Operational Procedures
Q1: While flying slowly near stall with the left wing dropping, how can a full stall be avoided? ^t70q1
DE · FR
- A) Use rudder to the left, push the stick forward slightly, accelerate, then neutralise all controls
- B) Lower the nose with elevator, maintain wings level using coordinated rudder and aileron
- C) Deflect aileron to the right, push slightly forward on the stick, build speed, then neutralise controls
- D) Apply aileron and rudder to the right, gain speed, push the stick forward slightly, then neutralise
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct stall recovery technique is to immediately reduce the angle of attack by lowering the nose with the elevator, while using coordinated rudder and aileron to keep the wings level.
- Option A applies rudder in the wrong direction (toward the dropping wing).
Option C uses aileron alone without coordinated rudder, which near the stall can increase adverse yaw and potentially trigger a spin entry.
Option D also prioritizes aileron over elevator, missing the critical first step of reducing the angle of attack.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q2: How is "flight time" defined? ^t70q2
DE · FR
- A) The total time from the first take-off until the last landing across one or more consecutive flights.
- B) The time from engine start for take-off purposes until the pilot leaves the aircraft after engine shutdown.
- C) The total time from the aircraft's first movement until it finally comes to rest after the flight.
- D) The interval from the beginning of the take-off run to the final touchdown on landing.
Answer
C)
Explanation
Under EASA regulations for gliders, flight time is defined as the total time from the aircraft's first movement for the purpose of flight until it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. This includes ground handling and taxiing, not just airborne time.
- Option A only counts from takeoff to landing, excluding ground movement.
- Option B applies to powered aircraft with engines, not gliders.
- Option D is too narrow, covering only the takeoff run to touchdown and missing ground handling phases.
Key Terms
EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q3: What is a wind shear? ^t70q3
DE · FR
- A) A meteorological downslope wind event typical in alpine regions.
- B) A gradual increase of wind speed at altitudes above 13000 ft.
- C) A change in wind speed exceeding 15 kt.
- D) A vertical or horizontal variation in wind speed and/or direction.
Answer
D)
Explanation
Wind shear is defined as any change in wind speed and/or direction over a relatively short distance, which can occur in both the vertical and horizontal planes. It is not limited to any particular speed threshold (option C), altitude range (option B), or geographic setting (option A). Wind shear is particularly dangerous during takeoff and landing when the aircraft is close to the ground with limited recovery margins.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q4: Which weather phenomenon is most commonly linked to wind shear? ^t70q4
DE · FR
- A) Stable high-pressure systems.
- B) Thunderstorms.
- C) Fog.
- D) Invernal warm fronts.
Answer
B)
Explanation
Thunderstorms generate the most severe wind shear through their powerful updrafts, downdrafts, and microburst outflows, which can cause sudden wind reversals exceeding 50 knots within seconds. Stable high-pressure systems (option A) typically produce calm, uniform conditions. Fog (option C) is associated with light winds, not shear. Warm fronts (option D) can produce mild shear, but thunderstorms are by far the most common and dangerous source.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q5: Under what conditions should wind shear be expected? ^t70q5
DE · FR
- A) On a calm summer day with light winds
- B) In cold weather with calm winds
- C) During an inversion
- D) When crossing a warm front
Answer
C)
Explanation
A temperature inversion creates a stable boundary layer between two air masses that can move at different speeds and directions, producing wind shear at the inversion level. Inversions are common in the early morning and can significantly affect glider operations near the ground, particularly during approach and landing.
- Option A describes conditions with minimal shear risk.
- Option B and D can occasionally produce shear but are not the primary conditions associated with it.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q6: During approach, an aircraft encounters wind shear with decreasing headwind. Without pilot corrections, what happens to the flight path and indicated airspeed (IAS)? ^t70q6
DE · FR
- A) Flight path goes higher, IAS rises
- B) Flight path goes lower, IAS rises
- C) Flight path goes higher, IAS drops
- D) Flight path goes lower, IAS drops
Answer
D)
Explanation
When headwind suddenly decreases, the airflow over the wings drops, causing IAS to decrease and lift to reduce. With less lift, the aircraft sinks below the intended glide path. The aircraft's inertia maintains its groundspeed briefly, but the reduced relative airflow means less aerodynamic force. This is the most dangerous wind shear scenario on approach because both effects — lower path and lower airspeed — combine to reduce safety margins simultaneously.
Key Terms
IAS = Indicated Airspeed
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q7: During approach, an aircraft encounters wind shear with increasing headwind. Without corrections, how are the flight path and IAS affected? ^t70q7
DE · FR
- A) Flight path drops, IAS drops
- B) Flight path rises, IAS drops
- C) Flight path drops, IAS rises
- D) Flight path rises, IAS rises
Answer
D)
Explanation
An increasing headwind temporarily increases the relative airflow over the wings, raising both IAS and lift. The additional lift pushes the aircraft above the intended glide path. Although initially this appears favorable, the pilot must be alert — if the headwind later decreases, the aircraft will experience the opposite effect and may sink rapidly below the desired path. Options involving decreased IAS or a lower flight path contradict the aerodynamic response to an increasing headwind.
Key Terms
IAS = Indicated Airspeed
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q8: During approach, the aircraft experiences wind shear with a decreasing tailwind. Without corrections, what happens to the flight path and IAS? ^t70q8
DE · FR
- A) Flight path drops, IAS rises
- B) Flight path rises, IAS rises
- C) Flight path drops, IAS drops
- D) Flight path rises, IAS drops
Answer
B)
Explanation
When a tailwind decreases, the aircraft's forward momentum is maintained while the air mass effectively decelerates around it, increasing the relative airflow over the wings. This raises IAS and lift, pushing the aircraft above the glide path. A decreasing tailwind has the same aerodynamic effect as an increasing headwind. Options with decreased IAS or lower flight path misinterpret the relationship between tailwind changes and relative airflow.
Key Terms
IAS = Indicated Airspeed
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q9: What is the best way to avoid encountering wind shear during flight? ^t70q9
DE · FR
- A) Avoid thermally active areas, especially in summer, or remain below them
- B) Refrain from taking off and landing when heavy showers or thunderstorms are passing
- C) Avoid precipitation areas, particularly in winter, and choose low flight altitudes
- D) Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay over flat terrain
Answer
B)
Explanation
The most severe wind shear is associated with thunderstorms and heavy showers, which produce microbursts and gust fronts. Avoiding takeoffs and landings when such weather is passing through eliminates the most dangerous wind shear exposure during the most vulnerable flight phases.
- Option A addresses thermals, which cause turbulence but not dangerous shear.
Option C targets winter precipitation, which is a lesser shear risk.
Option D is overly restrictive and does not address the primary cause.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q10: During a cross-country flight, visual conditions begin to fall below minima. To maintain minimum visual conditions, the pilot decides to ^t70q10
DE · FR
- A) Press on using radio navigation aids along the route
- B) Continue based on sufficiently favourable forecasts
- C) Request navigational assistance from ATC to continue
- D) Turn back, since adequate VMC was confirmed along the previous track
Answer
D)
Explanation
When VFR conditions deteriorate below minima, the safest action is to turn back to the area where adequate visual meteorological conditions (VMC) were confirmed. Continuing into worsening visibility is the leading cause of VFR-into-IMC accidents.
- Option A is inappropriate because gliders typically lack radio navigation equipment and VFR pilots should not rely on instrument navigation.
- Option B relies on forecasts rather than actual conditions, which is unsafe.
- Option C is not appropriate for gliders operating under VFR rules.
Key Terms
- ATC = Air Traffic Control
- IMC = Instrument Meteorological Conditions
- VFR = Visual Flight Rules
- VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q11: Two identical aircraft at the same gross weight and configuration fly at different airspeeds. Which one produces stronger wake turbulence? ^t70q11
DE · FR
- A) The one at higher altitude
- B) The one flying faster
- C) The one flying slower
- D) The one at lower altitude
Answer
C)
Explanation
Wake turbulence intensity is directly related to the strength of wingtip vortices, which are strongest when the wing operates at high lift coefficients — that is, at low speeds and high angles of attack. The slower aircraft generates more intense vortices because it must produce the same lift at a lower speed, requiring a higher angle of attack and greater circulation around the wing. Altitude (options A and D) is not the determining factor. The faster aircraft (option B) produces weaker vortices at its lower lift coefficient.
Source
Q12: With only a light crosswind, what hazard exists when departing after a heavy aeroplane? ^t70q12
DE · FR
- A) Wake vortices are amplified and become distorted.
- B) Wake vortices spin faster and climb higher.
- C) Wake vortices remain on or near the runway.
- D) Wake vortices twist across the runway transversely.
Answer
C)
Explanation
In light crosswind conditions, wake vortices from a heavy aircraft tend to remain on or near the runway rather than being blown clear. With a strong crosswind, the vortices drift away from the runway centerline, but a light crosswind is insufficient to displace them, creating a lingering hazard for departing aircraft.
- Option A incorrectly states vortices are amplified.
- Option B is wrong because vortices sink, not climb.
- Option D is incorrect because light crosswinds do not cause significant lateral twisting of vortices across the runway.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q13: Which surface is most suitable for an emergency off-field landing? ^t70q13
DE · FR
- A) A ploughed field
- B) A harvested cornfield
- C) A glade with long dry grass
- D) A village sports ground
Answer
B)
Explanation
A harvested cornfield offers a firm, relatively flat surface with short stubble that provides good ground friction without excessive deceleration forces — ideal for an emergency landing.
- Option A (ploughed field) has soft, uneven furrows that can cause the glider to nose over or ground-loop.
- Option C (long dry grass) may conceal obstacles such as rocks, ditches, or fences.
- Option D (sports ground) is typically surrounded by buildings, fences, and spectators, creating collision hazards.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q14: What defines a precautionary landing? ^t70q14
DE · FR
- A) A landing performed without engine power.
- B) A landing made to preserve flight safety before conditions deteriorate further.
- C) A landing carried out with flaps retracted.
- D) A landing forced by circumstances requiring the aircraft to land immediately.
Answer
B)
Explanation
A precautionary landing is a proactive decision to land while options remain available, made to preserve flight safety before the situation worsens. It differs from a forced landing (option D), which is an immediate necessity with no alternative.
- Option A describes a normal glider landing or engine-out scenario, not specifically a precautionary landing.
- Option C describes a configuration choice, not a type of landing.
- The key distinction is that a precautionary landing involves foresight and planning.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q15: Which of these landing areas is best suited for an off-field landing? ^t70q15
DE · FR
- A) A lake with a smooth, undisturbed surface
- B) A meadow free of livestock
- C) A light brown field with short crops
- D) A field with ripe, waving crops
Answer
C)
Explanation
A light brown field with short crops indicates a harvested or nearly harvested surface that is firm and free of tall obstructions, making it suitable for a safe off-field landing.
- Option A (a lake) should only be considered as a last resort since water landings carry drowning risk.
- Option B (meadow without livestock) sounds safe but may have hidden obstacles; and option D (ripe, waving crops) indicates tall vegetation that could obscure hazards and cause the glider to nose over on landing.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q16: How does wet grass affect take-off and landing distances? ^t70q16
DE · FR
- A) Both take-off and landing distances decrease
- B) Take-off distance increases while landing distance decreases
- C) Take-off distance decreases while landing distance increases
- D) Both take-off and landing distances increase
Answer
D)
Explanation
Wet grass increases rolling resistance during the takeoff ground roll, requiring a longer distance to reach flying speed. On landing, wet grass reduces wheel braking friction (similar to aquaplaning), resulting in a longer stopping distance. Both phases are adversely affected.
Source
Q17: What adverse effects can be expected when thermalling above industrial facilities? ^t70q17
DE · FR
- A) Extensive, strong downwind areas on the lee side of the plant
- B) Very poor visibility of only a few hundred metres with heavy precipitation
- C) Health hazards from pollutants, reduced visibility, and turbulence
- D) Strong electrostatic charging and degraded radio communication
Answer
C)
Explanation
Thermalling above industrial facilities exposes the pilot to harmful pollutants (smoke, chemical emissions), significantly reduced visibility from haze and particulates, and turbulence from the uneven heating of industrial structures.
- Option A describes a lee-side downdraft but not the full hazard picture.
- Option B exaggerates with "heavy precipitation," which is not caused by industrial plants.
- Option D describes electrostatic effects that are not typically associated with industrial thermal flying.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q18: When is an off-field landing most likely to result in an accident? ^t70q18
DE · FR
- A) When the approach uses distinct approach segments
- B) When the decision to land off-field is taken too late
- C) When the approach is made onto a harvested corn field
- D) When the decision is made above the minimum safe altitude
Answer
B)
Explanation
The most common cause of off-field landing accidents is delaying the decision too long, leaving insufficient altitude for proper field selection, a stabilized approach, and obstacle avoidance. Late decisions force rushed approaches, poor field choices, and inadequate speed management.
- Option A (distinct segments) is standard good practice.
- Option C (harvested cornfield) is actually a good surface choice.
- Option D (deciding above minimum safe altitude) is the correct time to decide, not a risk factor.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q19: How can mid-air collisions be avoided when circling in thermals? ^t70q19
DE · FR
- A) Enter the updraft quickly and pull back sharply to slow down
- B) Circle in alternating directions at different altitudes
- C) Mimic the movements of the glider ahead
- D) Coordinate turns with other aircraft sharing the same thermal
Answer
D)
Explanation
When sharing a thermal, all gliders should circle in the same direction and coordinate their turns to maintain consistent spacing and predictable flight paths. This minimizes the risk of convergence.
- Option A (entering quickly and pulling back sharply) can surprise other pilots and create a collision hazard.
- Option B (alternating directions) creates head-on crossing situations within the thermal.
- Option C (mimicking the glider ahead) could lead to following too closely without maintaining safe separation.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q20: How can danger be avoided when a glider's altitude nears circuit height during a cross-country flight? ^t70q20
DE · FR
- A) Seek thermals on the lee side of a chosen landing field
- B) Regardless of the planned route, commit to an off-field landing
- C) Maintain radio contact until fully stopped after an off-field landing
- D) Aim for cumulus clouds visible on the distant horizon and use their thermals
Answer
B)
Explanation
When altitude drops to circuit height, the pilot must commit to landing — continuing to search for lift at this altitude is dangerous and leaves no margin for error.
- Option A is hazardous because lee-side air typically contains sink, not thermals.
- Option C describes a good post-landing practice but does not address the immediate danger of low altitude.
- Option D risks flying into sink between thermals with no altitude reserve, potentially resulting in a crash rather than a controlled off-field landing.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q21: What must a pilot consider before entering a steep turn? ^t70q21
DE · FR
- A) Reduce speed in accordance with the target bank angle before starting the turn
- B) Once the bank angle is achieved, push forward to increase speed
- C) After reaching the bank angle, apply opposite rudder to reduce yaw
- D) Build up sufficient speed for the intended bank angle before initiating the turn
Answer
D)
Explanation
In a steep turn, the load factor increases (n = 1/cos(bank angle)), which raises the stall speed. The pilot must have adequate speed before entering the turn to maintain a safe margin above the increased stall speed.
- Option A (reducing speed before a steep turn) would dangerously bring the aircraft closer to stall.
- Option B (pushing forward during the turn) would cause altitude loss and nose-down pitch.
- Option C (opposite rudder) is not the primary concern — speed margin is the critical safety factor.
Key Terms
n — Load Factor (ratio of lift to weight: n = L/W)
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q22: A glider is about to stall and pitch down. Which control input prevents a nose-dive and spin? ^t70q22
DE · FR
- A) Hold ailerons neutral, apply strong rudder toward the lower wing
- B) Maintain level flight using the rudder pedals
- C) Pull the stick back slightly, deflect ailerons opposite to the lower wing
- D) Release back pressure on the elevator, apply rudder opposite to the dropping wing
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct response to an incipient stall with wing drop is to release back pressure on the elevator (reducing angle of attack) and apply opposite rudder to prevent the yaw that would develop into a spin.
- Option A applies rudder toward the dropping wing, which would accelerate spin entry.
- Option B attempts to maintain level flight with rudder alone, which is ineffective near the stall.
- Option C pulls back on the elevator, which deepens the stall, and uses ailerons which can worsen the situation near the critical angle of attack.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q23: When aerotowing with a side-mounted release hook, the glider tends to ^t70q23
DE · FR
- A) Display an increased pitch-up moment.
- B) Exhibit particularly stable flight characteristics.
- C) Turn rapidly about its longitudinal axis.
- D) Yaw toward the side where the hook is mounted.
Answer
A)
Explanation
A side-mounted (belly or CG) release hook creates a tow force that acts below and possibly offset from the aircraft's center of gravity. The cable pull from below the CG generates a nose-up pitching moment, which the pilot must actively counter with forward stick pressure.
- Option B is incorrect — side-mounted hooks do not improve stability.
- Option C (rapid roll) is not characteristic of this configuration.
- Option D describes yaw, which would occur with an asymmetric attachment but is not the primary effect.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q24: During aerotow, the glider has climbed excessively high behind the tug. What should the glider pilot do to prevent further danger? ^t70q24
DE · FR
- A) Initiate a sideslip to lose the excess height
- B) Push firmly forward to bring the glider back to the normal position
- C) Pull strongly, then release the cable
- D) Gently extend the spoilers and steer the glider back to the correct tow position
Answer
D)
Explanation
The safest correction for being too high behind the tug is to gently deploy spoilers to increase drag and lose excess height while steering back to the correct tow position.
- Option A (sideslip) would create erratic lateral movements that could endanger both aircraft.
- Option B (pushing firmly forward) could put the tug into a dangerous nose-down attitude by pulling its tail up via the cable.
- Option C (pulling then releasing) is dangerous — pulling when high compounds the problem, potentially lifting the tug's tail catastrophically.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q25: After a cable break during winch launch, what is the correct sequence of actions? ^t70q25
DE · FR
- A) Hold the stick back, stabilise at minimum speed, and land on the remaining field length
- B) Push the nose down firmly, release the cable, then decide based on altitude and terrain whether to land ahead or fly a short circuit
- C) Perform a 180-degree turn and land in the opposite direction, releasing the cable before touchdown
- D) Release the cable first, then push the nose down; below 150 m AGL land straight ahead at increased speed
Answer
B)
Explanation
After a cable break during winch launch, the immediate priority is to lower the nose to maintain flying speed (preventing a stall from the steep climb attitude), then release the cable to prevent it from snagging during landing. After establishing safe flight, the pilot decides whether to land straight ahead or fly a modified circuit based on available altitude and terrain.
- Option A (holding the stick back) risks a stall.
- Option C (180° turn) is extremely dangerous at low altitude.
- Option D gets the sequence backward — nose down first, then release.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q26: During the initial ground roll of a winch launch, one wing touches the ground. What must the glider pilot do? ^t70q26
DE · FR
- A) Deflect ailerons in the opposite direction
- B) Apply opposite rudder
- C) Release the cable immediately
- D) Pull back on the elevator
Answer
C)
Explanation
If a wing touches the ground during the winch launch ground roll, the situation is uncontrollable and the launch must be immediately aborted by releasing the cable. Continuing the launch with a wing on the ground risks a violent ground loop or cartwheel.
- Option A (opposite aileron) may be insufficient at low speed and could worsen the situation under cable tension.
- Option B (opposite rudder) cannot correct a wing-down condition.
- Option D (pulling back) would try to lift off prematurely in an uncontrolled state.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q27: During aerotow, the glider exceeds its maximum permissible speed. What should the glider pilot do? ^t70q27
DE · FR
- A) Pull back on the elevator to reduce speed
- B) Notify the airfield controller by radio
- C) Release the towrope immediately
- D) Deploy the spoilers
Answer
C)
Explanation
If the glider exceeds VNE (never-exceed speed) during aerotow, the pilot must immediately release the towrope to remove the pulling force causing the excessive speed and avoid structural failure.
- Option A (pulling back) increases the load factor on an already over-stressed airframe.
- Option B (radio call) wastes critical time during a structural emergency.
- Option D (deploying spoilers) while still attached to the tow aircraft could cause dangerous pitch and speed oscillations.
Key Terms
VNE = Never Exceed Speed
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q28: After a cable break during aerotow, a long section of cable remains attached to the glider. What should the pilot do? ^t70q28
DE · FR
- A) Fly a low approach and ask the airfield controller to assess the cable length, then release if needed
- B) Once at a safe height, drop the cable over empty terrain or over the airfield
- C) Fly a normal approach and release the cable immediately after touchdown
- D) Release immediately and continue the flight with the coupling unlatched
Answer
B)
Explanation
A trailing cable is a serious hazard — it can snag on obstacles, trees, or power lines during approach and landing. The safest action is to climb to a safe height and release the cable over empty terrain or the airfield where it can be recovered safely.
- Option A (low approach for assessment) risks snagging the trailing cable on obstacles.
- Option C (releasing after touchdown) means flying the entire approach with a dangerous trailing cable.
- Option D (releasing immediately regardless) may drop the cable in an unsafe location.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q29: During aerotow, the tug aircraft disappears from the glider pilot's view. What should the pilot do? ^t70q29
DE · FR
- A) Deploy the spoilers and return to a normal attitude
- B) Alternate between pushing and pulling on the elevator
- C) Release the cable immediately
- D) Alternate turns left and right to search for the tug
Answer
C)
Explanation
If the glider pilot loses sight of the tug during aerotow, the cable must be released immediately. Continued towing without visual contact with the tug is extremely dangerous because the glider pilot cannot anticipate the tug's movements, risking a mid-air collision or being pulled into an unexpected attitude.
- Option A (spoilers) does not address the fundamental problem.
- Option B (alternating elevator) creates dangerous oscillations.
- Option D (searching turns) could tangle the cable or fly into the tug's path.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q30: During aerotow in a turn, the glider drifts to an outward offset position. How should the glider pilot correct this? ^t70q30
DE · FR
- A) Use a sideslip so that increased drag pushes the glider back behind the tug
- B) Steer back using coordinated rudder and aileron inputs, then deploy spoilers to reduce speed
- C) Return behind the tug by using a tighter radius with strong rudder pedal inputs
- D) Match the tug's bank angle and use rudder to gently reduce the radius back to the correct position
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct technique is to match the tug's bank angle to maintain the same turn radius, then use gentle rudder input to slightly tighten the radius and drift back behind the tug. This is a smooth, controlled correction.
- Option A (sideslip) creates lateral instability and unpredictable cable tensions.
- Option B (deploying spoilers) would cause the glider to drop below the tug's level.
- Option C (strong rudder) risks over-correction and could cause the glider to swing to the opposite side or create dangerous cable loads.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q31: During a winch launch, cable tension suddenly disappears just after reaching the full climb attitude. What should the pilot do? ^t70q31
DE · FR
- A) Inform the winch driver by alternating aileron inputs
- B) Pull on the elevator to restore cable tension
- C) Push firmly forward and release the cable immediately
- D) Push slightly and wait for the cable tension to return
Answer
C)
Explanation
Loss of cable tension during the steep climbing phase means a cable break or winch failure has occurred. The pilot must immediately push forward to lower the nose and prevent a stall (since the glider is at a high pitch angle with rapidly decaying speed), then release the cable.
- Option A wastes critical time on communication.
- Option B (pulling) would increase the pitch angle further, guaranteeing a stall.
- Option D (waiting) is dangerous because speed is decaying rapidly in the climb attitude.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q32: Before launching with a parallel-cable winch, the pilot notices the second cable lying close to the glider. What should be done? ^t70q32
DE · FR
- A) Keep watching the second cable and release after take-off if needed
- B) Release the cable immediately and inform the airfield controller by radio
- C) Continue with the normal take-off and inform the controller after landing
- D) Proceed with the launch using opposite rudder to steer away from the second cable
Answer
B)
Explanation
A second cable lying close to the glider poses a serious entanglement hazard during the ground roll and climb-out. The launch must be aborted immediately by releasing the cable, and the airfield controller must be notified to correct the situation before any further launches.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q33: What is the function of the weak link (breaking point) on a winch cable? ^t70q33
DE · FR
- A) It limits the rate of climb during the winch launch
- B) It prevents the glider airframe from being overstressed
- C) It provides automatic cable release after the winch launch
- D) It protects the winch from being overrun by the glider
Answer
B)
Explanation
The weak link is calibrated to break before the cable tension exceeds the glider's structural limits, protecting the airframe from being overstressed by excessive winch pull. Its breaking strength is matched to the maximum permitted towing load for the specific glider type.
- Option A is incorrect — the rate of climb depends on winch power and speed, not the weak link.
- Option C is wrong because the weak link is a safety device, not a release mechanism.
- Option D describes a concern unrelated to the weak link's purpose.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q34: During the final phase of a winch launch, the pilot keeps pulling back on the elevator. The automatic release trips under high wing loading. What are the consequences? ^t70q34
DE · FR
- A) Only this sudden jerk ensures the cable releases properly
- B) This technique compensates for insufficient wind correction
- C) Extreme structural stress is placed on the glider airframe
- D) A higher launch altitude can be achieved using this technique
Answer
C)
Explanation
Continuing to pull back during the final phase of a winch launch places extreme structural stress on the airframe because the combination of cable tension, aerodynamic loads, and the centripetal force from the curved flight path can exceed design limits. The automatic release tripping is a safety mechanism activating because the load factor is dangerously high.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q35: An off-field landing in mountainous terrain is necessary and the only available site is steeply inclined. How should the approach be flown? ^t70q35
DE · FR
- A) Fly the approach at minimum speed with a careful flare upon reaching the landing site
- B) Approach with extra speed, then make a quick flare to match the slope gradient
- C) Approach parallel to the ridge with headwind, according to the prevailing wind
- D) Approach down the ridge at increased speed, adjusting pitch to follow the ground
Answer
B)
Explanation
Landing uphill on a steep slope requires extra approach speed to account for the rapid deceleration that occurs when the aircraft's momentum encounters the rising terrain. A quick, decisive flare matches the aircraft's flight path to the slope angle, minimizing impact forces.
- Option A (minimum speed) leaves no energy reserve for the flare on a steep slope.
- Option C (parallel to ridge) does not utilize the slope for deceleration.
- Option D (downhill) dramatically increases groundspeed and stopping distance, making it extremely dangerous.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q36: At 6000 m MSL, the pilot realises that the oxygen supply will run out within minutes. What should be done? ^t70q36
DE · FR
- A) After oxygen runs out, remain at this altitude for no more than 30 minutes
- B) Reduce oxygen consumption by breathing slowly
- C) Deploy spoilers and descend at the maximum permissible speed
- D) At the first sign of hypoxia, begin descending at the maximum allowed speed
Answer
C)
Explanation
At 6000 m without supplemental oxygen, the time of useful consciousness is very short — hypoxia can impair judgment within minutes. The pilot must descend immediately at maximum permissible speed using spoilers, before oxygen runs out, rather than waiting for symptoms to appear.
- Option A is extremely dangerous — remaining at 6000 m without oxygen for 30 minutes would cause incapacitation.
- Option B cannot meaningfully extend oxygen supply.
- Option D waits for hypoxia symptoms, by which point cognitive function may already be too impaired for safe decision-making.
Key Terms
MSL = Mean Sea Level
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q37: What colour is the emergency canopy release handle? ^t70q37
DE · FR
- A) Blue
- B) Yellow
- C) Red
- D) Green
Answer
C)
Explanation
Emergency canopy release handles are standardized as red to ensure immediate recognition in a crisis. Red is the universal color for emergency controls in aviation, including canopy jettison handles, fire extinguisher handles, and fuel shutoff valves.
- Options A (blue), B (yellow), and D (green) are incorrect — these colors are reserved for other functions such as trim (green), normal canopy latch, or non-emergency systems.
Source
Q38: Why must trim masses or lead ballast be firmly secured in a glider? ^t70q38
DE · FR
- A) To ensure the maximum allowed mass is not exceeded
- B) To prevent them from jamming controls or causing a centre-of-gravity shift
- C) To guarantee a comfortable seating position for the pilot
- D) To protect the pilot from injury during turbulent thermal flight
Answer
B)
Explanation
Unsecured trim masses or ballast can shift during flight, particularly in turbulence or during maneuvers, potentially jamming control linkages (elevator, rudder, or aileron cables) or causing an unplanned shift in the center of gravity that could make the aircraft uncontrollable.
Option A addresses weight limits, which is a separate concern from securing ballast.
Option C and D are secondary considerations — the primary danger is control jamming and CG displacement.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q39: During a winch launch, the airspeed indicator fails after reaching the full climb attitude. What should the pilot do? ^t70q39
DE · FR
- A) Push the stick forward, release the cable, and fly a short circuit at minimum speed
- B) Continue the launch to normal altitude, then use the horizon and airstream noise for an immediate circuit and landing
- C) Continue to normal altitude, then use visual and audio cues to proceed with the planned flight
- D) Try to restore the ASI by making abrupt speed changes during the launch
Answer
B)
Explanation
With a failed ASI, the pilot should continue the launch to normal release altitude (since the launch is already established and stable), then release and fly an immediate circuit using the horizon for pitch reference and wind noise for approximate speed estimation. An immediate landing minimizes exposure to the instrument failure.
- Option A (aborting the launch) is unnecessarily risky at climb attitude.
- Option C (continuing the planned flight) is unsafe without airspeed indication.
- Option D (abrupt speed changes) could overstress the airframe during the launch.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q40: Why is launching with the centre of gravity beyond the aft limit prohibited? ^t70q40
DE · FR
- A) Because the maximum permissible speed would be significantly reduced
- B) Because the increased nose-down moment could not be compensated
- C) Because structural limits might be exceeded
- D) Because elevator authority may be insufficient to control the flight attitude
Answer
D)
Explanation
When the CG is too far aft, the moment arm between the CG and the tail becomes too short, reducing the elevator's ability to generate sufficient nose-down pitching moment. This can make the aircraft uncontrollable, particularly during the launch phase when pitch control is critical.
- Option A is incorrect — aft CG does not directly reduce VNE.
- Option B is backward — an aft CG reduces the nose-down moment, but the problem is insufficient elevator authority to correct nose-up tendencies.
- Option C addresses structural limits, which is a separate concern.
Key Terms
- CG = Centre of Gravity
- VNE = Never Exceed Speed
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q41: What effect does ice accumulation on the wings have? ^t70q41
DE · FR
- A) It reduces friction drag
- B) It improves slow-flight performance
- C) It lowers the stall speed
- D) It raises the stall speed
Answer
D)
Explanation
Ice accumulation on the wing disrupts the smooth airflow over the aerofoil surface, reducing the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and increasing drag. Since stall speed is inversely proportional to the square root of CLmax, a lower CL_max means a higher stall speed. The aircraft must fly faster to maintain safe flight.
- Option A is wrong because ice roughness increases friction drag.
- Options B and C are incorrect because ice degrades aerodynamic performance in every respect.
Key Terms
- CL_max — Maximum Lift Coefficient — highest CL the wing can produce before stalling
- CL — Lift Coefficient — dimensionless measure of aerodynamic lift
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q42: The landing gear extends but will not lock despite several attempts. How should the landing be performed? ^t70q42
DE · FR
- A) Retract the gear and perform a belly landing at increased speed
- B) Keep the gear extended but unlocked and land normally
- C) Retract the gear and perform a belly landing at minimum speed
- D) Hold the gear handle firmly during a normal landing
Answer
C)
Explanation
If the gear will not lock, it must be retracted and a belly (gear-up) landing performed at minimum speed to minimize impact forces and structural damage. An unlocked gear (option B) could collapse asymmetrically on touchdown, causing a violent ground loop or cartwheel.
- Option A (belly landing at increased speed) unnecessarily increases impact energy.
- Option D (holding the handle) provides no mechanical lock and the gear could still collapse under landing loads.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q43: When flying into heavy snowfall, what is the greatest immediate danger? ^t70q43
DE · FR
- A) Rapid increase in airframe icing
- B) Sudden blockage of the pitot-static system
- C) Sudden loss of visibility
- D) Sudden increase in aircraft mass
Answer
C)
Explanation
The greatest immediate danger when encountering heavy snowfall is the sudden and complete loss of forward visibility, which can disorient the pilot and make terrain avoidance impossible within seconds. While icing (option A) and pitot blockage (option B) are real concerns, they develop more gradually.
- Option D (mass increase) is negligible in the short term.
- Loss of visibility is immediate, disorienting, and can lead to controlled flight into terrain.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: C)
### Q44: A tailwind off-field landing is unavoidable. How should it be executed? ^t70q44
DE · FR
- A) Approach at increased speed without using spoilers
- B) Normal approach, then extend spoilers and push the nose down upon reaching the landing site
- C) Approach at reduced speed, expecting shorter flare and ground roll
- D) Approach at normal speed, expecting a longer flare and ground roll
Answer
D)
Explanation
With a tailwind, the groundspeed is higher than normal for the same indicated airspeed, resulting in a longer flare and longer ground roll. The pilot should maintain normal approach speed (not reduced, which would risk stalling) and prepare for the extended landing distance.
- Option A (increased speed without spoilers) would make the landing even longer.
- Option B (pushing the nose down at the field) would cause a hard landing.
- Option C (reduced speed) risks stalling at the higher groundspeed, and the ground roll will be longer, not shorter.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q45: When landing with a tailwind, what must the pilot do? ^t70q45
DE · FR
- A) Retract the landing gear to shorten the ground roll
- B) Increase the approach speed
- C) Approach at normal speed with a shallow angle
- D) Compensate for the tailwind by sideslipping
Answer
C)
Explanation
With a tailwind, the pilot should maintain normal indicated approach speed (since the wing sees the same airflow regardless of wind) and fly a shallower approach angle to account for the increased groundspeed and reduced obstacle clearance gradient.
- Option A (retracting gear) would cause a belly landing, not shorten the roll.
- Option B (increasing speed) would extend the ground roll further.
- Option D (sideslipping) addresses crosswind, not tailwind, and would not be effective compensation.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q46: Tower reports: "Wind 15 knots, gusts 25 knots." How should the approach and landing be conducted? ^t70q46
DE · FR
- A) Approach at increased speed, but avoid using spoilers
- B) Approach at normal speed, controlling speed with spoilers
- C) Approach at minimum speed, making gentle control corrections
- D) Approach at increased speed with firm control inputs to correct attitude changes
Answer
D)
Explanation
In gusty conditions (10 kt gust factor), the pilot must add speed margin to the approach speed (typically half the gust factor, so about 5 kt extra) and make firm, positive control inputs to maintain attitude through the turbulent air.
- Option A avoids spoilers, which may be needed for path control.
- Option B uses normal speed with no gust margin, leaving the aircraft vulnerable to speed drops in gusts.
- Option C (minimum speed) is extremely dangerous in gusts — a momentary speed loss could cause a stall.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q47: A glider pilot encounters strong sink while ridge soaring. What is the recommended action? ^t70q47
DE · FR
- A) Increase speed and head away from the ridge
- B) Continue flying, as mountain downdrafts are typically brief
- C) Increase speed and move closer to the ridge
- D) Increase speed and land parallel to the ridge
Answer
A)
Explanation
In strong sink near a ridge, the pilot must increase speed (to improve penetration through the sink) and fly away from the ridge into the valley where conditions may be more benign and landing options exist.
- Option B is dangerously complacent — mountain downdrafts can be sustained and severe.
- Option C (moving closer to the ridge) could trap the pilot against the terrain in strong sink.
- Option D (landing parallel to the ridge) may not be feasible on mountainous terrain and reduces options.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q48: A glider flying beneath an expanding cumulus that is developing into a thunderstorm rapidly approaches cloud base. What should the pilot do? ^t70q48
DE · FR
- A) Slow to minimum speed and exit the thermal area in a gentle turn
- B) Tighten harness and be prepared for severe gusts while continuing to thermal
- C) Enter the thunderstorm cloud and continue using instruments
- D) Deploy spoilers within speed limits and leave the thermal area at maximum permissible speed
Answer
D)
Explanation
When a cumulus develops into a cumulonimbus, the updrafts intensify dramatically and can suck the glider into the cloud against the pilot's wishes. The pilot must deploy full spoilers and fly at maximum permissible speed (VNE or the spoiler-extended limit) to escape the rapidly increasing updraft.
- Option A (minimum speed) would maximize the time in the updraft and the risk of being drawn in.
- Option B (continuing to thermal) is extremely dangerous near a thunderstorm.
- Option C (entering the cloud) violates VFR rules and exposes the aircraft to severe turbulence, hail, and lightning.
Key Terms
- VNE = Never Exceed Speed
- VFR = Visual Flight Rules
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q49: After landing, you discover that a pen may have fallen into the cockpit. What must be considered? ^t70q49
DE · FR
- A) Other pilots due to fly the glider should be informed about the missing pen
- B) A flight without a writing instrument on board is not permitted
- C) Small, light loose items in the fuselage can be regarded as uncritical
- D) The cockpit must be thoroughly checked for loose objects before the next flight
Answer
D)
Explanation
Any loose object in a cockpit — even something as small as a pen — can jam flight controls by lodging in the control linkages, pushrods, or cable runs. The cockpit must be thoroughly inspected before the next flight to locate and remove the object.
- Option A merely passes the problem along without solving it.
- Option B is irrelevant — the concern is not having a pen but having a loose object.
- Option C is dangerously wrong — even small objects can jam critical controls and have caused fatal accidents.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q50: Flying near the aerodrome at about 250 m AGL, you encounter strong sink and decide on a safety landing. At what speed should you fly toward the airfield? ^t70q50
DE · FR
- A) Maximum manoeuvring speed VA
- B) Best glide speed
- C) Minimum sink rate speed
- D) Best glide speed plus allowances for downdrafts and wind
Answer
D)
Explanation
When encountering strong sink near the aerodrome, the pilot needs maximum range to reach the field. Best glide speed gives maximum range in still air, but additional speed is needed to compensate for the downdraft (which steepens the glide path) and any headwind component.
- Option A (VA) may be too fast and waste altitude.
- Option B (best glide speed alone) does not account for the sink and wind.
- Option C (minimum sink speed) maximizes time aloft but minimizes distance covered, which is counterproductive when trying to reach the field.
Key Terms
- VA = Manoeuvring Speed
- AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q51: You have just passed the LAPL(S) practical exam. May you carry passengers as soon as the licence is issued? ^t70q51
DE · FR
- A) Yes, provided the recent experience requirements are fulfilled.
- B) No, only after completing 10 flight hours or 30 flights as PIC following licence issue.
- C) Yes, without any restriction.
- D) No, carrying passengers requires an SPL licence.
Answer
B)
Explanation
Under EASA regulations, a newly qualified LAPL(S) holder must accumulate a minimum of 10 hours of flight time or 30 flights as pilot in command after licence issuance before being permitted to carry passengers. This ensures the pilot gains sufficient solo experience before taking responsibility for others.
- Option A omits the initial experience requirement.
- Option C is wrong because there is a clear restriction.
- Option D is incorrect because the LAPL(S) does permit passenger carriage after meeting the experience requirement.
Key Terms
- EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency
- LAPL = Light Aircraft Pilot Licence
- PIC = Pilot in Command
- SPL = Sailplane Pilot Licence
Source
Q52: On final approach to an out-landing field, you suddenly encounter a strong thermal. How should you react? ^t70q52
DE · FR
- A) Retract the airbrakes and slow down to minimum sink speed to exploit the thermal.
- B) Fully extend the airbrakes and lengthen the approach path if necessary.
- C) Continue the approach unchanged, since a thermal is always followed by a downdraft.
- D) Retract the airbrakes and circle gently to exit the thermal.
Answer
B)
Explanation
On final approach, the commitment to land has been made. A thermal on final approach will cause the glider to float above the desired glide path, so the pilot must fully extend airbrakes to maintain the correct path and dissipate the extra energy.
- Option A (retracting brakes to exploit the thermal) abandons the committed approach at a critical phase, which is extremely dangerous at low altitude.
- Option C assumes thermals always produce compensating sink, which is not reliable.
- Option D (circling on final) is dangerous at low altitude.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q53: You land on a grass runway shortly after a rain shower. What should you expect? ^t70q53
DE · FR
- A) The glider will veer off the runway due to aquaplaning.
- B) The glider will brake rapidly on the wet surface without needing the wheel brake.
- C) The glider will stop noticeably more quickly after touchdown.
- D) Reduced wheel grip and less effective braking, resulting in a longer ground roll.
Answer
D)
Explanation
Wet grass significantly reduces friction between the tire and the surface, resulting in less effective wheel braking and a longer ground roll. The pilot must plan for this extended stopping distance.
Option A exaggerates — aquaplaning is primarily a concern on paved runways, not grass.
Option B is incorrect because wet surfaces reduce, not improve, natural braking.
- Option C is wrong because reduced friction means a longer, not shorter, ground roll.
Source
Q54: When flying late in the day in a valley toward shaded slopes, what difficulty should you expect? ^t70q54
DE · FR
- A) Severe turbulence.
- B) Strong downdrafts.
- C) Difficulty detecting other aircraft in the shaded areas.
- D) Glare from the low sun on the horizon.
Answer
C)
Explanation
Late in the day, shaded slopes create dark backgrounds against which other aircraft become extremely difficult to spot visually. The contrast between sunlit and shaded areas makes visual detection particularly challenging — an aircraft in shadow can be nearly invisible.
- Option A and B may occur in certain conditions but are not specifically linked to shaded slopes late in the day.
- Option D (glare) is a concern when looking toward the sun, not toward shaded slopes.
Source
Q55: On a cross-country flight with no thermals available, you decide to make an out-landing. Several fields look suitable. By what altitude must your final choice be made? ^t70q55
DE · FR
- A) When you can positively identify the wind direction.
- B) Glider at 300 m AGL; motorglider at 400 m AGL.
- C) Glider at 400 m AGL; motorglider at 300 m AGL.
- D) Glider at 300 m AGL; motorglider at 200 m AGL.
Answer
B)
Explanation
Field selection must be finalized at 300 m AGL for gliders and 400 m AGL for motorgliders to ensure sufficient altitude for a proper circuit, approach, and landing. Below these heights, the pilot should be committed to the chosen field.
- Option A does not specify a concrete altitude.
- Option C reverses the altitudes — motorgliders need more height because they may attempt an engine restart.
- Option D sets the motorglider threshold too low for a safe circuit with potential engine restart attempt.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
Q56: You are thermalling at 1500 m AGL over flat terrain with no other glider nearby. In which direction should you circle? ^t70q56
DE · FR
- A) Circle to the left.
- B) There is no rule governing the direction.
- C) Within 5 km of an aerodrome turn left; otherwise choose freely.
- D) Use figure-eight patterns to best exploit the thermal.
Answer
B)
Explanation
When thermalling alone with no other aircraft in the thermal, there is no regulation requiring a specific turning direction. The pilot is free to choose whichever direction best centers the thermal or feels most comfortable.
- Option A imposes a left-turn requirement that does not exist.
- Option C invents a distance-based rule.
- Option D (figure-eights) is a technique for locating the thermal core, not a required circling method.
- The obligation to match another glider's turn direction only applies when sharing a thermal.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
Q57: You are on an aerotow departure in calm conditions. The towrope breaks just below safety height. What do you do? ^t70q57
DE · FR
- A) Extend airbrakes, push the stick forward, and land straight ahead.
- B) Push the stick forward, release the rope (twice), and land in the opposite direction.
- C) Establish a glide, release the rope (twice), and land straight ahead if possible.
- D) Immediately release the rope once, then establish a glide and land straight ahead.
Answer
C)
Explanation
After a cable break below safety height, the priority sequence is: establish a safe glide attitude (to maintain flying speed), release the remaining rope by actuating the release twice (to ensure disconnection), and land straight ahead if terrain permits.
- Option A deploys airbrakes prematurely when every meter of altitude counts.
- Option B attempts a 180° turn which is extremely dangerous below safety height.
- Option D releases before establishing a glide — the glide attitude should be established first to ensure safe flying speed.
Source
Q58: You are ready to launch in a glider with a strong crosswind from the right. What do you do? ^t70q58
DE · FR
- A) Hold the wheel brake until the engine reaches full power.
- B) During the ground roll, pull the stick fully back to lift off as quickly as possible.
- C) Ask the ground helper to hold the right wing slightly lower during the take-off run.
- D) Ask the ground helper to run alongside the glider until you have enough speed to control bank.
Answer
C)
Explanation
With a strong crosswind from the right, the wind will tend to lift the right (windward) wing. By holding the right wing slightly lower at the start of the ground roll, the helper compensates for this lifting tendency, keeping the wings level until the aileron becomes effective.
Source
Q59: During an aerotow departure, acceleration is clearly insufficient. What should you do when the take-off abort point is reached? ^t70q59
DE · FR
- A) Push the stick slightly forward to reduce drag.
- B) Release the towrope.
- C) Pull the elevator quickly to get the glider airborne.
- D) Extend the flaps.
Answer
B)
Explanation
If acceleration is insufficient by the abort point, the takeoff must be abandoned by releasing the towrope immediately. Continuing the takeoff with insufficient speed risks failing to clear obstacles or running off the end of the runway.
- Option A might marginally reduce drag but cannot solve a fundamental performance problem.
- Option C (forcing the aircraft airborne) at inadequate speed leads to an immediate stall or settling back onto the ground.
- Option D (flaps) cannot compensate for insufficient tow power.
Source
Q60: What lateral clearance from a slope must be maintained when flying a glider? ^t70q60
DE · FR
- A) A sufficient lateral safety distance.
- B) At least 60 m horizontally.
- C) At least 150 m horizontally.
- D) It depends on the thermal conditions.
Answer
A)
Explanation
The BAZL training material (section 9.2) illustrates a 60 m clearance as a guideline for both ground and lateral distance, with the emphasis: "Sécurité — Pas que ça touche !!! — jamais" (Safety — don't touch — never). However, the regulation does not prescribe a fixed metric; the rule is to maintain a sufficient lateral safety distance that accounts for turbulence, downdrafts, terrain irregularities, and aircraft performance.
- B (60 m) is a useful training guideline but not a regulatory minimum — in strong conditions more distance is needed, in calm conditions less may suffice.
- C (150 m) is overly conservative as a fixed rule.
- D (depends on thermals) is too narrow — clearance depends on terrain, wind, and aircraft type, not just thermals.
Source
Q61: What requires special attention when flying in high mountains? ^t70q61
DE · FR
- A) FLARM may produce false warnings due to reflections off rock faces.
- B) GPS signal reception may be lost.
- C) Radio contact may be interrupted.
- D) Weather conditions can change far more rapidly than expected (e.g. sudden thunderstorm development).
Answer
D)
Explanation
In high mountain environments, weather can deteriorate with extreme speed — thunderstorms can develop in minutes due to orographic lifting and localized heating effects. This is the most significant hazard requiring special attention.
- Options A, B, and C describe technical inconveniences that may occasionally occur in mountains, but they are not the primary hazard.
- Rapid weather changes can trap a pilot in valleys with deteriorating visibility and violent turbulence, making option D the critical safety concern.
Source
Q62: When installing the oxygen system in a glider for an Alpine flight, what is absolutely essential? ^t70q62
DE · FR
- A) That the rubber seal is undamaged.
- B) That all components in contact with oxygen are completely free of grease.
- C) That the coupling nut is tightened to the correct torque.
- D) That the cylinder connector is well greased.
Answer
B)
Explanation
Oxygen under pressure can react violently with hydrocarbon-based greases and oils, potentially causing a flash fire or explosion. All components in contact with oxygen must be completely grease-free.
- Option D is directly dangerous — greasing the connector introduces a combustion risk.
- Options A and C describe good practices but are not the absolute safety-critical requirement.
- The oxygen-grease incompatibility is a fundamental rule in aviation oxygen system handling.
Source
Q63: After a collision, you must bail out at approximately 400 m. When should the parachute be opened? ^t70q63
DE · FR
- A) After 2 to 3 seconds of freefall.
- B) When you have stabilised in freefall.
- C) Just before leaving the glider.
- D) Immediately after leaving the glider.
Answer
D)
Explanation
At only 400 m above ground, there is no time for any delay — the parachute must be deployed immediately after clearing the aircraft. Freefall at terminal velocity covers roughly 50 m per second, so even 2-3 seconds of delay (option A) would consume 100-150 m of precious altitude.
- Option B (stabilizing in freefall) wastes critical seconds.
- Option C (before leaving) would entangle the parachute with the aircraft structure.
- At 400 m, every second counts for a successful deployment and deceleration.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q64: On short final for an out-landing, you realise the field is too short. What do you do? ^t70q64
DE · FR
- A) Reduce speed to the minimum to shorten the landing distance.
- B) Continue straight ahead, deploy full airbrakes, and prepare for an emergency stop using all available means.
- C) Maintain heading and land using full airbrakes to stop as early as possible.
- D) Attempt to turn and find a longer alternative field.
Answer
B)
Explanation
On short final, the commitment to land has been made — the safest action is to continue straight ahead with full airbrakes and use every available means (wheel brake, ground friction) to stop in the shortest distance possible.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q65: What does FLARM do? ^t70q65
DE · FR
- A) It shows the precise position of other gliders.
- B) It warns of other FLARM-equipped aircraft that may pose a collision risk.
- C) It recommends avoidance manoeuvres when a collision risk exists.
- D) It shows the exact positions of all aircraft equipped with FLARM or a transponder.
Answer
B)
Explanation
FLARM is a traffic awareness system that calculates collision risk based on the predicted flight paths of nearby FLARM-equipped aircraft and issues warnings when a potential conflict is detected.
Option A overstates its precision — it provides approximate positions, not precise ones.
Option C is incorrect because FLARM warns but does not recommend specific avoidance maneuvers.
- Option D is wrong because FLARM only detects other FLARM devices, not transponder-equipped aircraft (that would require a separate ADS-B receiver).
Source
Q66: During a cross-country flight, you must land at a high-altitude aerodrome with no wind. At what indicated airspeed do you fly the approach? ^t70q66
DE · FR
- A) About 5 km/h less than at sea level.
- B) Increase the sea-level speed by 1% for every 100 m of altitude.
- C) About 5 km/h more than at sea level.
- D) The same as at sea level.
Answer
D)
Explanation
The indicated airspeed (IAS) for the approach should be the same as at sea level because the ASI already accounts for air density — it measures dynamic pressure, which determines aerodynamic forces regardless of altitude. The stall IAS does not change with altitude. However, the true airspeed and groundspeed will be higher at altitude due to lower air density.
- Options A and C incorrectly adjust IAS, and option B applies a TAS correction to IAS, which is unnecessary.
Key Terms
- IAS = Indicated Airspeed
- TAS = True Airspeed
Source
Q67: What do you notice when entering the centre of a downdraft? ^t70q67
DE · FR
- A) One wing rises and the aircraft begins to turn.
- B) The nose pitches up and you feel a brief increase in g-load.
- C) The glider accelerates and you feel increased g-load.
- D) The glider slows and you feel a brief decrease in g-load.
Answer
D)
Explanation
When entering a downdraft, the descending air mass reduces the effective angle of attack on the wings, temporarily decreasing lift. The pilot feels a brief reduction in g-load (a sensation of lightness or being pushed up from the seat) as the aircraft begins to sink with the descending air. The glider's airspeed initially decreases momentarily.
- Option B describes what happens entering an updraft (nose pitches up, increased g-load).
- Options A and C do not accurately describe the symmetrical effect of entering a downdraft center.
Source
Q68: During a cross-country flight over the Jura, you notice cirrus forming to the west. What should you expect? ^t70q68
DE · FR
- A) Weaker thermals due to reduced solar radiation.
- B) Increased upper-level instability from moisture, producing stronger thermals.
- C) A transition from cumulus thermals to blue (dry) thermals.
- D) Cirrus have no effect on conditions in the thermal layer.
Answer
A)
Explanation
Cirrus clouds at high altitude filter incoming solar radiation, reducing the surface heating that drives thermal convection. Less heating means weaker thermals and potentially an earlier end to the soaring day. This is an important warning sign during cross-country flights.
- Option B is wrong — cirrus does not increase instability at thermal altitudes.
- Option C describes a shift that may occur but is not the primary effect.
- Option D underestimates the impact cirrus has on thermal generation through solar radiation reduction.
Source
Q69: What speed maximises distance covered against a headwind? ^t70q69
DE · FR
- A) Minimum sink speed.
- B) Best glide ratio speed.
- C) A speed higher than best glide ratio speed.
- D) The speed corresponding to McCready zero.
Answer
C)
Explanation
To maximize distance in a headwind, the pilot must fly faster than best-glide speed. The headwind reduces groundspeed, so the glider spends more time in the air and descends more before covering the desired ground distance. By increasing speed above best-glide, the pilot accepts a steeper glide angle but gains enough extra groundspeed to more than compensate for the altitude loss.
- Option A (minimum sink) minimizes descent rate but covers minimal distance.
- Option B (best glide) is optimal only in still air.
- Option D (McCready zero) equals best-glide speed.
Source
Q70: Which of these fields is best for an out-landing? ^t70q70
DE · FR
- A) A 400 m freshly ploughed field.
- B) A 300 m maize field with a steady headwind.
- C) A 250 m country lane with a strong headwind.
- D) A 200 m meadow that has just been mown.
Answer
D)
Explanation
A freshly mown meadow of 200 m provides a smooth, firm surface free of tall vegetation and hidden obstacles — ideal for a short ground roll in a glider, which can typically stop within 100-200 m.
- Option A (ploughed field) has soft soil and deep furrows that can nose the glider over.
- Option B (maize field) has tall crops that obscure hazards and create drag inconsistencies.
- Option C (country lane) is narrow, potentially lined with trees and power lines, and poses collision risks with vehicles.
Source
Q71: May you use the on-board radio to communicate with your retrieve crew on the dedicated frequency without holding a radiotelephony extension? ^t70q71
DE · FR
- A) Only exceptionally
- B) Yes
- C) As a general rule, once per flight, shortly before landing
- D) No
Answer
B)
Explanation
Pilots may use the on-board radio on dedicated glider frequencies to communicate with their retrieve crew without needing a separate radiotelephony extension or rating. These frequencies are designated for glider operations and permit such operational communications.
Source
Q72: At an aerodrome at 1800 m AMSL, how does the ground speed compare to the indicated airspeed on approach? ^t70q72
DE · FR
- A) It depends on the temperature.
- B) Ground speed is lower.
- C) They are the same.
- D) Ground speed is higher.
Answer
D)
Explanation
At 1800 m AMSL, air density is lower than at sea level, so the true airspeed (TAS) is higher than indicated airspeed (IAS) for the same dynamic pressure reading. In nil-wind conditions, groundspeed equals TAS, which exceeds IAS. This means the aircraft approaches the runway at a higher groundspeed than the ASI shows, requiring awareness of a longer ground roll and higher touchdown energy.
Options B and C underestimate the density altitude effect.
Option A is partially true but the dominant factor is altitude, not temperature.
Key Terms
- AMSL = Above Mean Sea Level
- TAS = True Airspeed
- IAS = Indicated Airspeed
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q73: Is wearing a parachute compulsory during glider flights? ^t70q73
DE · FR
- A) Yes, for all flights above 300 m AGL
- B) No
- C) Only when performing aerobatics
- D) Yes, always
Answer
B)
Explanation
Wearing a parachute is not compulsory for glider flights under current regulations, although it is strongly recommended and standard practice in the gliding community. The decision is left to the pilot.
- Option A invents an altitude-based requirement.
- Option C creates a restriction limited to aerobatics that does not exist in the regulations.
- Option D overstates the requirement.
- While practically all glider pilots wear parachutes, it remains a personal safety choice, not a legal obligation.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
Q74: During a winch launch, just after reaching the climbing angle, the cable breaks near the winch. How should you react? ^t70q74
DE · FR
- A) Extend the airbrakes immediately
- B) First establish normal flight attitude, then release the cable
- C) Report the incident by radio
- D) Release the cable immediately, then establish a normal flight attitude
Answer
D)
Explanation
After a cable break during the climb phase, the immediate priority is to release the remaining cable (which may still be attached and could snag) and then lower the nose to establish a safe glide. The cable release comes first because a dangling cable is an immediate hazard.
- Option A (airbrakes first) wastes altitude when every meter counts.
- Option B reverses the priority — establishing the glide before releasing could allow the cable to become entangled.
- Option C (radio call) wastes precious seconds during a time-critical emergency.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q75: What must be considered during an aerotow departure in strong crosswind? ^t70q75
DE · FR
- A) The tow plane must lift off before the glider
- B) After take-off, correct into the wind until the tow plane lifts off
- C) The take-off distance will be shorter
- D) Before departure, offset the glider to the upwind side
Answer
D)
Explanation
In a strong crosswind aerotow departure, the glider should be positioned upwind of the tow aircraft's centerline to prevent being blown across the tug's path during the ground roll. This offset compensates for the crosswind drift during the critical acceleration phase.
Source
Q76: You enter a thermal in the lowlands at 1500 m AGL with no other glider nearby. In which direction do you circle? ^t70q76
DE · FR
- A) Circle to the right
- B) There is no regulation on this
- C) Circle to the left
- D) First perform a figure-eight to locate the best lift
Answer
D)
Explanation
When entering a thermal alone, the recommended technique is to first perform a figure-eight pattern (or S-turns) to identify the strongest part of the thermal before committing to a circling direction. This allows the pilot to center the thermal efficiently.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q77: What lateral distance from a slope must you maintain in a glider? ^t70q77
DE · FR
- A) It depends on the lift conditions
- B) 150 m horizontally
- C) 60 m horizontally
- D) A sufficient safety distance must be maintained
Answer
D)
Explanation
When flying near a slope, the pilot must maintain a sufficient safety distance that accounts for current conditions including wind, turbulence, and terrain features. This is a judgment-based requirement rather than a fixed numeric value.
- Option A (depends on lift) only considers one factor.
- Options B (150 m) and C (60 m) specify fixed distances that may be appropriate in some contexts but do not reflect the general guidance, which emphasizes adequate safety margin appropriate to the circumstances.
Source
Q78: You enter a thermal at 500 m AGL below a cumulus and see another glider circling 50 m above you. In which direction should you turn? ^t70q78
DE · FR
- A) You are free to choose, since the vertical separation is sufficient
- B) Circle in the same direction as the glider above you
- C) Circle in the opposite direction so you can observe the other glider from below
- D) You cannot use this thermal because the height difference is less than 150 m
Answer
B)
Explanation
When joining a thermal occupied by another glider, you must circle in the same direction to maintain a predictable traffic pattern and avoid head-on encounters within the thermal. This is a fundamental rule of shared thermal etiquette.
- Option A incorrectly dismisses the need for directional coordination.
- Option C (opposite direction) creates dangerous head-on convergence paths within the confined area of the thermal.
- Option D invents a non-existent 150 m vertical separation requirement for thermal sharing.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
Q79: During an off-field landing, the glider sustains 70% damage; the pilot is unhurt. What must be done? ^t70q79
DE · FR
- A) Submit a written report with a sketch to FOCA within 3 days
- B) Notify the local police within 24 hours
- C) Immediately notify the investigation bureau via REGA
- D) Report the damage to the accident investigation bureau within the following week
Answer
B)
Explanation
When a glider sustains major damage (70%) without injuries, the pilot must notify the local police within 24 hours. This is classified as a serious incident with substantial damage.
- Option A (FOCA report in 3 days) does not meet the urgency required.
- Option C (immediate notification via REGA) is the procedure for accidents involving injuries or fatalities.
- Option D (report within a week) is too slow for an incident involving 70% airframe damage, which requires prompt reporting.
Source
Q80: What requires special attention when taking off on a hard (paved) runway? ^t70q80
DE · FR
- A) The wingtip helper must run alongside for longer
- B) Pull back on the stick longer than usual
- C) Apply moderate wheel brake at the start of the roll
- D) Expect a longer ground roll than normal
Answer
D)
Explanation
On a hard paved runway, a glider's main wheel has less rolling resistance compared to grass, which means the groundspeed at liftoff may feel similar but the ground roll can be longer because the wheel offers less drag to help the aircraft become airborne. Additionally, on pavement the aircraft may weathervane more easily.
- Option A is not specific to hard runways.
- Option B (pulling back longer) could cause the tail to strike the runway.
- Option C (wheel brake at start) would impede acceleration during the most critical phase.
Source
Q81: How should a water landing (ditching) be carried out? ^t70q81
DE · FR
- A) Just before contact, pitch the glider up sharply to touch tail-first
- B) Tighten harnesses, close ventilation, and land at slightly above normal speed
- C) Extend the undercarriage, tighten harnesses, and land at minimum speed with airbrakes retracted
- D) Perform a sideslip to reduce impact force on the wing
Answer
B)
Explanation
For a water landing, the pilot should tighten all harnesses to prevent injury on impact, close ventilation openings to slow water ingress, and approach at slightly above normal speed to maintain control and reduce the descent rate. The gear should be retracted (not extended as in option C) to prevent the aircraft from flipping on water entry.
- Option A (tail-first) risks a violent pitch-forward on impact.
- Option D (sideslip) creates an asymmetric water entry that could cartwheel the aircraft.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q82: During an off-field landing, how can the wind direction best be determined? ^t70q82
DE · FR
- A) By observing movement of leaves in the trees
- B) By watching wave patterns in wheat fields
- C) By observing the glider's drift during altitude-losing spirals
- D) By observing the behaviour of grazing livestock
Answer
C)
Explanation
The most reliable method for determining wind direction from the air is to observe the glider's drift during altitude-loss spirals — the direction the aircraft drifts indicates the downwind direction, and the amount of drift indicates wind strength. This works at any altitude and any location.
- Option A (tree leaves) requires being low enough to see individual leaves.
- Option B (wheat field patterns) can be misleading and requires specific crop stages.
- Option D (livestock behavior) is unreliable as a wind indicator.
Source
Q83: You are flying fast along a ridge and spot a slower glider ahead at about the same altitude. How do you react? ^t70q83
DE · FR
- A) Make a 180-degree turn and return along the slope
- B) Overtake on the side away from the slope
- C) Establish radio contact and ask about the other pilot's intentions
- D) Dive below and clear upward at a safe distance, then continue
Answer
B)
Explanation
When overtaking a slower glider on a ridge, always pass on the valley side (away from the slope) to maintain safe terrain clearance and avoid trapping the other pilot against the hillside. This gives both aircraft escape room toward the valley.
- Option A (turning back) is unnecessary and wastes energy.
- Option C (radio contact) takes too long to arrange at closing speed.
- Option D (diving below) risks flying into the turbulent rotor zone closer to the terrain.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q84: At the start of an aerotow, the glider rolls over the tow rope. What should you do? ^t70q84
DE · FR
- A) Apply the wheel brake to tension the rope
- B) Extend the airbrakes
- C) Release the rope immediately
- D) Warn the tow pilot by radio
Answer
C)
Explanation
If the glider rolls over the slack tow rope, the rope can become entangled with the landing gear, skid, or other structures beneath the aircraft. The immediate action is to release the rope before any entanglement can occur.
- Option A (braking) does not prevent entanglement and may worsen it.
- Option B (airbrakes) is irrelevant to the immediate hazard.
- Option D (radio warning) wastes time during a situation requiring instant action — by the time the call is made, the rope may already be entangled.
Source
Q85: Are glider flights permitted in Class C airspace? ^t70q85
DE · FR
- A) Yes, provided the glider's transponder continuously transmits code 7000
- B) Yes, if the pilot holds the radiotelephony extension, has received ATC authorisation, and maintains a continuous radio watch; exceptions are published on the soaring chart
- C) Yes, without restrictions, in VMC
- D) Yes, provided no NOTAM expressly prohibits them
Answer
B)
Explanation
Glider flights are permitted in Class C airspace under specific conditions: the pilot must hold the radiotelephony extension, receive ATC authorization before entering, and maintain continuous radio contact. Certain exceptions for gliders may be published on the soaring chart.
Key Terms
- ATC = Air Traffic Control
- NOTAM = Notice to Air Missions
- VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q86: You are flying along a slope on your right and spot an oncoming glider at the same altitude. How do you react? ^t70q86
DE · FR
- A) Extend airbrakes and dive for vertical separation
- B) Move away on the side opposite to the slope
- C) Climb away since you have enough speed
- D) Maintain your heading
Answer
B)
Explanation
When meeting an oncoming glider while ridge soaring with the slope on your right, the standard rule is to give way by turning away from the slope (toward the valley). The pilot with the slope on the right has right-of-way in ridge soaring (similar to the rule of the road on mountain roads). However, both pilots should take evasive action by moving away from the ridge.
- Option A (diving) risks terrain collision.
- Option C (climbing) may not be possible.
- Option D (maintaining heading) leads directly to a head-on collision.
Key Terms
D — Drag
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q87: You must land on a 400 m field with a moderate tailwind. How do you fly the final approach? ^t70q87
DE · FR
- A) At best glide speed and somewhat higher than for a headwind landing
- B) Normally, using a sideslip
- C) Slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than for a headwind landing
- D) Faster than for a headwind landing
Answer
C)
Explanation
With a tailwind on a limited field, the pilot must minimize groundspeed at touchdown to reduce ground roll. This means flying slightly above minimum speed (to maintain a safety margin while being as slow as possible in the air) and approaching at a lower height to steepen the approach angle relative to the ground.
- Option A (best glide speed) is faster than needed and wastes field length.
- Option B (sideslip) addresses crosswind, not tailwind.
- Option D (faster approach) would increase groundspeed and ground roll on an already short field.
Source
Q88: What is the effect of a waterlogged grass runway on an aerotow departure? ^t70q88
DE · FR
- A) The take-off distance is the same as on a dry runway
- B) The take-off distance will be longer
- C) None of these answers is correct
- D) The take-off distance will be shorter because the surface is slippery
Answer
B)
Explanation
A waterlogged grass runway increases rolling resistance because the wheels sink into the soft, saturated surface, creating drag that slows acceleration. This results in a significantly longer takeoff distance for both the tow aircraft and the glider.
- Option A ignores the substantial difference between dry and waterlogged surfaces.
Option D's logic is flawed — while a slippery surface might reduce friction on a hard runway, waterlogged grass creates suction and drag that impede acceleration.
Option C is incorrect because option B is the correct answer.
Source
Q89: On approach to an off-field landing, you suddenly notice a high-voltage power line across your landing axis. How do you react? ^t70q89
DE · FR
- A) In all cases, fly over the power line
- B) Pass under the line if flying over is not possible and no safe escape route exists
- C) Execute a tight turn near the ground and land parallel to the line
- D) Pass under the line as close as possible to a pylon
Answer
B)
Explanation
The preferred action is always to fly over the power line if possible. However, if altitude is insufficient to clear the line and no alternative landing path exists, passing under the line is acceptable as a last resort — but only between the pylons where the cable sag provides maximum clearance, not near a pylon (option D) where cables are at their lowest.
- Option A (always fly over) is not possible when altitude is insufficient.
- Option C (tight turn near the ground) risks a stall-spin accident.
- Option D (near a pylon) is where clearance is minimal.
Source
Q90: What is the standard spin recovery procedure when the manufacturer has not specified one? ^t70q90
DE · FR
- A) Push the stick fully forward, apply full opposite rudder, then pull out
- B) Push the stick forward, apply ailerons opposite to the spin, then pull out
- C) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite rudder, keep ailerons neutral, ease the stick slightly forward, then pull out
- D) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite ailerons, push the stick fully forward, rudder neutral, then pull out
Answer
C)
Explanation
The standard spin recovery procedure is: (1) identify the spin direction, (2) apply full opposite rudder to stop the rotation, (3) keep ailerons neutral (as aileron input during a spin can be counterproductive), (4) ease the stick slightly forward to reduce the angle of attack below the stall angle, and (5) once rotation stops, centralize the rudder and pull out of the resulting dive.
- Option A omits identifying the spin direction.
- Option B uses ailerons, which can deepen the spin.
- Option D uses ailerons instead of rudder as the primary anti-spin control, which is incorrect.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q91: Unless ATC instructs otherwise, how should the approach to an aerodrome be carried out in a glider? ^t70q91
DE · FR
- A) A straight-in approach must be made to minimise disturbance to other traffic
- B) At least one full circle above the signal area, with all turns to the left, must precede the landing
- C) The published approach procedures in the VFR guide or any other appropriate method must be followed
- D) At least a half-circuit, with all turns to the left, must precede the landing
Answer
C)
Explanation
Approach to an aerodrome should follow published VFR guide procedures or any other appropriate method. A mandatory full circuit over the signal area is no longer systematically required.
Key Terms
- ATC = Air Traffic Control
- VFR = Visual Flight Rules
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q92: You are flying a fast glider along a slope and spot a slower glider ahead at approximately the same altitude. How do you respond? ^t70q92
DE · FR
- A) Establish radio contact and inquire about its intentions
- B) Overtake on the valley side (away from the slope)
- C) Perform a 180-degree turn and return along the slope
- D) Dive below, then climb past at a safe distance
Answer
B)
Explanation
In mountain flying, to overtake a slower glider on a slope, pass on the side away from the slope (valley side). This rule is consistent with the right-of-way for climbing gliders.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q93: In flight, the rudder jams in the neutral position. How do you react? ^t70q93
DE · FR
- A) Refer to the flight manual
- B) Increase speed and continue the flight
- C) Bail out by parachute immediately
- D) Control the glider with elevator and ailerons; make shallow turns and land immediately
Answer
D)
Explanation
If the rudder jams in flight, control the glider with elevator and ailerons. Make shallow turns and land immediately.
Source
Q94: At the start of an aerotow, the glider rolls over the tow rope. What do you do? ^t70q94
DE · FR
- A) Extend the airbrakes
- B) Apply the wheel brake to tension the rope
- C) Immediately release the rope
- D) Alert the tow pilot by radio
Answer
C)
Explanation
If the glider rolls over the tow rope, immediately releasing the rope is the only correct action.
Source
Q95: The tow rope breaks on the tug's side before reaching safety height. How must the glider pilot react? ^t70q95
DE · FR
- A) Immediately actuate the release handle twice and land straight ahead in the runway extension
- B) Pull back on the stick, release the rope, and land with a tailwind
- C) Make a flat turn and land diagonally
- D) Actuate the release handle twice and return to land on the aerodrome without exception
Answer
A)
Explanation
If the rope breaks on the tow plane side below safety height: actuate the release handle twice (verification) and land straight ahead in the runway extension. Avoid turning.
Source
Q96: How do you fly the final approach in a strong crosswind? ^t70q96
DE · FR
- A) Maintain runway alignment using rudder alone
- B) Do not fully extend the airbrakes
- C) Always approach with a sideslip on the side opposite to the wind
- D) Take a heading into the wind and increase speed
Answer
D)
Explanation
In strong crosswind on final, take a crab angle into the wind and increase speed slightly to maintain control. The sideslip can be used but crab is the primary method.
Source
Q97: How should a water landing be carried out? ^t70q97
DE · FR
- A) Just before landing, pitch up to touch down tail first
- B) Extend the undercarriage, tighten harnesses, land at minimum speed with airbrakes retracted
- C) Perform a sideslip to lessen the impact with the wing
- D) Tighten harnesses, close ventilation, and land at slightly above normal speed
Answer
D)
Explanation
For a water landing: tighten harnesses, close ventilation to prevent water entry, and land at slightly above normal speed for better control and to avoid nose-over.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q98: You enter a thermal with no other glider nearby. In which direction do you circle? ^t70q98
DE · FR
- A) There is no regulation on this
- B) Circle to the left
- C) Circle to the right
- D) Search for the best lift by first performing a figure-eight
Answer
A)
Explanation
Without other gliders in the thermal, there is no prescribed spiraling direction. The pilot chooses freely.
Source
- [ ] ✓ [[Examen Blanc/Exa Blanc Série_2.pdf#page=5|Série 2 Q14 p.5]]
### Q99: In a glider, how is altitude expressed? ^t70q99
DE · FR
- A) Only in altitude (metres or feet)
- B) In flight levels
- C) According to the regulations of the countries overflown
- D) In height above ground
Answer
C)
Explanation
Glider altitude is expressed according to the country overflown (altitude in feet or meters per local rules, or flight levels per airspace). Regulations vary by country.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q100: Without manufacturer-specific guidance, what is the standard spin recovery procedure? ^t70q100
DE · FR
- A) Identify the spin direction, apply ailerons opposite to it, push the stick fully forward, hold rudder neutral, then pull out
- B) Push the stick fully forward, apply full opposite rudder, then pull out
- C) Push the stick forward, apply ailerons opposite to the spin direction, then pull out
- D) Identify the spin direction, apply opposite rudder, hold ailerons neutral, push the stick slightly forward, then pull out
Answer
D)
Explanation
Standard spin recovery: 1) Identify direction, 2) Opposite rudder, 3) Ailerons neutral, 4) Slight forward stick, 5) Pull out after rotation stops.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q101: May changes be made at an accident site where a person has been injured, beyond essential rescue measures? ^t70q101
DE · FR
- A) Yes, if the aircraft operator has formally issued such an instruction
- B) No, unless the investigation authority has formally granted authorisation
- C) Yes, the wreckage must be cleared as soon as possible to prevent interference by third parties
- D) Yes, if only material damage has occurred
Answer
B)
Explanation
Modifying an accident site is prohibited without formal authorization from the investigation authority, except for essential rescue measures.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q102: The pilot loses sight of the tow plane during aerotow. How must he react? ^t70q102
DE · FR
- A) Extend the airbrakes and wait
- B) Prepare for a parachute bailout
- C) Contact the tow pilot by radio and ask for position
- D) Immediately release the rope
Answer
D)
Explanation
If the pilot loses sight of the tow plane, immediately release the rope. Continuing tow flight without seeing the tow plane is extremely dangerous.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q103: Is wearing a parachute compulsory in gliders? ^t70q103
DE · FR
- A) For all flights above 300 m AGL
- B) Only for aerobatic flights
- C) Yes, always
- D) No
Answer
D)
Explanation
Wearing a parachute is not mandatory for gliders in Switzerland for normal flights. It is recommended but not regulatory.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
Q104: You need to land on a 400 m field with a moderate tailwind. How do you fly the final approach? ^t70q104
DE · FR
- A) Faster than with a headwind
- B) Slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than with a headwind
- C) At best glide speed, slightly higher than with a headwind
- D) Normally, with a sideslip
Answer
B)
Explanation
With tailwind on a 400 m field: approach slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than with headwind. Tailwind increases ground speed.
Source
Q105: You see a motor glider with its engine running at the same altitude approaching from your right. How do you react? ^t70q105
DE · FR
- A) Extend the airbrakes and give way downward
- B) Maintain your heading, keeping the motor glider in sight
- C) Give way to the right
- D) Give way to the left
Answer
C)
Explanation
A powered motorglider coming from the right has right of way (converging routes rule). You must give way to the right to let it pass.
Source
Q106: You are flying in a glider-specific restricted zone (LS-R). What cloud separation distances must you observe? (vertical/horizontal) ^t70q106
DE · FR
- A) Clear of clouds with flight visibility
- B) 100 m vertically, 300 m horizontally
- C) 300 m vertically, 1500 m horizontally
- D) 50 m vertically, 100 m horizontally
Answer
D)
Explanation
In a glider-specific restricted zone (LS-R), reduced distances apply: 50 m vertically and 100 m horizontally from clouds (instead of standard distances).
Source
Q107: What is the correct sequence for abandoning a glider and bailing out by parachute? ^t70q107
DE · FR
- A) Unfasten harness, release canopy, jump, open parachute
- B) Release canopy, unfasten harness, jump, open parachute
- C) Release canopy, unfasten harness, open parachute, jump
- D) Unfasten harness, pull parachute handle, release canopy, jump
Answer
B)
Explanation
In case of parachute bailout: 1) Release canopy 2) Unfasten harness 3) Jump 4) Open parachute. Order is crucial for safety.
Source
Q108: How should a landing on a slope be performed? ^t70q108
DE · FR
- A) Always facing uphill regardless of wind
- B) With left wind, across the slope
- C) Always across the slope
- D) Downhill into the wind
Answer
D)
Explanation
Landing on a slope: always downhill into the wind. Uphill + tailwind would dangerously extend the landing distance.
Source
Q109: Which type of terrain is particularly well suited for an off-field landing? ^t70q109
DE · FR
- A) A large flat field, oriented into the wind, free of obstacles on the approach path
- B) A field of tall crops that would help brake the glider
- C) A vast, freshly ploughed field sloping upward
- D) A field near a road and a telephone
Answer
A)
Explanation
The best field for an off-field landing is a large flat field, oriented into the wind, free of obstacles on the approach axis.
Source
Q110: An off-field landing ends in a ground loop caused by an obstacle. The fuselage breaks near the rudder. What must be done? ^t70q110
DE · FR
- A) If it is a minor accident, no report is necessary
- B) Immediately notify the aviation accident investigation bureau via REGA
- C) Notify the nearest police station
- D) Notify FOCA in writing
Answer
B)
Explanation
A fuselage broken near the rudder after a ground loop = serious accident. Immediately notify the accident investigation bureau (via REGA if necessary).
Source
Q111: A glider pilot must make an off-field landing in mountainous terrain. The only available landing site has a steep incline. How should the landing be executed? ^t70q111
DE · FR
- A) Approach downhill at increased speed, pushing the elevator to follow the terrain during landing
- B) Approach at minimum speed with a careful flare upon reaching the landing site
- C) Approach at increased speed with a quick flare to follow the inclined ground
- D) Approach parallel to the ridge into the prevailing wind
Answer
C)
Explanation
When an off-field landing on inclined terrain is unavoidable, the correct technique is to approach with increased speed and perform a quick, firm flare to match the glider's pitch attitude to the slope angle at touchdown — this minimises the relative vertical velocity on contact. Landing down a ridge (option A) dramatically increases ground speed and roll-out distance, risking a collision with terrain ahead. Approaching parallel to the ridge (option D) ignores the slope problem. Minimum speed (option B) leaves no energy margin for the flare on sloped ground.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q112: On final approach, you realise the landing gear was not extended. How should the landing be performed? ^t70q112
DE · FR
- A) Retract flaps, extend the gear, and land normally
- B) Extend the gear immediately and land as usual
- C) Land gear-up at higher than usual speed
- D) Land gear-up, touching down carefully at minimum speed
Answer
D)
Explanation
If the gear is not extended on final approach and there is insufficient height to safely extend it, the safest action is to complete a gear-up landing at minimum speed, accepting a belly-landing with controlled, gentle touchdown. Extending gear at the last moment (option B) risks an asymmetric or partially extended gear, which is more dangerous. Retracting flaps to buy time (option A) alters the approach profile unpredictably close to the ground. Landing without gear at higher speed (option C) worsens the damage and increases risk of injury.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q113: At what height during a winch launch may the maximum pitch attitude be adopted? ^t70q113
DE · FR
- A) From 150 m or higher, when a straight-ahead landing after cable break is no longer possible
- B) From about 50 m, while maintaining a safe launch speed
- C) From 15 m, once a speed of at least 90 km/h is reached
- D) Immediately after lift-off, provided there is a sufficiently strong headwind
Answer
B)
Explanation
During a winch launch, the maximum pitch (steep climb) attitude should not be adopted until approximately 50 m AGL, while maintaining a safe minimum launch speed. Below 50 m, a cable break would not allow a straight-ahead landing if the nose is too high; above 50 m there is sufficient height to recover. 15 m is too low and dangerous. 150 m is overly conservative and wastes the launch energy. Pitching up immediately after liftoff (option D) is extremely hazardous regardless of headwind.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q114: What factors must be considered for approach and landing speed? ^t70q114
DE · FR
- A) Altitude and weight
- B) Wind speed and altitude
- C) Aircraft weight and wind speed
- D) Wind speed and weight
Answer
C)
Explanation
Approach and landing speed must account for both aircraft weight and wind conditions (including gusts). A heavier aircraft requires a higher approach speed to maintain adequate safety margin above stall. Higher winds — especially gusts — require an additional speed increment to avoid sudden loss of airspeed and lift. Altitude alone does not directly determine approach speed.
- Options A, B, and D are incomplete; option C correctly names both weight and wind speed.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q115: How can you determine wind direction when making an out-landing? ^t70q115
DE · FR
- A) Recall the wind shown by the windsock at the departure airfield
- B) Ask other pilots reachable by radio
- C) Observe smoke, flags, and rippling fields
- D) Use the wind forecast from the flight weather report
Answer
C)
Explanation
During an outlanding, visual cues in the environment are the most reliable and immediately available indicators of wind direction and strength: smoke drifting from chimneys, flags, and rippling crops clearly show the current local wind. A weather forecast (option D) may not reflect local conditions precisely at that moment. Radio contact with other pilots (option B) is unreliable and slow. The windsock at the departure airfield (option A) is irrelevant to conditions at the outlanding site.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q116: What landing technique is recommended for a downhill grass area? ^t70q116
DE · FR
- A) Full airbrakes, gear retracted, and stalled
- B) Generally land uphill
- C) Diagonal downhill
- D) Wheel brake applied, no airbrakes
Answer
B)
Explanation
On a downhill grass area, landing uphill means the aircraft is climbing toward the ground, which naturally decelerates the glider and shortens the roll-out — this is the recommended technique. Landing diagonally downhill (option C) risks ground-looping. Using wheel brakes without airbrakes (option D) may be ineffective or cause a nose-over on rough terrain. Landing with gear retracted and stalled (option A) is dangerous and unnecessary.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q117: What must be verified before any change of direction during glide? ^t70q117
DE · FR
- A) That the turn will be flown in coordination
- B) That loose objects are secured
- C) That there are thermal clouds in the area
- D) That the airspace in the intended direction is clear
Answer
D)
Explanation
Before initiating any turn during flight, the pilot must first check that the airspace in the intended direction is clear of other aircraft, obstacles, and restricted areas. A coordinated turn (option A) is always desirable but is secondary to the lookout. Thermal clouds (option C) and loose objects (option B) are not safety priorities before a heading change. Collision avoidance through a proper lookout is the primary concern.
Source
Q118: Before a winch launch you detect a light tailwind. What must be considered? ^t70q118
DE · FR
- A) A weaker rated weak link can be used, since the load will be smaller
- B) The ground roll to lift-off will be longer; watch the airspeed
- C) Full elevator back-pressure immediately after lift-off to gain extra height
- D) The ground roll to lift-off will be shorter since the tailwind pushes from behind
Answer
B)
Explanation
A tailwind during winch launch means the aircraft has a lower airspeed relative to the ground at any given ground speed, so more ground roll is needed before reaching flying speed — liftoff takes longer and the pilot must monitor the airspeed carefully. Tailwind does not reduce the required cable tension rating (option A). Tailwind from behind reduces effective airspeed, so the roll is longer, not shorter (option D is incorrect). Pulling back immediately after liftoff in a tailwind is hazardous (option C).
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q119: During the approach for landing in a strong crosswind, how should the base-to-final turn be flown? ^t70q119
DE · FR
- A) Maximum 60-degree bank, use rudder to align early with the final track
- B) Maximum 30-degree bank, use rudder to align early with the final track
- C) Maximum 60-degree bank, watch speed and yaw string carefully, correct track after any overshoot
- D) Maximum 30-degree bank, watch speed and yaw string carefully, correct track after any overshoot
Answer
D)
Explanation
On the base-to-final turn, a maximum bank angle of 30° is recommended to keep turn coordination manageable and to avoid the risk of a low-speed stall-spin. The yaw string (slip indicator) and airspeed must be closely monitored because crosswind complicates the turn geometry. If the aircraft overshoots the final track, a gentle track correction is made after the turn — never a steep rudder input to force alignment, as this risks a skidded stall.
- Options A and C allow up to 60° bank, which is excessive and dangerous near the ground.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q120: While thermalling, another sailplane follows closely behind. What should you do to avoid a collision? ^t70q120
DE · FR
- A) Increase bank to become more visible to the other sailplane
- B) Reduce bank to widen the turn radius
- C) Reduce speed to let the other sailplane pass
- D) Increase speed to move to a position opposite in the circle
Answer
D)
Explanation
When two sailplanes are circling in the same thermal in close proximity, the most effective way to create separation is to increase speed, which increases the turn radius and moves the faster aircraft to a position opposite in the circle (180° apart), creating the maximum safe separation. Reducing speed (option C) tightens the radius and closes the gap. Reducing bank (option B) also increases radius but slowly. Increasing bank (option A) makes the glider smaller in profile but does not solve the proximity problem.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q121: What altitudes should be planned for the landing pattern phases in a glider? ^t70q121
DE · FR
- A) 300 m abeam the threshold and 150 m on final approach
- B) 500 m abeam the threshold and 50 m after the final turn
- C) 150–200 m abeam the threshold and 100 m after the final turn
- D) 100 m abeam the threshold and 50 m after the final turn
Answer
C)
Explanation
Standard traffic pattern heights for a glider are approximately 150–200 m AGL abeam the threshold (downwind leg) and 100 m AGL after the final turn. These heights give the pilot adequate time and space to plan the approach and use airbrakes effectively for a precise landing. The lower heights in options D and B leave insufficient margin for corrections; the higher values in option A are excessive for unpowered glider operations.
Key Terms
AGL = Above Ground Level
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q122: How should a glider be secured when strong winds are observed? ^t70q122
DE · FR
- A) Nose into the wind, extend airbrakes, lock the controls
- B) Nose into the wind, weigh down and secure the tail
- C) Downwind wing on the ground, weigh the wing down, lock the controls
- D) Windward wing on the ground, weigh the wing down, lock the controls
Answer
D)
Explanation
In strong winds, the windward (upwind) wing should be placed on the ground to prevent the wind from getting under it and flipping the aircraft. The wing is then weighted down with a sandbag or similar weight, and the control surfaces (rudder) are secured to prevent them from being damaged by aerodynamic buffeting. Pointing the nose into wind (options A and B) presents a large fuselage surface to cross-gusts and does not protect the wings. Placing the downwind wing on the ground (option C) allows the upwind wing to be lifted by the wind.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q123: What must be considered when crossing mountain ridges? ^t70q123
DE · FR
- A) Do not overfly national parks
- B) Reduce to minimum speed because of turbulence
- C) Use circling birds to locate thermal cells
- D) Expect turbulence and increase speed slightly
Answer
D)
Explanation
Mountain ridges produce significant turbulence on the lee side and in the rotor zone, but turbulence can also occur directly at the ridge crest. Flying slightly faster than normal provides better control authority and reduces the risk of a stall in turbulence. Reducing to minimum speed (option B) is dangerous as turbulence could cause the aircraft to stall. Overflight of national parks (option A) is a regulatory matter, not a primary safety consideration when crossing ridges. Circling birds indicate thermals (option C) but this does not address the turbulence hazard of ridge crossing.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q124: What does "buffeting" felt through the elevator stick indicate? ^t70q124
DE · FR
- A) Centre of gravity too far forward
- B) Aircraft surface very dirty
- C) Flying too slowly — wing airflow separating
- D) Flying too fast — turbulence impacting the ailerons
Answer
C)
Explanation
Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is a classic aerodynamic warning of an approaching stall: separated airflow from the wings passes over the tail surface, causing the elevator to vibrate. This occurs at low airspeed when the angle of attack exceeds the critical angle. A forward CG (option A) makes the aircraft more stable and resistant to stall. A dirty airframe (option B) may affect performance but does not directly cause elevator buffeting. Turbulence at high speed (option D) would be felt as general airframe shaking, not specifically at the elevator.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q125: When must a pre-flight check be performed? ^t70q125
DE · FR
- A) Once a month; for TMGs, once a day
- B) Before every flight operation and before every single flight
- C) Before the first flight of the day and after every change of pilot
- D) After every assembly of the aircraft
Answer
C)
Explanation
A pre-flight check (walk-around and cockpit check) must be performed before the first flight of the day and after every change of pilot, because each pilot is responsible for verifying the aircraft's airworthiness before they fly it. A check after every assembly (option D) applies to aircraft that are dismantled between flights (trailer gliders) — this is a separate requirement. Monthly checks (option A) describe maintenance intervals, not pre-flight procedures.
- Option B ('before every flight') is too broad and would be burdensome; it is the daily first-flight and pilot-change rule that is standard practice.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q126: How is the term "flight time" defined? ^t70q126
DE · FR
- A) The total time from the first take-off to the final landing across one or more consecutive flights.
- B) The interval from engine start for departure until the pilot leaves the aircraft after engine shutdown.
- C) The interval from the beginning of the take-off run to the final touchdown on landing.
- D) The total time from the aircraft's first movement until it finally comes to rest after the flight.
Answer
D)
Explanation
ICAO Annex 1 defines flight time for aircraft as the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. For sailplanes (non-motorised), this is interpreted as from first movement (e.g., the start of the winch run or aerotow) until the aircraft comes to rest after landing.
- Option B describes block time for powered aircraft.
- Option C is too narrow (only the take-off and landing roll).
- Option A describes a duty period concept, not a single flight.
Key Terms
ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization
Source
Q127: During approach, the tower reports: "Wind 15 knots, gusts 25 knots." How should the landing be performed? ^t70q127
DE · FR
- A) Approach at minimum speed, correcting attitude changes with gentle rudder inputs
- B) Approach at increased speed, avoiding the use of spoilers
- C) Approach at normal speed, controlling speed with spoilers
- D) Approach at increased speed, correcting attitude changes with firm rudder inputs
Answer
D)
Explanation
With strong gusts (here: wind 15 kt, gusts 25 kt — a 10 kt spread), the pilot must add a gust allowance to the normal approach speed to ensure that a sudden drop in airspeed caused by a gust does not reduce speed below the stall speed. Firm rudder inputs are needed to correct attitude changes caused by the gusty conditions. Minimum speed (option A) provides no safety margin in gusts. Normal speed without gust correction (option C) is insufficient. Avoiding spoilers/airbrakes (option B) removes the ability to control the glide path precisely.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q128: What does buffeting felt through the elevator stick indicate? ^t70q128
DE · FR
- A) Aircraft surface very dirty
- B) Flying too fast — turbulence hitting the ailerons
- C) Centre of gravity too far forward
- D) Flying too slowly — wing airflow is separating
Answer
D)
Explanation
Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is the tactile warning that the wing has approached its critical angle of attack and airflow is beginning to separate — the pre-stall buffet. This is caused by turbulent separated airflow from the wing reaching the tail and exciting the elevator.
- Option C (CG too far forward) makes the aircraft pitch-stable and stall-resistant.
- Option A (dirty airframe) degrades performance but does not specifically cause elevator buffeting.
- Option B (high speed turbulence) produces general airframe vibration unrelated to stall.
Key Terms
CG = Centre of Gravity
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q129: Which system is available at every aerodrome for meteorological briefing for glider flights? ^t70q129
DE · FR
- A) AMIE
- B) GAFOR
- C) KOSIF
- D) METAR
Answer
A)
Explanation
AMIE (Automated Meteorological Information for Enquirers) is the automated weather briefing system available at all Swiss aerodromes. It provides pilots with standardised pre-flight weather information for glider operations.
Source
Q130: In which section of the AIP can you find specific regulations for glider operations in Switzerland? ^t70q130
DE · FR
- A) AIP GEN 3-5
- B) AIP ENR 2-1
- C) AIP ENR 5-2
- D) AIP RAC 6-1
Answer
D)
Explanation
AIP RAC 6-1 contains the specific rules and regulations for glider and motorglider operations in Switzerland, including airspace usage, tow procedures, and operational requirements specific to gliders.
Source
Q131: What does the manoeuvring speed V(A) represent? ^t70q131
DE · FR
- A) The maximum speed in turbulence
- B) The maximum speed at which full control deflection can be applied without exceeding structural limits
- C) The speed at which the glider stalls
- D) The maximum airspeed of the glider
Answer
B)
Explanation
V(A) is the manoeuvring speed - the maximum speed at which full and abrupt control deflections can be applied without exceeding the structural design limits of the aircraft. Below V(A), the wing will stall before structural damage occurs.
Source
Q132: A glide ratio of 45 means: ^t70q132
DE · FR
- A) For every 45 m of horizontal distance, the glider descends 1 m
- B) The glider can fly for 45 minutes without thermals
- C) The glider descends 45 m for every 1 m of horizontal distance
- D) The glider has a minimum sink rate of 45 cm/s
Answer
A)
Explanation
Glide ratio (also called best glide or finesse) is the ratio of horizontal distance to altitude lost. A glide ratio of 45:1 means the glider travels 45 metres horizontally for every 1 metre of altitude lost. This is a measure of aerodynamic efficiency.
The diagram illustrates: for every 1 m of height lost (h), the glider covers 45 m horizontally (d).
Source
Q133: What is the risk of flying a glider above V(NE)? ^t70q133
DE · FR
- A) Loss of yaw control
- B) The glider will stall
- C) Flutter and structural failure
- D) The airspeed indicator becomes unreliable
Answer
C)
Explanation
Exceeding V(NE) (never-exceed speed) risks aeroelastic flutter - a self-sustaining, potentially catastrophic oscillation of structural components. Flutter can develop rapidly and lead to structural failure. V(NE) is the absolute speed limit that must never be exceeded.
Source
Q134: In which speed range can structural overload occur? ^t70q134
DE · FR
- A) Below V(S)
- B) Between V(A) and V(NE)
- C) Only above V(NE)
- D) Between V(S) and V(A)
Answer
B)
Explanation
Between V(A) and V(NE), full control deflection can cause structural overload because the aircraft has enough speed to generate forces exceeding structural limits before a stall occurs. Below V(A), a stall provides protection; above V(NE), flutter is the primary risk.
Source
Q135: Compared to straight and level flight, the stall speed in a banked turn is: ^t70q135
DE · FR
- A) Lower, because centrifugal force assists lift
- B) Higher, because the effective load factor increases
- C) The same, as stall speed depends only on aircraft weight
- D) Lower in shallow turns, higher in steep turns
Answer
B)
Explanation
In a banked turn, the wing must support a higher load factor (n = 1/cos(bank angle)) to maintain altitude. Since stall speed increases with the square root of the load factor, stall speed increases significantly in steep turns. At 60° bank, stall speed is 1.41 times the wings-level value.
Source
Q136: What is the consequence of repeatedly exceeding the maximum permissible load factor? ^t70q136
DE · FR
- A) The glider's glide ratio decreases permanently
- B) The control forces increase
- C) The stall speed increases permanently
- D) Material fatigue and risk of structural failure
Answer
D)
Explanation
Repeatedly exceeding structural load limits causes cumulative material fatigue. Each overload cycle weakens the structure, eventually leading to premature failure at loads that would normally be safe. A glider subjected to overload must be inspected by a licensed maintenance engineer before further flight.
Source
Q137: Why is it dangerous to fly at minimum speed in strong turbulence? ^t70q137
DE · FR
- A) The airspeed indicator becomes unreliable at low speeds
- B) The glider loses radio contact at low altitude
- C) A gust can instantly reduce angle of attack below the stall angle
- D) Flutter is more likely at low speeds
Answer
C)
Explanation
In turbulence, gusts can change the effective angle of attack suddenly. Flying near minimum speed (close to stall) leaves almost no margin: a downward gust can instantly push the wing beyond the critical angle of attack, causing an unexpected stall. The recommended turbulence penetration speed provides adequate stall margin.
Source
Q138: When lost and uncertain of your position, which radio service can provide a bearing to help you navigate? ^t70q138
DE · FR
- A) ATIS
- B) VOLMET
- C) VDF (VHF Direction Finding)
- D) ACARS
Answer
C)
Explanation
VDF (VHF Direction Finding) is a ground-based radio direction finding service. When a pilot transmits on the appropriate frequency, the VDF station can provide a QDM (magnetic heading to steer to reach the station) or QTE (true bearing from the station), helping a lost pilot determine their position and navigate to safety.
Source
Q139: What colour coding identifies medical oxygen cylinders approved for aviation use? ^t70q139
DE · FR
- A) Blue body / blue-white shoulder / green label
- B) Green body / white shoulder / blue label
- C) White body / blue shoulder / green label
- D) Black body / white shoulder / red label
Answer
A)
Explanation
Medical oxygen cylinders for aviation use are identified by a blue body with a blue-white shoulder and a green label indicating medical-grade oxygen. Industrial oxygen must never be used for aviation breathing purposes as it may contain impurities harmful at altitude.
Source
Q140: Which external factor most significantly reduces the strength of a parachute? ^t70q140
DE · FR
- A) Prolonged exposure to sunlight (UV radiation)
- B) Exposure to high humidity
- C) Repeated packing and unpacking
- D) Low temperatures during storage
Answer
A)
Explanation
UV radiation from sunlight degrades nylon and other synthetic fibres used in parachute canopies and lines. Even brief exposure to direct sunlight causes measurable strength reduction, which is why parachutes must be stored away from light, regularly inspected, and repacked by qualified riggers within mandatory intervals.
Source
