diverges further from equilibrium.
Q156: How do the best gliding angle and best glide speed change when a sailplane carries water ballast compared to flying without it? ^t80q156
DE · FR
- A) Best gliding angle remains unchanged; best glide speed increases
- B) Best gliding angle increases; best glide speed increases
- C) Best gliding angle remains unchanged; best glide speed decreases
- D) Best gliding angle decreases; best glide speed decreases
Answer
A)
Explanation
Water ballast increases total aircraft weight. The best L/D ratio (and therefore the best gliding angle) is an aerodynamic property of the aircraft's shape and does not change with weight. However, the speed at which this optimum L/D occurs increases because more dynamic pressure is needed to generate the extra lift required by the heavier aircraft.
Q157: Which constructive feature is designed to reduce control forces? ^t80q157
DE · FR
- A) T-tail
- B) Vortex generators
- C) Aerodynamic rudder balance
- D) Differential aileron deflection
Answer
C)
Explanation
An aerodynamic rudder balance (horn balance or set-back hinge) extends part of the control surface ahead of the hinge line, so aerodynamic pressure partially assists the pilot's deflection effort, directly reducing the force required.
- Option A (T-tail) is a configuration choice affecting downwash and deep-stall characteristics.
- Option B (vortex generators) energise the boundary layer to delay flow separation.
- Option D (differential aileron deflection) reduces adverse yaw, not control forces.
Q158: When any body of arbitrary shape is surrounded by airflow (v > 0), it always produces ^t80q158
DE · FR
- A) Drag
- B) Both drag and lift
- C) Drag that remains constant at every speed
- D) Lift without drag
Answer
A)
Explanation
Any body immersed in a moving airstream (v > 0) always produces drag, because viscous friction and pressure differences are unavoidable in real fluid flow. Lift requires specific shaping or angle of attack and is not guaranteed.
- Option B is wrong because lift is not always produced.
- Option C is incorrect because drag increases with V² — it is not constant.
- Option D is physically impossible — drag-free flight does not exist in a real fluid.
Key Terms
D — Drag
### Q159: "Longitudinal stability" refers to stability around which axis? ^t80q159
DE · FR
- A) Vertical axis
- B) Propeller axis
- C) Longitudinal axis
- D) Lateral axis
Answer
D)
Explanation
Despite the potentially confusing name, longitudinal stability describes pitch stability, which is rotation around the lateral axis (wingtip to wingtip). It is the tendency to maintain or return to a trimmed pitch attitude.
- Option A (vertical axis) governs directional/yaw stability.
- Option B (propeller axis) is not a standard stability axis.
- Option C (longitudinal axis) governs roll/lateral stability.
Q160: What does "wing loading" mean? ^t80q160
DE · FR
- A) Drag per wing area
- B) Weight per wing area
- C) Drag per weight
- D) Wing area per weight
Answer
B)
Explanation
Wing loading is the aircraft's total weight divided by the wing reference area (e.g., N/m² or kg/m²). Higher wing loading means higher stall speeds but better penetration in turbulence.
- Option A (drag per wing area) is not a standard metric.
- Option C (drag per weight) describes a drag-to-weight ratio.
- Option D (wing area per weight) is the mathematical inverse of wing loading.
Key Terms
D — Drag
### Q161: What phenomenon is known as adverse yaw? ^t80q161
DE · FR
- A) Aileron input causes a yaw toward the intended turn direction because the down-deflected aileron has less drag
- B) Rudder input produces a rolling moment toward the opposite side because the faster-moving wing generates more lift
- C) Aileron input causes a yaw away from the intended turn due to more drag on the up-deflected aileron
- D) Aileron input causes a yaw away from the intended turn due to more drag on the down-deflected aileron
Answer
D)
Explanation
Adverse yaw occurs because the down-deflected aileron, which increases local lift on the rising wing, also increases induced drag on that wing. This extra drag pulls the nose toward the rising wing — away from the intended turn direction.
- Option A describes the opposite phenomenon.
- Option B describes a secondary rudder-roll coupling, not the primary adverse yaw effect.
- Option C incorrectly attributes the drag increase to the up-deflected aileron; in reality, it is the down-deflected aileron that creates more drag.
Q162: What is the "ground effect"? ^t80q162
DE · FR
- A) Both lift and induced drag decrease near the ground
- B) Both lift and induced drag increase near the ground
- C) Lift decreases and induced drag increases near the ground
- D) Lift increases and induced drag decreases near the ground
Answer
D)
Explanation
In ground effect (within approximately one wingspan of the surface), the ground physically constrains wingtip vortex development, reducing downwash. This increases the effective angle of attack (raising lift) while simultaneously reducing induced drag. Pilots notice this as a floating sensation during the landing flare.
- Options A, B, and C all incorrectly describe the lift-drag relationship — the correct combination is increased lift with decreased induced drag.
Q163: Does air density affect the minimum speed (IAS) of a glider? ^t80q163
DE · FR
- A) Yes, it increases when air density decreases
- B) Yes, it decreases when density decreases
- C) No, the minimum speed in IAS does not depend on air density
- D) Yes, it increases when density increases
Answer
C)
Explanation
Stall occurs when the wing reaches its critical angle of attack. The stall speed in IAS is Vs = sqrt(2W / (rho0 x S x CLmax)), where rho0 is the reference density used by the airspeed indicator. The ASI measures dynamic pressure (q = 0.5 x rho x TAS^2) and displays it as IAS. Since lift L = CL x q x S, the stall always occurs at the same CLmax regardless of density. Therefore the indicated stall speed (IAS) remains constant at any altitude or density - this is why all reference speeds in procedures are given as IAS.
Key terms
- IAS = Indicated Airspeed
- TAS = True Airspeed
- CL_max = Maximum lift coefficient before stall
Q164: In which speed range can vibrations and flutter occur? ^t80q164
DE · FR
- A) From Vs to Va
- B) From Va to Vne
- C) Above Vne
- D) From Vs to Vne
Answer
C)
Explanation
Aeroelastic flutter is a self-sustaining, divergent oscillation of control surfaces or lifting surfaces. Its onset speed is deliberately set above Vne. In normal flight below Vne, properly mass-balanced controls and a sufficiently rigid structure prevent flutter. By exceeding Vne, the aircraft enters a regime where flutter becomes a real risk and can lead to structural destruction within seconds.
Key terms
- Vne = Never Exceed Speed
- Va = Manoeuvring Speed
- Vs = Stall Speed
Q165: Vibrations can occur when ^t80q165
DE · FR
- A) Controls and flaps have excessive play
- B) The load factor is too low in flight
- C) The manoeuvring speed Va is below normal
- D) None of the answers is correct
Answer
A)
Explanation
Excessive play in the mechanical linkages of control surfaces or flaps creates conditions favourable to vibration by reducing structural damping. The play allows surfaces to move freely under aerodynamic forces, potentially generating oscillations. This is one reason why control system play is strictly limited and checked during maintenance inspections. Large amounts of play can lower the flutter onset speed to below Vne.
Q166: Vibrations can also occur under which conditions? ^t80q166
DE · FR
- A) With excessive negative acceleration
- B) When severe turbulence is present at speed Va
- C) With ice on control surfaces and airbrakes, or at high speed
- D) None of the answers is correct
Answer
C)
Explanation
Ice on control surfaces alters their mass distribution and thus their mass balance. Mass balancing is designed to position the control surface's centre of mass at or ahead of the hinge axis, preventing flutter. Ice, depositing mainly on leading edges and outer surfaces, can shift the centre of mass behind the hinge and lower the critical flutter speed well below Vne. Flying at high speed with ice-contaminated, unbalanced control surfaces is particularly dangerous.
Q167: In which speed range can the maximum load factor be exceeded, leading to structural overload? ^t80q167
DE · FR
- A) From Vs to Vne
- B) From Va to Vne
- C) From Vs to Va
- D) Below manoeuvring speed Va
Answer
B)
Explanation
Below Va, full control deflection causes the wing to stall before the structural limit load is reached - the stall protects the structure. Above Va, the wing can generate enough lift to exceed the limit load factor before stalling. It is in the Va-Vne range that abrupt manoeuvres or severe gusts can subject the structure to excessive loads. Above Vne, the flutter risk is added to the overload risk.
Key terms
- Va = Manoeuvring speed - speed below which full deflections are safe
- Vne = Never exceed speed
Q168: Above which speed can abrupt or full control deflections damage the glider's structure? ^t80q168
DE · FR
- A) Manoeuvring speed Va
- B) Minimum speed Vs
- C) Never exceed speed Vne
- D) Normal cruise speed
Answer
A)
Explanation
Manoeuvring speed Va is precisely the speed above which abrupt or full control deflections can produce aerodynamic loads exceeding the aircraft's structural limits. Below Va, the wing stalls before these loads are reached. Above Va, a full deflection can generate enough lift or control surface force to damage spars, wing attachments or the tailplane. Va is therefore the practical limit for energetic manoeuvres and turbulence penetration.
Q169: When the maximum load factor is exceeded, what is the primary risk? ^t80q169
DE · FR
- A) That the glider stalls
- B) That the glider enters a spin
- C) That stability deteriorates
- D) That the glider's structure is damaged
Answer
D)
Explanation
The maximum (limit) load factor is the highest load the glider's structure can withstand repeatedly without permanent deformation. Beyond the ultimate factor (typically 1.5 times the limit), structural failure can occur. Exceeding the limit load factor during abrupt manoeuvres or in turbulence can cause deformation or rupture of wing spars, fuselage attachments or control surfaces. Stall and spin are aerodynamic phenomena, not structural ones, and occur at insufficient load factors, not excessive ones.
Q170: The mass balance (mass balancing) of an aileron has lost lead weights. What can be the consequence? ^t80q170
DE · FR
- A) Greater adverse yaw
- B) Aileron flutter (vibration)
- C) Reduced aileron forces
- D) The glider becomes unstable about the pitch axis
Answer
B)
Explanation
Mass balancing places lead counterweights ahead of the hinge axis to bring the control surface's centre of mass to or ahead of that axis. If these counterweights fall off, the centre of mass shifts aft of the hinge. The control surface then becomes susceptible to flutter - a self-amplifying aeroelastic oscillation in which inertial and aerodynamic forces reinforce each other. This flutter can quickly become divergent and destroy the control surface and airframe. That is why any damage to control surface counterweights requires inspection before the next flight.
Q171: What is the danger of flying at minimum speed in turbulent air? ^t80q171
DE · FR
- A) Structural overload
- B) Centre of gravity shift
- C) Flow separation (stall)
- D) Elevator flutter
Answer
C)
Explanation
At minimum speed (stall speed), the wing operates at its maximum lift coefficient CL_max with virtually no margin before stall. In turbulent air, upward gusts can suddenly increase the angle of attack beyond the critical angle, causing an instantaneous stall. In addition, speed fluctuations induced by turbulence can momentarily reduce airspeed below Vs. This is why it is particularly dangerous to fly at minimum speed in rough air, especially on final approach during landing.
Q172: How does air density change when temperature increases? ^t80q172
DE · FR
- A) It decreases
- B) It increases
- C) It does not change
- D) It first increases then decreases
Answer
A)
Explanation
According to the ideal gas law (P = rho x R x T), at constant pressure, an increase in temperature T causes a decrease in density rho. Warmer air is less dense. For a glider, this means performance degrades in hot conditions (density altitude higher than actual altitude): lift and drag are reduced for a given indicated airspeed, and the true airspeed (TAS) at stall is higher. This is the density altitude effect on aircraft performance.
Key terms
- rho = air density (kg/m3)
- R = gas constant
- T = absolute temperature (Kelvin)
Q173: In what proportion does drag change with airspeed? ^t80q173
DE · FR
- A) Linearly (proportional to speed)
- B) As the cube of speed
- C) As the square of speed (quadratically)
- D) Independently of speed
Answer
C)
Explanation
Parasite drag is proportional to dynamic pressure q = 0.5 x rho x V^2. If speed doubles, q quadruples and therefore parasite drag quadruples as well. This quadratic (square) relationship means a small speed increase produces a large drag increase. This is why gliders flying at high speed lose much more altitude per unit of distance - drag grows far faster than any additional lift available.
Key terms
- q = dynamic pressure (q = 0.5 x rho x V^2)
- V = airspeed
Q174: What is understood by static pressure? ^t80q174
DE · FR
- A) The pressure inside the cockpit
- B) The pressure measured by the pressure tube (Pitot)
- C) The ambient (atmospheric) air pressure
- D) The pressure of the moving airflow
Answer
C)
Explanation
Static pressure is the pressure exerted by the surrounding atmosphere on an object at rest relative to the air. It is measured by static ports (flush orifices on the fuselage, away from airflow disturbance). It decreases with altitude according to the standard atmosphere model. In the Pitot-static system, static pressure is subtracted from total pressure (Pitot) to obtain dynamic pressure, which is proportional to the square of true airspeed - this is the operating principle of the airspeed indicator.
Q175: How does the maximum permissible speed Vne of a glider in IAS behave as altitude increases? ^t80q175
DE · FR
- A) It stays the same
- B) It increases
- C) It decreases
- D) It stays the same because the airspeed indicator is compensated
Answer
C)
Explanation
Vne is a structural limit tied to true airspeed (TAS), since aerodynamic forces and flutter risk depend on TAS. The airspeed indicator measures IAS (based on dynamic pressure). At altitude, density decreases, so the same IAS corresponds to a higher TAS. To keep the TAS limit constant, the IAS limit must be reduced. Thus the Vne in IAS as shown on the airspeed indicator decreases with altitude. Some AFMs give Vne as TAS (constant) and specify the IAS reduction per altitude band.
Key terms
- Vne = Never Exceed Speed
- IAS = Indicated Airspeed
- TAS = True Airspeed
- AFM = Aircraft Flight Manual
Q176: In what proportion does lift change when airspeed increases? ^t80q176
DE · FR
- A) Linearly
- B) Quadratically (as the square of speed)
- C) As the cube of speed
- D) Independently of speed
Answer
B)
Explanation
Lift L = CL x 0.5 x rho x V^2 x S. At constant angle of attack and density, lift is proportional to V^2. If speed doubles, lift quadruples. This property allows flight at high speed with a lower angle of attack - the lift generated scales with the square of speed. It also explains why stall speeds increase with the square root of the load factor: in a turn, more lift is required, demanding a higher speed to avoid stalling.
Q177: Which statement is FALSE regarding the relationship between lift/drag and airspeed? ^t80q177
DE · FR
- A) Lift increases when speed increases
- B) Drag changes as a function of speed
- C) Lift and drag vary linearly as a function of speed
- D) Lift varies as a function of changes in angle of attack
Answer
C)
Explanation
The FALSE statement is C. Neither lift nor drag varies linearly with speed - both vary as the square of speed (proportionally to dynamic pressure q = 0.5 x rho x V^2). Doubling speed quadruples both lift AND drag (at constant angle of attack). Statements A, B and D are correct: lift does increase with speed, drag does vary with speed, and lift does depend on angle of attack via the lift coefficient CL.
Q178: What is understood by total pressure? ^t80q178
DE · FR
- A) The pressure inside the cockpit
- B) The pressure of air at the Earth's surface
- C) The sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure
- D) The ambient air pressure
Answer
C)
Explanation
Total pressure (or stagnation pressure) is the pressure measured when the airflow is brought to rest isentropically. It equals the sum of static pressure (ambient atmospheric pressure) and dynamic pressure (0.5 x rho x V^2). The Pitot tube measures total pressure by stagnating the airflow at its inlet. By subtracting static pressure (measured by the static port) from total pressure (measured by the Pitot), one obtains dynamic pressure, which allows calculation of indicated airspeed.
Key terms
- Dynamic pressure = 0.5 x rho x V^2
- Static pressure = ambient atmospheric pressure
- Total pressure = static pressure + dynamic pressure