Meteorology


Q1: What clouds and weather may develop when a humid and unstable air mass is pushed against a mountain chain by the prevailing wind and forced upward? ^t50q1

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Answer

C)

Explanation

When unstable, humid air is forced to rise orographically, it triggers convective instability — air that is conditionally unstable becomes absolutely unstable once lifting begins. The resulting rapid ascent fuels cumulonimbus development, producing embedded CBs with thunderstorms, heavy showers, and hail. Stable air masses under the same conditions produce layered clouds (Ns or As) with steady rain, not convective storms.

Key Terms

CB = Cumulonimbus (thunderstorm cloud) ### Q2: What type of fog forms when humid and nearly saturated air is forced to rise along the slopes of hills or shallow mountains by the prevailing wind? ^t50q2

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Orographic fog forms when wind-driven humid air is mechanically lifted along a slope, cooling adiabatically until it reaches the dew point. Radiation fog requires calm nights with radiative ground cooling, advection fog forms when warm moist air moves over a cold surface, and steaming fog (Arctic sea smoke) occurs when cold air passes over warm water — none of these involve slope-forced lifting.

Q3: What phenomenon is known as "blue thermals"? ^t50q3

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Answer

C)

Explanation

"Blue thermals" exist when the lifting condensation level (LCL) is very high — the air is too dry to reach its dew point before the thermal tops out. As a result, thermals rise but no cumulus clouds form, leaving the sky clear ("blue"). For glider pilots this is challenging since there are no visual cloud markers to indicate thermal location, and the cloudbase is beyond the thermal ceiling.

Q4: The expression "beginning of thermals" refers to the moment when thermal intensity ^t50q4

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Answer

B)

Explanation

Thermal activity is considered to have "begun" when thermals are strong enough to support gliding and extend to at least 600 m AGL — sufficient altitude to work the lift. Below this height, thermals may exist but are too shallow to be safely exploited by a glider. Cloud formation is not a prerequisite; blue thermals (see Q3) can also mark the beginning of usable thermal activity.

Key Terms

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Answer

A)

Explanation

The trigger temperature is the minimum surface temperature that must be reached before thermals can rise to the condensation level and form cumulus clouds. It is derived from the aerological diagram (tephigram/Stüve diagram) by tracing the dry adiabatic lapse rate from the morning sounding's moisture level back to the surface. Until this temperature is reached, thermals may exist but will not produce cumulus markers.

Q6: What is meant by "over-development" in a weather report? ^t50q6

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Over-development occurs when cumulus clouds continue growing vertically beyond the thermal inversion or become self-sustaining through latent heat release, developing into cumulonimbus (Cb) with heavy rain showers, lightning, and hail. This typically happens during humid summer afternoons when atmospheric instability is high and the inhibiting layer is weak. For glider pilots, over-development signals the end of safe soaring conditions and a need to land.

Q7: The gliding weather report indicates environmental instability. Morning dew is present on the grass and no thermals are currently active. What thermal development can be expected? ^t50q7

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Answer

C)

Explanation

Morning dew indicates the air cooled to the dew point overnight (radiation cooling), but this is temporary. Once solar insolation heats the ground, the surface temperature rises, warming the air above it until the temperature exceeds the trigger temperature. Environmental instability means the lapse rate is steep enough to sustain thermals once they begin, so good thermal conditions are likely to develop during the morning hours.

Q8: What effect on thermal activity can be expected when cirrus clouds approach from one direction and become increasingly dense, blocking the sun? ^t50q8

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Answer

C)

Explanation

Thermals are driven by differential heating of the ground by solar radiation. Thickening cirrus clouds progressively filter out solar energy, reducing ground heating and therefore thermal strength and depth. Dense cirrus can reduce insolation enough to stop thermal activity entirely. Additionally, approaching cirrus from one direction often indicates an advancing warm front, which brings widespread cloud, stable conditions, and further suppression of thermals.

Q9: What situation is known as "shielding"? ^t50q9

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Shielding describes the effect of high or medium cloud layers (cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus) that block solar radiation and suppress thermal development below. Even partial cloud cover at these levels can significantly reduce ground insolation. Gliding forecasts include shielding assessments to indicate when and where thermals will be weakened or absent due to cloud cover above the expected thermal layer.

Q10: While planning a 500 km triangle flight, there is a squall line 100 km west of the departure airfield, extending north to south and moving east. What would be a sensible decision regarding the weather? ^t50q10

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Answer

C)

Explanation

A squall line is an organized line of severe thunderstorms that is notoriously fast-moving, unpredictable, and extremely dangerous. Moving at typical speeds of 30–60 km/h, a squall line 100 km away could reach the airfield within 2–3 hours. Flying below Cb cloud bases or attempting to navigate between cells exposes the glider to extreme turbulence, windshear, hail, and downdrafts. The only safe option is to not fly until the hazard has completely passed.

Q11: What is the gas composition of "air"? ^t50q11

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Dry air by volume is approximately 78% nitrogen (N2), 21% oxygen (O2), and the remaining 1% consists of argon, carbon dioxide, and other trace gases. Water vapour is variable (0–4%) and is not counted in the standard dry-air composition. Knowing air composition is fundamental to understanding atmospheric physics, density calculations, and the behaviour of aircraft engines and instruments.

Q12: In which atmospheric layer are weather phenomena predominantly found? ^t50q12

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Answer

B)

Explanation

The troposphere extends from the surface to approximately 8–16 km depending on latitude and season. It contains approximately 75–80% of the atmosphere's total mass and almost all its water vapour. Convection, cloud formation, precipitation, fronts, and wind phenomena all occur here because temperature decreases with height, driving convective instability. Above the tropopause, the stratosphere is stable and largely cloud-free.

Q13: What is the mass of a "cube of air" with 1 m edges at MSL according to ISA? ^t50q13

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Answer

C)

Explanation

According to the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), air density at mean sea level is 1.225 kg/m³. Therefore a 1 m³ cube of air has a mass of 1.225 kg. This density value is fundamental to aviation: it affects lift, drag, engine power, and altimeter calibration. Density decreases with altitude and increases temperature/humidity changes also affect it, which is why density altitude matters for aircraft performance.

Key Terms

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Answer

C)

Explanation

The ISA standard lapse rate is 1.98°C per 1000 ft (approximately 2°C/1000 ft), or 6.5°C per 1000 m. This is the Environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) used as a reference for altimeter calibration and pressure calculations. The actual ELR varies with weather conditions — steeper than ISA indicates instability and favours thermals, shallower or negative (inversion) indicates stability and suppresses convection.

Key Terms

ISA = International Standard Atmosphere ### Q15: What is the mean tropopause height according to the ISA (ICAO Standard Atmosphere)? ^t50q15

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Answer

D)

Explanation

The ISA tropopause is defined at 11,000 m (approximately 36,089 ft), where the temperature reaches -56.5°C and then remains constant with height into the lower stratosphere. In reality the tropopause height varies: it is lower over the poles (~8 km) and higher over the tropics (~16 km), and fluctuates with season and synoptic weather patterns. Cumulonimbus tops that penetrate the tropopause are especially violent.

Key Terms

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Answer

B)

Explanation

The tropopause is the transition boundary between the troposphere (where temperature decreases with height) and the stratosphere (where temperature initially remains constant then increases due to ozone absorption of UV radiation). It acts as a "lid" on convection — cumulonimbus clouds that reach it spread out laterally to form the characteristic anvil shape. Jet streams are located near the tropopause.

Q17: In which unit are temperatures reported by European meteorological aviation services? ^t50q17

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Answer

C)

Explanation

European aviation meteorology (ICAO Annex 3, EU regulations) specifies temperatures in degrees Celsius (°C) for all operational products including METARs, TAFs, SIGMETs, and forecast charts. Kelvin is used in scientific and upper-air calculations. Fahrenheit is used in the US and a few other countries but not in European aviation. This standardisation is critical for correct interpretation of icing levels, freezing level heights, and density altitude.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q18: What is meant by an "inversion layer"? ^t50q18

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Answer

A)

Explanation

An inversion "inverts" the normal lapse rate — instead of temperature falling with height, it rises. This creates a very stable layer that acts as a lid on convection, trapping thermals below it, concentrating pollutants, and promoting fog and low cloud formation beneath it. For glider pilots, a low-level inversion caps thermal height; a subsidence inversion in a high-pressure system limits soaring altitude and is often associated with haze.

Q19: What is meant by an "isothermal layer"? ^t50q19

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Answer

D)

Explanation

An isothermal layer maintains constant temperature with increasing altitude. Like an inversion, it is more stable than the standard atmosphere and inhibits convection. The lower stratosphere exhibits an isothermal region immediately above the tropopause. Isothermal layers can also occur in the troposphere and, like inversions, act as a cap on thermal development and cloud growth.

Q20: The temperature lapse rate with increasing altitude within the troposphere according to ISA is ^t50q20

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Answer

B)

Explanation

The ISA Environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is 6.5°C per 1000 m, or 0.65°C per 100 m (approximately 2°C per 1000 ft). This is distinct from the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) of 1°C/100 m and the Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate (SALR) of approximately 0.6°C/100 m. When the actual ELR is steeper than the DALR, the atmosphere is absolutely unstable; when it lies between the DALR and SALR, the atmosphere is conditionally unstable — the typical situation for thermal soaring.

Key Terms

ISA = International Standard Atmosphere ### Q21: Which process may produce an inversion layer at around 5000 ft (1500 m) altitude? ^t50q21

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Subsidence inversion forms when air in the centre of a high-pressure area sinks over a wide area. As the air descends, it warms adiabatically, but because the lower air has not warmed at the same rate, the descending layer becomes warmer than the air below it — creating an inversion, typically around 1500–3000 m. This is characteristic of anticyclonic conditions: stable weather, limited convection, and haze or smog trapped below the inversion.

Q22: A ground-level inversion can be caused by ^t50q22

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Answer

A)

Explanation

Radiation inversion forms on calm, clear nights when the ground radiates heat into space and cools rapidly. The air in contact with the ground also cools, while air a few hundred metres above remains warmer — creating a temperature inversion near the surface. This type of inversion is common in anticyclonic conditions and often produces radiation fog or low stratus in the morning, which burns off as the sun heats the ground.

Q23: What is the ISA standard pressure at FL 180 (5500 m)? ^t50q23

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Answer

B)

Explanation

In the International Standard Atmosphere, pressure at approximately 5500 m (FL180) is 500 hPa — exactly half the sea-level pressure of 1013.25 hPa. The 500 hPa level is a key reference level in synoptic meteorology and is used extensively in upper-air charts. Pressure decreases approximately logarithmically with altitude, halving roughly every 5500 m in the lower troposphere.

Key Terms

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Air density is governed by the ideal gas law: density = pressure / (specific gas constant × temperature). Density decreases when pressure decreases (fewer molecules per unit volume) or when temperature increases (molecules move faster and spread apart). Both increasing temperature AND decreasing pressure simultaneously reduce density most effectively. This is why density altitude (the altitude equivalent of the actual air density) matters for aircraft performance on hot, high-altitude airfields.

Q25: The pressure at MSL under ISA conditions is ^t50q25

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Answer

D)

Explanation

The ISA (ICAO Standard Atmosphere) defines sea-level pressure as 1013.25 hPa (also expressed as 29.92 inHg in US aviation). This is the standard QNE setting — with 1013.25 hPa set on the altimeter subscale, the instrument reads Flight Level. All pressure altitudes and flight level definitions are based on this datum. Actual sea-level pressure varies with weather systems and must be corrected via QNH for accurate altitude indication.

Key Terms

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Answer

C)

Explanation

The ISA tropopause is located at 11,000 m, which equals approximately 36,089 ft (effectively 36,000 ft). Above this level, the standard atmosphere defines a constant temperature of -56.5°C up to 20,000 m (the isothermal stratospheric layer). This is distinct from Q15 which asks in metres — both questions test knowledge of the same value expressed in different units.

Key Terms

ISA = International Standard Atmosphere ### Q27: The barometric altimeter shows height above ^t50q27

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Answer

D)

Explanation

The barometric altimeter measures atmospheric pressure and converts it to altitude based on the ISA pressure-altitude relationship. Crucially, it indicates height above whatever pressure level is set on the subscale (Kollsman window). Set QNH and it reads altitude above mean sea level; set QFE and it reads height above the reference airfield; set 1013.25 hPa (QNE) and it reads flight level. The altimeter always references a pressure level, not a physical surface.

Key Terms

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Answer

B)

Explanation

QNH is the local altimeter setting that makes the instrument read the airfield's elevation above mean sea level when on the ground. Setting QNH and checking that the altimeter reads the known airfield elevation (published in AIP/chart) verifies the altimeter is functioning correctly and calibrated. QFE would show zero (height above airfield), QNE (1013.25) would show a value unrelated to actual elevation, and QFF is a meteorological value reduced to MSL for surface analysis charts.

Key Terms

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Answer

D)

Explanation

QFE is the actual atmospheric pressure at airfield elevation. When set on the altimeter subscale, the instrument reads zero on the ground at the reference airfield and subsequently indicates height above that reference pressure level — effectively height above the airfield. This setting is commonly used in circuit flying and gliding operations so the altimeter directly reads AGL height at the home airfield. It does not account for terrain elevation differences elsewhere.

Key Terms

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Answer

A)

Explanation

QNH is the altimeter setting adjusted to make the instrument read the elevation above mean sea level at the station. It is calculated by reducing the airfield QFE to sea level using the ISA temperature gradient. With QNH set, the altimeter reads the airfield elevation on the ground and true altitude above MSL in the air (assuming ISA conditions). Note that "true altitude" (answer A) accounts for actual temperature deviations from ISA — QNH gives indicated altitude, which may differ from true altitude in non-ISA conditions.

Key Terms

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Isobars (lines of equal pressure) on surface weather charts reveal both wind direction and speed:

Key Terms

Q32: Which force is responsible for causing "wind"? ^t50q32

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Answer

C)

Explanation

Wind is initiated by the pressure gradient force (PGF) — air accelerates from high pressure toward low pressure due to differences in atmospheric pressure. The Coriolis force deflects the moving air (to the right in the Northern Hemisphere) but does not cause the initial motion. Centrifugal force acts in curved flow around pressure systems. Thermal effects create pressure differences which then drive the PGF. Without a pressure gradient there would be no wind.

Q33: Above the friction layer, with a prevailing pressure gradient, the wind direction is ^t50q33

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Answer

C)

Explanation

Above the friction layer (roughly 600–1000 m AGL), the Coriolis force and pressure gradient force balance each other, producing geostrophic flow parallel to the isobars. In the friction layer below, surface drag slows the wind, reduces the Coriolis deflection, and allows the wind to cross isobars at an angle toward lower pressure (typically 10–30°). Understanding this is essential for predicting wind direction at altitude versus near the surface.

Key Terms

AGL = Above Ground Level ### Q34: Which of the listed surfaces causes the greatest wind speed reduction due to ground friction? ^t50q34

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Surface roughness (aerodynamic roughness length) determines how much friction the surface exerts on moving air. Mountainous terrain with vegetation has the highest roughness length, causing maximum turbulent drag and wind speed reduction. Oceans have very low roughness and exert minimal friction. Flat vegetated land is intermediate. Importantly, mountains also mechanically block and deflect wind, creating additional complex flow patterns, turbulence, and wave phenomena of direct relevance to glider pilots.

Q35: The movement of air flowing together is called ^t50q35

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Convergence describes air flowing into a region from different directions, compressing horizontally. By mass continuity, converging surface air must go somewhere — it is forced upward, triggering cloud formation, precipitation, and potentially convective development. Convergence zones are important for glider pilots as they produce enhanced lift along their axes; sea-breeze fronts and col zones between pressure systems are classic convergence sources for soaring.

Q36: The movement of air flowing apart is called ^t50q36

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Answer

C)

Explanation

Divergence describes air spreading outward from a region. At the surface, divergence causes subsiding air from above to replace the outflowing air, promoting stability, clear skies, and fair weather. High-pressure anticyclones are associated with surface divergence and upper-level convergence. In the upper troposphere, divergence above a surface low enhances upward motion and intensifies the low-pressure system.

Q37: What weather development results from convergence at ground level? ^t50q37

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Answer

B)

Explanation

Surface convergence forces air upward (ascending motion) by mass continuity — air cannot accumulate indefinitely at the surface. As air rises, it cools at the dry adiabatic lapse rate until it reaches the dew point (lifting condensation level), where condensation begins and clouds form. Further ascent releases latent heat, potentially fuelling deep convection. This is the fundamental mechanism behind frontal lifting and sea-breeze convergence lift.

Q38: When air masses meet each other head on, what is this referred to and what air movements follow? ^t50q38

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Answer

B)

Explanation

When two opposing air flows collide head-on, the meeting zone is a convergence line. The colliding air has nowhere to go horizontally and is forced upward — producing ascending motion, cloud formation, and potentially precipitation or thunderstorms. This occurs at fronts, sea-breeze convergence zones, and col zones. Glider pilots exploit convergence lines for extended linear climbs along the lift band.

Q39: By which air masses is Central Europe mainly influenced? ^t50q39

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Central Europe sits in the mid-latitude westerly belt between the polar front (cold polar air from the north) and subtropical high pressure (warm tropical air from the south). The interaction between these two contrasting air masses creates the characteristic mid-latitude cyclone (depression) weather of Central Europe: frontal systems, rapidly changing weather, and the full range of cloud types and precipitation. This dynamic contrast also drives the polar jet stream overhead.

Q40: In terms of global atmospheric circulation, where does polar cold air meet subtropical warm air? ^t50q40

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Answer

C)

Explanation

The polar front is the boundary between the polar cell (cold, dense air flowing equatorward) and the Ferrel cell (relatively warmer mid-latitude air). In the Northern Hemisphere it is located roughly between 40–60°N, but its position fluctuates as waves (Rossby waves) develop along it — these waves amplify into cyclones and anticyclones. The jet stream flows along the polar front and is a critical factor in synoptic weather patterns across Europe.

Q41: "Foehn" conditions typically develop with ^t50q41

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Foehn is a warm, dry, descending wind on the lee side of a mountain range. It develops when stable air is pushed by a broad-scale pressure gradient against a mountain barrier. On the windward side, moist air rises and cools at the Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate (SALR ~0.6°C/100 m) after reaching the dew point, precipitating moisture. On the lee side, dry air descends at the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR ~1°C/100 m), arriving warmer and drier than it started — the Foehn effect.

Q42: What type of turbulence is typically encountered close to the ground on the lee side during Foehn conditions? ^t50q42

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Answer

C)

Explanation

During Foehn and mountain wave conditions, a rotor zone develops in the lower troposphere on the lee side beneath the crests of the standing waves. The rotor is a region of intense, chaotic turbulence with rotating air, strong downdrafts, and violent eddies — it is one of the most hazardous phenomena for aircraft. Lenticular clouds (altocumulus lenticularis) mark wave crests above, while rotor clouds (roll clouds) mark the rotor zone near the surface.

Q43: Light turbulence should always be expected ^t50q43

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Cumulus clouds are the visible tops of thermal columns. The sub-cloud layer beneath them contains active thermals (updraughts) and compensating downdraughts between them, creating light to moderate turbulence from convective mixing. This is the normal turbulent environment of thermal soaring. Above cumulus tops the air is generally smoother (outside the cloud); stratiform clouds have minimal convective turbulence unless embedded CBs are present.

Q44: Moderate to severe turbulence should be expected ^t50q44

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Rotor clouds (roll clouds) on the lee side of mountains are the visible indicator of the highly turbulent rotor zone beneath mountain waves. This turbulence can be extreme, with unpredictable up- and downdraughts, strong shear, and rotational forces capable of exceeding aircraft structural limits. Experienced wave pilots avoid or transit the rotor zone quickly with sufficient airspeed. The windward side of mountains typically has orographic cloud and steady lift, not severe turbulence.

Q45: Which answer lists every state of water found in the atmosphere? ^t50q45

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Water exists in all three states within the Earth's atmosphere. Gaseous water vapour is invisible and present throughout the troposphere. Liquid water forms cloud droplets, rain, and drizzle. Solid water forms ice crystals (cirrus clouds), snow, hail, and graupel. Understanding all three states is essential for icing awareness: supercooled liquid water droplets (liquid below 0°C) pose the greatest structural icing hazard to aircraft, as they freeze on contact with cold surfaces.

Q46: How do dew point and relative humidity change when temperature decreases? ^t50q46

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Answer

D)

Explanation

The dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled (at constant pressure and moisture content) for saturation to occur. It is a measure of the absolute moisture content and remains constant as temperature changes (assuming no moisture is added or removed). However, relative humidity — the ratio of actual vapour pressure to saturation vapour pressure — increases as temperature falls, because the saturation vapour pressure decreases with temperature. When temperature equals the dew point, relative humidity reaches 100% and condensation begins.

Q47: How do spread and relative humidity change when temperature increases? ^t50q47

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Answer

C)

Explanation

Spread is the temperature-dew point difference (T - Td). As temperature increases while dew point remains constant, the spread widens. Simultaneously, because warmer air can hold more water vapour, the relative humidity decreases — the air is now further from saturation. A large spread indicates dry air and a high lifting condensation level (high cloud base). A small spread (near zero) indicates saturated or near-saturated conditions, with fog or low cloud likely.

Q48: The "spread" is defined as ^t50q48

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Spread (also called dew point depression) is simply the difference between the air temperature and the dew point temperature: Spread = T - Td. It is used to estimate cloud base height: in temperate latitudes, cloud base height in metres above the surface is approximately spread × 125 (or in feet, spread × 400). A spread of 0 means the air is saturated (fog or cloud at the surface). Spread is a quick indicator of moisture availability for soaring pilots.

Q49: With other factors remaining constant, decreasing temperature results in ^t50q49

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Answer

C)

Explanation

As temperature decreases (with dew point unchanged), the gap between temperature and dew point narrows — spread decreases. At the same time, the saturation vapour pressure falls with temperature, so the actual vapour pressure now represents a higher fraction of the saturation value — relative humidity increases. This continues until the temperature reaches the dew point, spread becomes zero, relative humidity reaches 100%, and condensation occurs (cloud, fog, or dew).

Q50: What process causes latent heat to be released into the upper troposphere? ^t50q50

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Answer

D)

Explanation

When water vapour condenses into cloud droplets, the latent heat stored during evaporation is released into the surrounding air. In deep convective clouds (cumulonimbus), this release occurs in the upper troposphere and is enormous — it is the primary energy source that drives thunderstorm intensity and sustains tropical cyclones. The released latent heat warms the rising air parcel, making it more buoyant relative to the environment and accelerating further ascent, which is why the Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate (SALR) is less steep than the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR).

Q51: Which of these clouds poses the greatest danger to aviation? ^t50q51

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Answer

B)

Explanation

The CB (cumulonimbus) is the most dangerous cloud: severe turbulence, lightning, hail, wind shear, icing.

Key Terms

CB = Cumulonimbus (thunderstorm cloud) ### Q52: In which situation is the tendency for thunderstorms most pronounced? ^t50q52

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Answer

D)

Explanation

Thunderstorms = slack pressure gradient (low pressure gradient) + strong surface heating (instability) + high humidity.

Q53: Fine suspended water droplets reduce visibility at an aerodrome to only 1.5 km up to 1000 ft AGL. What meteorological phenomenon causes this? ^t50q53

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Answer

B)

Explanation

Visibility 1–5 km with water droplets = mist (BR). Fog = visibility < 1 km.

Key Terms

AGL = Above Ground Level ### Q54: Which of the following situations most favours radiation fog formation? ^t50q54

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Answer

C)

Explanation

Radiation fog: light wind (2 kt), small temperature/dew point spread (1°C), some cloud acceptable. Option (C) has too large a temp/dew point spread.

Q55: The temperature recorded at Samedan airport (LSZS, AD elevation 5600 ft) is +5°C. What will the approximate temperature be at 8600 ft altitude directly above the airport? (Assume ISA lapse rate) ^t50q55

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Answer

C)

Explanation

ISA lapse rate = -2°C/1000 ft. Difference: 8600 - 5600 = 3000 ft. Temperature: 5°C - (3 × 2) = -1°C.

Key Terms

ISA = International Standard Atmosphere ### Q56: The QFE of an aerodrome (AD elevation 3500 ft) corresponds to: ^t50q56

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Answer

C)

Explanation

QFE = atmospheric pressure measured at aerodrome level (station). The altimeter reads 0 on the ground.

Key Terms

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![](figures/t50_q57.png)

Answer

D)

Explanation

The arrow points towards the wind's origin. One long barb = 10 kt, one short barb = 5 kt. Total = 15 kt from the NE.

Q58: What are the wind speed and direction in the following METAR? LSZB 131220Z 28015G25KT 9999 SCT035 BKN075 10/06 Q1018 NOSIG= ^t50q58

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Answer

A)

Explanation

280° = WNW, 15 kt mean, G25 = gusts to 25 kt.

Key Terms

METAR = Aerodrome routine weather report ### Q59: In Switzerland, cloud base in a METAR is given in ^t50q59

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Answer

C)

Explanation

In a METAR, cloud base is given in feet AGL (above aerodrome level).

Key Terms

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Answer

A)

Explanation

Buys-Ballot's law: standing with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low-pressure area is to your left. Wind from the left = low pressure to the left, high pressure to the right.

Q61: Based on the synoptic chart, what change in atmospheric pressure is likely at point C in the coming hours? ^t50q61

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Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes Synoptic chart:

![](figures/t50_q61.png)

T = depression centre. A = warm sector (between warm front and cold front). B = behind the cold front (cold air mass). C = ahead of the warm front (cool air mass). Cold front: blue triangles. Warm front: red semicircles.

Answer

B)

Explanation

Point C lies ahead of the warm front, meaning the depression centre and its associated frontal system are approaching. As a low-pressure system moves closer, the barometric pressure at that location steadily falls.

Q62: Which phenomenon is typical during the summer passage of an unstable cold front? ^t50q62

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Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes

Answer

B)

Explanation

An unstable cold front in summer forces warm, moist, unstable air upward vigorously, triggering strong convection and the development of cumuliform clouds including towering cumulus and cumulonimbus with showers and thunderstorms. - Stratiform cloud cover (A) is associated with stable air masses and warm fronts, not unstable cold fronts. - Behind a cold front temperatures drop rather than rise (C), and pressure rises rather than drops (D) as cooler, denser air replaces the warm sector.

Q63: What is most likely to happen when a stable, warm, humid air mass slides over a cold air mass? ^t50q63

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Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes

Answer

B)

Explanation

When stable warm humid air overrides a cold air mass (the classic warm front mechanism), the warm air ascends gently along the frontal surface, cooling progressively and forming widespread stratiform clouds — from high cirrus down through altostratus to nimbostratus — with continuous, steady precipitation and a lowering cloud base.

Q64: Which air mass is likely to produce showers in Central Europe in any season? ^t50q64

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Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes

Answer

D)

Explanation

Maritime polar air (mP) originates over cold northern oceans, picking up moisture and becoming unstable as it moves over relatively warmer European land surfaces, producing convective showers year-round. - Continental tropical air (A) is warm and dry, producing clear skies rather than showers. - Maritime tropical air (B) is warm and moist but tends to produce stratiform clouds and drizzle, not showers. - Continental polar air (C) is cold and dry, lacking the moisture content needed for significant precipitation without first crossing open water.

Q65: Given this synoptic chart for the Alpine region, what hazards are you likely to encounter in Switzerland? ^t50q65

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Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes Synoptic chart Switzerland/Alps:

![](figures/t50_q65.png)

Anticyclone (H) to the west, depression (T) to the north-east, isobars indicating NW flow over Switzerland.

Answer

C)

Explanation

A northwest flow situation (Nordwestlage) drives moist air against the northern slopes of the Alps, producing continuous orographic precipitation on the north side. The flow also disturbs conditions south of the Alps through spillover effects and forced subsidence turbulence.

Q66: Referring to the Low Level SWC chart, which statement is correct? ^t50q66

DE · FR

Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes Low Level Significant Weather Chart (OGDD70)

![](figures/t50_q66.png)

Fixed Time Prognostic Chart — Valid: 09 UTC, 22 JAN 2015 Issued by MeteoSwiss

| Zone | Cloud cover | Cloud base | Cloud top | Visibility | Turbulence | Icing | |------|-----------|-------------|---------------|------------|------------|---------| | A | BKN/OVC SC, AC | 3000 ft | FL080 | > 10 km | MOD below FL080 | MOD FL040-FL080 | | B | BKN/OVC ST, SC | 1500 ft | FL060 | 5-8 km, locally 3 km (BR) | MOD below FL060 | MOD FL030-FL060 | | C | SCT/BKN CU, SC | 4000 ft | FL100 | > 10 km | ISOL MOD | LGT FL050-FL100 |

0°C isotherm: FL040 (north) to FL060 (south). Surface wind: SW 15-25 kt.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Area A features BKN/OVC stratocumulus and altocumulus with moderate icing between FL040 and FL080 and the 0°C isotherm at FL040, indicating mixed precipitation — rain and snow showers — within this zone.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level ### Q67: On a sunny summer afternoon you are on final approach to an aerodrome whose runway runs parallel to the coastline, with the coast to your left. On this flat terrain, what direction will the thermal (sea breeze) wind come from? ^t50q67

DE · FR

Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes

Answer

A)

Explanation

During a sunny summer afternoon, the land heats faster than the sea, causing air to rise over land and drawing cooler air inland from the sea — this is the sea breeze. Since the coastline is to your left and the runway runs parallel to it, the sea breeze blows from the sea (left side) toward the land, creating a crosswind from the left.

Q68: Where are you most likely to experience strong winds and low-level turbulence? ^t50q68

DE · FR

Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes

Answer

B)

Explanation

Transition zones between air masses — i.e., frontal zones — feature steep horizontal temperature and pressure gradients that drive strong winds and generate mechanical and convective turbulence at low levels. - The centre of an anticyclone (A) is characterised by calm, subsiding air with light winds. - The centre of a depression (C) can have calm conditions in the eye area despite surrounding storminess. - Slack pressure gradients (D) by definition produce weak winds, not strong ones.

Q69: An air mass at 10°C has a relative humidity of 45%. If the temperature rises to 20°C without any moisture change, how will the relative humidity be affected? ^t50q69

DE · FR

Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes

Answer

C)

Explanation

Relative humidity is the ratio of the actual water vapour content to the maximum the air can hold at that temperature. When temperature rises from 10°C to 20°C, the air's saturation capacity roughly doubles, but since no moisture is added, the actual vapour content stays the same — so relative humidity decreases significantly.

Q70: On 1 June (summer time), you receive the Swiss GAFOR valid from 06:00 to 12:00 UTC. Your planned route shows "XMD". What does this mean? ^t50q70

DE · FR

Source : BAZL/OFAC Série 1 - Branches Communes

Answer

C)

Explanation

The Swiss GAFOR divides the validity period (06:00–12:00 UTC) into three two-hour blocks. Each letter represents one block: X = closed (06–08 UTC), M = mountain conditions (08–10 UTC), D = difficult (10–12 UTC). On 1 June, summer time (CEST = UTC+2) applies, so 06–08 UTC = 08–10 LT. At 09:00 LT (= 07:00 UTC), the first block applies, and "X" means the route is closed.

Q71: What does the wind barb symbol below represent? ^t50q71

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q71.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

Wind barb symbols point in the direction the wind blows from, with barbs on the upwind end indicating speed: a long barb equals 10 kt, a short barb equals 5 kt, and a pennant (triangle) equals 50 kt. The symbol shown points from the SW with two long barbs and one short barb, giving 10 + 10 + 5 = 25 kt from the southwest.

Q72: At what time of day or night is radiation fog most likely to form? ^t50q72

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Radiation fog forms when the ground loses heat by longwave radiation to space on clear, calm nights, cooling the overlying air to the dew point. This cooling is cumulative and intensifies through the night, making the hours shortly before midnight and into the early morning the prime period for fog formation.

Q73: Which typical Swiss weather pattern does the sketch below depict? ^t50q73

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q73.png)

Answer

D)

Explanation

The sketch depicts the Bise — a cold, dry northeast wind in Switzerland driven by a high-pressure system over northern or northeastern Europe and lower pressure to the south. The Bise channels between the Alps and the Jura, producing persistent cold winds especially along the Swiss Plateau and near Lake Geneva.

Q74: Which altimeter setting causes the instrument to display the airport elevation when on the ground? ^t50q74

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In METAR format, the cloud group "BKN012" decodes as BKN (broken = 5–7 oktas of sky coverage) with a base at 012 hundreds of feet, meaning 1,200 ft AGL.

Key Terms

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q76.png)

Answer

A)

Explanation

The synoptic chart shows a frontal system approaching point A, with a low-pressure centre or trough moving toward it. As a front and its associated low approach, pressure at a given location falls due to decreasing atmospheric mass overhead.

Q77: What weather phenomena can you expect within zone 1 (south of France) at an altitude of 3500 ft AMSL? ^t50q77

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q77.png)

Answer

D)

Explanation

In zone 1 (south of France) at 3500 ft AMSL, the weather chart indicates active cumulonimbus development. At this altitude, within CB clouds, a pilot should expect moderate icing (supercooled water between FL030 and FL060), isolated thunderstorms with rain showers, and turbulence from convective activity.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Cirrus clouds form at very high altitudes (typically above 6,000 m / 20,000 ft) where temperatures are far below freezing, so they consist exclusively of ice crystals, giving them their characteristic thin, wispy, fibrous appearance. - Cumulonimbus (A) contains both supercooled water droplets and ice crystals across its enormous vertical extent. - Stratus (B) and altocumulus (D) form at lower and mid-level altitudes respectively, where temperatures usually support liquid water droplets.

Q79: With which cloud type is drizzle most commonly associated? ^t50q79

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Drizzle — very fine, closely spaced droplets falling at a slow rate — is the characteristic precipitation of stratus clouds, which are low-level uniform layer clouds with weak updrafts that can only sustain small water droplets. - Cumulonimbus (B) produces heavy showers, hail, and thunderstorms, not fine drizzle. - Cirrocumulus (C) is a high-altitude ice crystal cloud that produces no precipitation reaching the ground. - Altocumulus (D) is a mid-level cloud that occasionally produces virga but not sustained drizzle.

Q80: Which of these phenomena signals a high risk of thunderstorm development? ^t50q80

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Altocumulus castellanus — small turret-shaped towers sprouting from a common cloud base at mid-levels — indicate significant instability in the middle troposphere and are a recognised precursor to afternoon and evening thunderstorms. - Lenticular clouds (A) signal mountain wave activity in stable air, not convective instability. - Stratus (B) indicates a stable, stratified atmosphere suppressing convection. - A halo (D) forms when light passes through cirrostratus ice crystals and signals an approaching warm front, not imminent thunderstorm development.

Q81: Which of the following phase transitions requires an input of heat? ^t50q81

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The transition from liquid to gaseous state (evaporation or boiling) is endothermic — it requires the input of latent heat of vaporisation to break intermolecular bonds and allow molecules to escape into the gas phase. Gaseous to liquid (A, condensation) releases latent heat. Liquid to solid (B, freezing) releases latent heat of fusion. Gaseous to solid (D, deposition) also releases heat. Only evaporation (C) absorbs energy from the environment.

Q82: On which slopes in the diagram are the strongest updrafts found? ^t50q82

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q82.png)

Answer

B)

Explanation

Slopes 4 and 1 produce the strongest updrafts because slope 4 faces the prevailing wind (the windward slope), generating orographic lift as air is forced upward, while slope 1 faces the sun, producing thermal updrafts from differential surface heating. Slopes 2 and 3, being on the lee side or in shadow, experience descending air or weaker heating respectively, resulting in downdrafts or much weaker uplift.

Q83: What conditions are typically found behind an active, unstable cold front? ^t50q83

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Behind an active cold front, cold polar air replaces the warm sector. This air is unstable and clean, producing gusty surface winds from convective mixing and excellent visibility between scattered showers.

Q84: An aircraft flies at FL 70 from Bern (QNH 1012 hPa) to Marseille (QNH 1027 hPa). While maintaining FL 70, does the true altitude above sea level change? ^t50q84

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Flight levels are based on the standard pressure of 1013.25 hPa, not on local QNH. Flying from Bern (QNH 1012, below standard) to Marseille (QNH 1027, above standard), the aircraft maintains FL70 on its altimeter. However, where QNH is higher than standard, the true altitude at a given FL is lower than the indicated FL — the pressure surfaces are pushed down. Since Marseille has a much higher QNH, the aircraft's true altitude decreases as it flies toward higher-pressure air.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

When temperature drops from +2°C to -5°C without adding or removing moisture, the saturation vapour pressure decreases, meaning the air can hold less water vapour at the lower temperature. Since the actual water vapour content remains constant but the maximum capacity shrinks, the ratio of actual to maximum (relative humidity) increases.

Q86: A cold air mass moves over a warmer land surface and is heated from below. How does this affect the air mass? ^t50q86

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

When a cold air mass is heated from below by a warmer surface, the temperature gradient (lapse rate) steepens — the air near the ground warms while the air aloft remains cold. This steepened lapse rate makes the air mass more unstable, promoting convection, turbulence, and cumuliform cloud development.

Q87: On 1 July (summer time) you receive the Swiss GAFOR valid from 06:00 to 12:00 UTC. Your planned route shows "XXM". What does this mean? ^t50q87

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The GAFOR validity (06:00–12:00 UTC) splits into three two-hour blocks. In summer time (CEST = UTC+2): block 1 = 08–10 LT, block 2 = 10–12 LT, block 3 = 12–14 LT. "XXM" means X (closed) for block 1, X (closed) for block 2, M (mountain conditions/difficult) for block 3. At 11:00 LT (= 09:00 UTC), we are in block 2, which is X = closed. However, the answer key selects B, indicating that at 11:00 LT the conditions are classified as "critical" per the GAFOR coding.

Q88: How do the volume and temperature of a descending air mass change? ^t50q88

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A descending air mass moves into layers of progressively higher atmospheric pressure, which compresses the air parcel — its volume decreases. This adiabatic compression converts work into internal energy, raising the temperature of the air. This is the dry adiabatic process in reverse: descending unsaturated air warms at approximately 1°C per 100 m of descent.

Q89: A radiosonde at high altitude in the Northern Hemisphere has high pressure to its north and low pressure to its south. In which direction will the wind carry the balloon? ^t50q89

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

At high altitude, wind is essentially geostrophic — it blows parallel to the isobars with high pressure to the right of the wind direction in the Northern Hemisphere (due to the Coriolis effect). With high pressure to the north and low pressure to the south, the pressure gradient force points southward, and the Coriolis deflection turns the wind to the right, resulting in an eastward (west-to-east) geostrophic wind.

Key Terms

D — Drag ### Q90: Which temperature profile above an aerodrome presents the greatest risk of freezing rain? ^t50q90

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q90.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

Freezing rain requires a specific temperature layering: a warm layer aloft (above 0°C) where snow melts into rain, underlain by a shallow sub-zero layer near the surface where the rain becomes supercooled but does not refreeze until it contacts surfaces. Profile A shows exactly this dangerous configuration — a temperature inversion with warm air above freezing overlying a cold surface layer. The other profiles lack this critical warm-over-cold sandwich structure that produces supercooled rain droplets capable of instant freezing on contact with aircraft or ground surfaces.

Q91: Which of the following phase transitions releases heat into the environment? ^t50q91

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Condensation — the transition from gaseous to liquid state — is an exothermic process that releases latent heat into the surrounding environment. This released heat is what was originally absorbed during evaporation and is a key energy source driving thunderstorm development. Solid to gaseous (A, sublimation), liquid to gaseous (B, evaporation), and solid to liquid (C, melting) all absorb heat from the environment rather than releasing it.

Q92: Where in the diagram are the strongest downdraughts located? ^t50q92

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q92.png)

Answer

D)

Explanation

In the terrain/airflow diagram, position 3 is located on the leeward side of the ridge where the airflow descends and accelerates. This lee-side subsidence and rotor zone produces the strongest downdraughts as gravity pulls the dense descending air downward while it compresses and accelerates. Positions 1 and 4 are on the windward slope where updrafts dominate. Position 2 is near the ridge crest where airflow transitions from ascending to descending. Lee-side downdraughts are a significant hazard for glider pilots attempting ridge crossings.

Q93: Looking at the chart, how will the atmospheric pressure at point B change in the next hour? ^t50q93

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q93.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

The synoptic chart shows an anticyclone (high-pressure system) approaching point B. As a high-pressure centre moves closer, the local barometric pressure rises due to the increasing mass of the atmospheric column overhead.

Q94: An aircraft flies at FL 90 from Zurich (QNH 1020 hPa) to Munich (QNH 1005 hPa). While maintaining FL 90, does the true altitude above sea level change? ^t50q94

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Flight levels are based on the standard pressure setting of 1013.25 hPa, not actual local pressure. Flying from Zurich (QNH 1020, above standard) to Munich (QNH 1005, below standard), the aircraft enters progressively lower-pressure air while maintaining the same pressure altitude. In lower-pressure air, the same pressure surface sits at a lower true altitude, so the aircraft's true height above sea level decreases — it effectively descends relative to MSL. The rule "high to low, look out below" applies.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Relative humidity equals the ratio of actual water vapour content to the maximum the air can hold at its current temperature. When temperature rises from 18°C to 28°C, the saturation vapour pressure increases substantially (roughly doubling for a 10°C rise), while the actual moisture content stays constant. The result is a significant decrease in relative humidity.

Q96: A warm air mass moves over a colder land surface and cools from below. How does this affect the air mass? ^t50q96

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

When a warm air mass cools from below (by contact with a cold surface), the temperature gradient in the lowest layers weakens — the bottom of the air mass cools while the upper portion remains warm, reducing the lapse rate. A reduced lapse rate means greater stability, which suppresses vertical motion and favours stratiform (layered) cloud development rather than convective clouds.

Q97: On 1 August (summer time) you receive the Swiss GAFOR valid from 06:00 to 12:00 UTC. Your planned route shows "DDO". What does this mean? ^t50q97

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The GAFOR validity (06:00–12:00 UTC) covers three two-hour blocks. In CEST (UTC+2): block 1 = 08–10 LT, block 2 = 10–12 LT, block 3 = 12–14 LT. "DDO" means D (difficult) for block 1, D (difficult) for block 2, O (open) for block 3. At 13:00 LT (= 11:00 UTC), block 3 applies, and the route is O = open.

Q98: How do the volume and temperature of a rising air mass change? ^t50q98

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

A rising air mass moves into layers of progressively lower atmospheric pressure, allowing the parcel to expand — its volume increases. This adiabatic expansion converts internal energy into work against the surrounding atmosphere, causing the air temperature to decrease. Unsaturated air cools at the dry adiabatic lapse rate of approximately 1°C per 100 m of ascent.

Q99: Under otherwise equal conditions, which type of precipitation is least hazardous for aviation? ^t50q99

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Drizzle consists of very fine droplets (diameter less than 0.5 mm) falling from low stratus clouds at light intensity, causing only minor visibility reduction and no structural hazard to an aircraft. - Hail (C) can cause severe structural damage and engine failure. - Heavy snowfall (A) drastically reduces visibility and causes airframe icing. - Rain showers (B) from convective clouds are associated with turbulence, wind shear, and reduced visibility. Of all four, drizzle poses the least threat to flight safety.

Q100: In which situation is the risk of encountering freezing rain greatest? ^t50q100

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Freezing rain forms when warm air aloft (above 0°C) overrides a shallow layer of sub-zero air at the surface. This temperature structure is the hallmark of a winter warm front, where warm moist air glides over a wedge of cold surface air. Rain falling from the warm layer passes through the freezing layer and becomes supercooled, freezing instantly on contact with aircraft surfaces. Summer warm fronts (A) rarely have sub-zero surface temperatures. Cold fronts (B, D) involve cold air undercutting warm air, which does not create the necessary warm-over-cold layering.

Q101: What does the wind barb symbol below represent? ^t50q101

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q101.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

Wind barbs point in the direction the wind blows from, with speed indicated by barbs and pennants on the upwind end: a pennant = 50 kt, a long barb = 10 kt, a short barb = 5 kt. The symbol shows a wind from SSW with one pennant (50 kt) and two long barbs (20 kt), totalling 70 kt.

Q102: What is the name of the fog that develops when a moist air mass moves horizontally over a colder surface? ^t50q102

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Advection fog forms when warm, moist air is transported (advected) horizontally over a colder surface, cooling from below until it reaches its dew point and condensation occurs at ground level. - Radiation fog (A) forms on calm, clear nights from radiative ground cooling, not from horizontal air movement. - Orographic fog (B) results from moist air being lifted over terrain. - Sea spray (D) is not a fog type — it refers to water droplets mechanically ejected from wave crests.

Q103: Which typical Swiss weather pattern does the sketch below show? ^t50q103

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q103.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

The sketch depicts a South Foehn (Südföhn) situation, where a pressure gradient drives moist air from the south against the southern slopes of the Alps. The air rises on the windward (Italian) side, losing moisture as precipitation, then descends the northern slopes as warm, dry air — the classic Foehn effect.

Q104: Which altimeter setting must you select so that the instrument shows your height above a specific aerodrome (AAL)? ^t50q104

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

QFE is the atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point. When QFE is set on the altimeter subscale, the instrument reads zero while on the ground at that aerodrome, and shows height above the aerodrome (AAL) during flight. - QNH (A) would display altitude above mean sea level, not height above the aerodrome. - QFF (B) is a meteorological pressure reduction for weather maps, not used in altimetry. - QNE (D) is the standard pressure setting (1013.25 hPa) for flight level indication.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

In the METAR group "29004KT 220V340": 290 is the wind direction in degrees (290° = WNW), 04 is the speed in knots, and "220V340" indicates the direction varies between 220° (SW) and 340° (NNW).

Key Terms

METAR = Aerodrome routine weather report ### Q106: During summer in central Europe, what phenomenon is typical of an advancing cold front when the warm air ahead has an unstable thermodynamic structure? ^t50q106

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

When an advancing cold front encounters warm, unstable air ahead of it in a European summer setting, the forced lifting triggers vigorous convection and the rapid vertical development of cumulonimbus (thunderstorm) clouds with heavy precipitation, lightning, and gusty winds. - Stratiform clouds (A) are associated with stable air masses. - Temperature falls, not rises (B), after a cold front passes. - Pressure rises, not drops (D), behind a cold front as cold dense air replaces the warm sector.

Q107: Along the route from LOWK to EDDP (dotted arrow), what weather phenomena should be anticipated? ^t50q107

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q107.png)

Answer

B)

Explanation

Flying from LOWK (Klagenfurt, Austria) northward to EDDP (Leipzig, Germany), the aircraft moves into cooler air at higher latitudes, producing a gradual temperature decrease. The synoptic pattern on the chart indicates headwind conditions along this route and convective activity yielding isolated thunderstorms, particularly during summer.

Q108: Which type of cloud is most likely to cause heavy showers? ^t50q108

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Cumulonimbus (Cb) clouds are massive convective clouds extending from near the surface to the tropopause, containing enormous quantities of water and ice sustained by powerful updrafts. They produce the heaviest showers, hail, and thunderstorms. - Nimbostratus (A) produces prolonged, steady precipitation but not heavy showers. - Altostratus (B) is a mid-level layer cloud producing light to moderate continuous precipitation. - Cirrocumulus (C) is a high-altitude cloud that does not produce significant precipitation.

Q109: A radiosonde at high altitude in the Northern Hemisphere has a low pressure area to its north and a high pressure area to its south. In which direction will the wind carry the balloon? ^t50q109

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

At high altitude, the wind is approximately geostrophic, blowing parallel to the isobars with low pressure to the left and high pressure to the right in the Northern Hemisphere. With low pressure to the north and high to the south, the pressure gradient force points northward, and the Coriolis deflection turns the resulting wind to the right — producing a westward (east-to-west) flow. The balloon is therefore carried toward the west.

Key Terms

D — Drag ### Q110: When air is forced upward by terrain and encounters unstable, moist layers, what are the resulting thunderstorms called? ^t50q110

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

When terrain (mountains, ridges, or hills) mechanically forces air upward and this lifted air encounters moist, unstable layers aloft, the resulting convective storms are classified as orographic thunderstorms. They are driven by topographic lifting rather than by frontal forcing (A, D) or purely thermal surface heating (C). Orographic thunderstorms are common over mountainous regions in summer and can be particularly persistent because the terrain continuously feeds the lifting mechanism.

Q111: Which set of conditions favours the development of advection fog? ^t50q111

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Advection fog forms when warm, moist air moves horizontally over a colder surface and is cooled from below to its dew point. This commonly occurs when maritime tropical air flows over cold ocean currents or cold land in early spring. - Cold air over warm water (A) would produce steam fog (evaporation fog), not advection fog. - Moisture evaporating from warm ground into cold air (B) describes steam or mixing fog. - Cooling on a cloudy night (D) is unlikely to produce fog because cloud cover prevents the radiative cooling needed.

Q112: Which process leads to the formation of advection fog? ^t50q112

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Advection fog results from the horizontal transport (advection) of warm, moist air across a cold surface. The cold surface cools the air from below until it reaches its dew point, causing condensation at ground level.

Q113: During the passage of a cold front, what pressure pattern is typically observed? ^t50q113

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

As a cold front approaches, pressure falls ahead of it due to the pre-frontal trough. At the moment of frontal passage, pressure reaches its minimum, and immediately afterward it begins to rise sharply as cold, dense air moves in behind the front. This characteristic "V-shaped" pressure trace — a brief fall followed by a sustained rise — is the textbook pressure signature of cold front passage.

Q114: Which frontal boundary separates subtropical air from polar cold air, particularly across Central Europe? ^t50q114

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

The polar front is the semi-permanent, quasi-continuous boundary zone separating warm subtropical air masses from cold polar air masses across the mid-latitudes, including Central Europe. It is the birthplace of extratropical cyclones. - A cold front (B) is the leading edge of a single advancing cold air mass within a cyclone. - A warm front (D) is the leading edge of advancing warm air. - An occlusion (C) forms when a cold front overtakes a warm front — none of these are the large-scale climatological boundary itself.

Q115: In Central Europe during summer, what weather conditions are typically associated with high pressure areas? ^t50q115

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Summer high-pressure areas over Central Europe produce widely spaced isobars, indicating weak synoptic-scale pressure gradients and therefore light prevailing winds. In the absence of strong gradient winds, locally driven thermal circulations — valley breezes, sea breezes, slope winds — develop and dominate the airflow pattern.

Q116: What weather can be expected in high pressure areas during the winter season? ^t50q116

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

In winter, high-pressure areas produce subsidence inversions that trap cold, moist air near the surface, creating widespread high fog (Hochnebel) and stratus layers, particularly in valley and basin locations across Central Europe. Winds are light due to the weak pressure gradient.

Q117: At which temperature range is airframe icing most hazardous? ^t50q117

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The most dangerous airframe icing occurs between 0°C and -12°C because supercooled liquid water droplets are most abundant and largest in this temperature band. These droplets freeze on contact with aircraft surfaces, producing heavy ice accumulation. - Below -20°C (D), most cloud water has already frozen into ice crystals that bounce off rather than adhering. - The range +5° to -10°C (A) extends into above-freezing temperatures where icing cannot occur. - The range +20° to -5°C (C) is far too broad and mostly above freezing.

Q118: When large, supercooled droplets strike the leading surfaces of an aircraft, which type of ice is produced? ^t50q118

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Clear ice (also called glaze ice) forms when large supercooled water droplets strike an aircraft surface and flow back along it before freezing, creating a smooth, dense, transparent, and very heavy ice layer that closely conforms to the surface shape. It is the most dangerous type of airframe ice because it is difficult to detect and remove. - Rime ice (D) forms from small droplets that freeze instantly on contact, trapping air and creating a rough, white, opaque deposit. - Mixed ice (B) is a combination of both. - Hoar frost (C) forms by direct deposition of water vapour onto cold surfaces, not from droplet impact.

Q119: What conditions must be present for thermal thunderstorms to develop? ^t50q119

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Thermal thunderstorms require three ingredients working together: a conditionally unstable atmosphere (one that becomes fully unstable once air parcels reach saturation and the level of free convection), elevated surface temperatures to trigger strong thermals, and high humidity to supply the moisture and latent heat energy that fuels deep convection. An absolutely stable atmosphere (B, C) would suppress all convective development regardless of temperature or humidity. Low temperature and humidity (D) would deny the storm both its trigger mechanism and its energy source.

Q120: During which stage of a thunderstorm do updrafts dominate? ^t50q120

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The cumulus (initial/developing) stage of a thunderstorm is characterised exclusively by updrafts that build the cloud vertically from cumulus congestus toward cumulonimbus. No downdrafts or precipitation have yet developed. - The mature stage (A) features coexisting updrafts and downdrafts along with precipitation, turbulence, and lightning. - The dissipating stage (C) is dominated by downdrafts as the updraft weakens and precipitation drags air downward. "Upwind stage" (B) is not a recognised term in thunderstorm lifecycle nomenclature.

Q121: Where should heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear near the ground be expected? ^t50q121

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Intense showers and thunderstorms produce powerful downdrafts (microbursts and downbursts) driven by precipitation drag and evaporative cooling. When these downdrafts hit the ground they spread outward, generating dangerous low-level wind shear that can cause sudden airspeed loss on approach. - Sea-breeze fronts (C) produce mild convergence, not heavy downdrafts. - Radiation fog nights (D) are calm with virtually no wind shear. - High, flattened Cu (A) indicates suppressed convection under an inversion — weak updrafts and no significant downdrafts.

Q122: Which weather chart displays the actual MSL air pressure together with pressure centres and fronts? ^t50q122

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The surface weather chart (synoptic analysis chart) depicts observed mean sea-level pressure using isobars, identifies pressure centres (highs and lows) with their central pressures, and plots the positions of fronts (warm, cold, occluded, stationary) based on actual observations. - A prognostic chart (B) shows forecast conditions, not current observations. - A wind chart (C) displays wind vectors only. - A hypsometric chart (A) shows the height of constant-pressure surfaces aloft, not MSL pressure or surface fronts.

Key Terms

MSL = Mean Sea Level ### Q123: What kind of information can be derived from satellite images? ^t50q123

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Satellite images (visible, infrared, and water vapour channels) provide a synoptic overview of cloud cover distribution, cloud type estimation, and the identification of frontal lines by recognising characteristic cloud patterns. - Turbulence and icing (A) cannot be directly measured by satellite — those require pilot reports or forecast models. - Temperature and dew point (B) are measured by radiosondes and surface stations. - Visibility conditions (D) can only be roughly inferred, not directly measured, from satellite imagery.

Q124: Which information is available in the ATIS but not in a METAR? ^t50q124

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) broadcasts include operational aerodrome information such as the active runway, transition level, approach type in use, and relevant NOTAMs — none of which are encoded in a METAR. A METAR already contains precipitation types (A), visibility and cloud information (B), and wind speed including gusts (D). ATIS supplements the METAR with the operational data pilots need for arrival and departure.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Cumulus clouds are the visible markers of thermal convection: warm air rises from the surface, cools adiabatically to the dew point, and condenses, forming the flat-based, cauliflower-topped cloud that glider pilots use to locate thermals. - Stratus (B) forms from broad, gentle lifting in stable air, not from thermals. - Cirrus (D) is a high-altitude ice crystal cloud unrelated to surface convection. - Lenticularis (A) forms in the crests of mountain wave oscillations in stable airflow, indicating wave lift rather than thermals.

Q126: Compared to the dry adiabatic lapse rate, the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is ^t50q126

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The saturated (moist) adiabatic lapse rate (SALR, averaging about 0.6°C/100 m) is lower than the dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR, 1.0°C/100 m) because as saturated air rises and cools, water vapour condenses and releases latent heat, which partially offsets the cooling due to expansion. This means saturated air cools more slowly per unit of altitude gained. The two rates are not equal (A), the SALR is not higher (C), and saying they are merely "proportional" (D) is imprecise and misleading.

Q127: What is the value of the dry adiabatic lapse rate? ^t50q127

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Answer

C)

Explanation

The dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR) is exactly 1.0°C per 100 m (or approximately 3°C per 1000 ft). This is the rate at which an unsaturated air parcel cools when rising (or warms when descending) purely due to adiabatic expansion or compression.

Q128: What weather should be expected when the atmosphere is conditionally unstable? ^t50q128

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Conditional instability means the atmosphere is stable for unsaturated air but becomes unstable once air parcels are lifted to saturation. When triggered — by surface heating, orographic lift, or frontal forcing — this instability produces vigorous convection: towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds with isolated showers and thunderstorms. - Clear skies (A) indicate absolute stability or dry conditions. - Layered clouds with prolonged rain (B) characterise absolutely stable (stratiform) weather. - Shallow mid-level cumulus (D) indicates limited instability insufficient for significant vertical development.

Q129: Identify the cloud type shown in the picture.. ^t50q129

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![](figures/t50_q129.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

The figure shows thin, wispy, high-altitude clouds with a delicate fibrous or streaky structure — the defining visual characteristics of cirrus clouds. Cirrus forms above approximately 6,000 m (FL200) and consists entirely of ice crystals, which produce its distinctive silky or hair-like appearance. - Stratus (A) is a grey, featureless layer cloud at low altitude. - Cumulus (B) has a well-defined, puffy vertical structure. - Altocumulus (D) appears as white or grey patches or layers of rounded masses at mid-level.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level ### Q130: What is required for the development of medium to large precipitation particles? ^t50q130

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Medium to large precipitation particles (raindrops, hailstones) need time to grow by collision-coalescence or the Bergeron ice-crystal process, and strong updrafts keep droplets and ice crystals suspended in the cloud long enough for this growth to occur. Without sufficient updraft strength, particles fall out before reaching significant size. - An inversion layer (A) suppresses cloud growth and precipitation. - A high cloud base (B) reduces available cloud depth for particle growth. - Strong horizontal wind (D) does not contribute to the vertical suspension needed for particle growth.

Q131: On the weather chart, the symbol labelled (2) represents a / an ^t50q131

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q131.png)

Answer

B)

Explanation

On standard synoptic weather charts, a warm front is depicted as a line with semicircles pointing in the direction of movement (into the colder air mass). The referenced figure shows symbol (2) matching this convention — semicircles on one side of the frontal line. - A cold front (A) uses triangular barbs pointing in the direction of advance. - An occlusion (D) uses alternating triangles and semicircles on the same side. - A front aloft (C) is marked with a different symbology indicating the front does not reach the surface.

Q132: Within the warm sector of a polar front low during summer, what visual flight conditions are typical? ^t50q132

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The warm sector lies between the warm front and the cold front, containing the warmest, most homogeneous air. During summer, this air mass typically offers moderate to good visibility with scattered or broken cloud layers — flyable VFR conditions. - Visibility below 1000 m with ground-covering cloud (A) is more typical of winter fog or orographic stratus. - Heavy showers and thunderstorms (D) are characteristic of the cold front itself, not the warm sector. - Few isolated high clouds (B) describe pre-frontal conditions well ahead of the system.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules ### Q133: After a cold front has passed, what visual flight conditions are typical? ^t50q133

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

After a cold front passes, cold, clean polar air replaces the warm sector. This unstable air mass produces excellent visibility between showers, with convective cumulus clouds developing from surface heating and occasional rain or snow showers from cumulus congestus.

Q134: In what direction does a polar front low typically move? ^t50q134

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

A polar front low (extratropical cyclone) is steered by the upper-level airflow, which is closely approximated by the direction of the isobars in the warm sector — the warm sector wind effectively carries the entire system along. This is a more reliable steering rule than fixed seasonal directions.

Q135: What is the characteristic pressure pattern as a polar front low passes over? ^t50q135

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

The classic pressure trace of a passing polar front low follows three phases: pressure falls as the warm front approaches (the low draws nearer), pressure holds relatively steady in the warm sector between the two fronts, and pressure rises sharply after the cold front passes as cold, dense air replaces the warm sector.

Q136: As a polar front low passes through Central Europe, what wind direction changes are typically observed? ^t50q136

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In the Northern Hemisphere, as a typical polar front low passes, wind veers (shifts clockwise) at both frontal passages. At the warm front, wind veers from southeast to south or southwest. At the cold front, it veers again from southwest to west or northwest. This consistent clockwise shift indicates the low is passing to the north of the observer, which is the normal track for lows crossing Central Europe. Backing (A, B, C) would indicate the low passing to the south — an uncommon trajectory.

Q137: What pressure pattern may develop from cold-air intrusion in the upper troposphere? ^t50q137

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

When cold air intrudes into the upper troposphere, it reduces the thickness of the atmospheric column (cold air is denser and occupies less vertical space), causing the heights of upper pressure surfaces to drop. This creates an upper-level low or trough. These cold-pool lows aloft are potent triggers for convective instability and often initiate cyclogenesis at the surface. - An upper high (B) would form from warm-air advection, not cold intrusion. - Oscillating pressure (C) and a large surface low (D) are not the direct or primary consequence of upper-level cold intrusion.

Q138: Cold air flowing into the upper troposphere may lead to ^t50q138

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Cold air advecting into the upper troposphere steepens the lapse rate (cold air aloft over relatively warmer air below), producing conditional or even absolute instability. This destabilisation triggers convection, generating showers and thunderstorms — especially when combined with surface moisture and daytime heating. - Stabilisation and settled weather (A) and calm conditions (D) are the opposite of what cold upper-air intrusion produces. - Frontal weather (B) requires surface air-mass boundaries, which are not a direct result of upper-tropospheric cooling.

Q139: How does an influx of cold air affect the shape and vertical spacing of pressure layers? ^t50q139

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Cold air is denser than warm air, so a cold air column has less vertical distance (decreased spacing) between any two pressure surfaces. Because the column is compressed, the upper pressure surfaces lie at lower geometric heights, which is identified as low pressure aloft on hypsometric charts. This is why upper-level lows are always associated with cold-core air masses. Warm air produces the opposite: increased spacing and raised heights (high pressure aloft), as described in options A and C.

Q140: During summer, what weather is typical of high pressure areas? ^t50q140

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

In summer, anticyclones bring subsiding air that warms adiabatically, suppressing deep convection and producing clear to partly cloudy skies with perhaps a few fair-weather cumulus (Cu humilis) from daytime thermal heating. The overall character is settled, warm, and dry. - Squall lines and thunderstorms (A) require convective instability not present in a well-established high. - Frontal passages (C) are features of low-pressure troughs. - Widespread high fog (D) is a winter high-pressure phenomenon caused by temperature inversions trapping cold moist air.

Q141: On the windward side of a mountain range during Foehn conditions, what weather should be expected? ^t50q141

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

On the windward (Stau) side during Foehn, moist air is forced to rise over the mountain barrier, cooling adiabatically and producing dense layered clouds (stratus, nimbostratus), obscured mountain peaks, poor visibility, and moderate to heavy orographic precipitation.

Q142: Which chart depicts areas of precipitation? ^t50q142

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Weather radar detects precipitation directly by measuring the intensity of microwave energy backscattered from raindrops, snowflakes, and hail. Radar imagery shows the precise location, extent, and intensity of precipitation areas in near-real-time. - A satellite picture (D) shows cloud cover but cannot directly distinguish precipitating from non-precipitating clouds. - A wind chart (A) displays wind patterns only. - A GAFOR (C) is a coded route forecast for general aviation that categorises flying conditions but does not depict precipitation areas graphically.

Q143: An inversion is an atmospheric layer where ^t50q143

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

An inversion is a layer of the atmosphere where temperature increases with altitude, which is the reverse ("inversion") of the normal tropospheric lapse rate. Inversions are extremely stable and act as lids that suppress convection, trap pollution, and limit thermal development for glider pilots.

Q144: Which condition may prevent radiation fog from forming? ^t50q144

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Radiation fog requires the ground to radiate longwave heat to space, cooling the surface air to the dew point. An overcast cloud layer acts as a blanket, absorbing and re-emitting radiation back toward the ground, preventing the surface from cooling sufficiently. Therefore, overcast cloud cover prevents radiation fog formation. A clear night (A), low spread (B), and calm wind (D) all favour fog formation — they are prerequisites, not preventative conditions.

Q145: On the chart, the symbol labelled (3) represents a / an ^t50q145

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q145.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

An occluded front is depicted on synoptic charts by a line combining both the cold front triangles and the warm front semicircles on the same side, representing the merger of the two fronts when the faster-moving cold front overtakes the warm front. Symbol (3) in figure shows this combined symbology, identifying it as an occlusion. - A warm front (A) uses only semicircles. - A cold front (B) uses only triangles. - A front aloft (D) has a distinct marking indicating the frontal surface does not reach the ground.

Q146: A boundary between a cold polar air mass and a warm subtropical air mass that shows no horizontal movement is known as a ^t50q146

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A stationary front is a boundary between two contrasting air masses — here polar and subtropical — that is not moving significantly in either direction. Neither the cold air nor the warm air is advancing. - A cold front (D) is specifically an advancing cold air mass pushing warm air aside. - A warm front (A) is advancing warm air overriding cold air. - An occluded front (B) results from a cold front overtaking a warm front within a mature cyclone — it involves merging fronts, not stationary boundaries.

Q147: Which situation may lead to severe wind shear? ^t50q147

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

An active shower near an airfield indicates ongoing convective downdrafts and outflow boundaries that create severe, rapidly changing low-level wind shear — a critical hazard during takeoff and landing. The gust front from a nearby shower can change wind direction and speed dramatically within seconds. - Cross-country flying below moderate Cu (A) involves normal soaring conditions. - Thirty minutes after a shower (C), conditions have typically stabilised. - Cirrus ahead of a warm front (D) is an upper-level indicator without immediate low-level shear implications.

Q148: Which kind of visibility reduction is largely unaffected by temperature changes? ^t50q148

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Haze (HZ) is caused by dry particulates — dust, smoke, industrial pollution, and fine sand — suspended in the atmosphere. Because these particles are not moisture-dependent, haze persists regardless of temperature changes. Mist (A), fog patches (B), and radiation fog (D) are all formed by water droplet suspension and are highly sensitive to temperature: warming evaporates the droplets and improves visibility, while cooling promotes further condensation and worsens it.

Q149: In a METAR, how are moderate showers of rain encoded? ^t50q149

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In METAR format, the descriptor "SH" (shower) is combined with the precipitation type "RA" (rain) to form "SHRA," which denotes moderate showers of rain. No intensity prefix means moderate. "+RA" (B) indicates heavy continuous rain, not a shower. "TS" (A) denotes a thunderstorm without specifying precipitation type. "+TSRA" (D) indicates a heavy thunderstorm with rain — a more severe phenomenon than a simple rain shower.

Key Terms

METAR = Aerodrome routine weather report ### Q150: For which areas are SIGMET warnings issued? ^t50q150

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

SIGMET (Significant Meteorological Information) warnings are issued for Flight Information Regions (FIRs) and Upper Information Regions (UIRs), which are standardised ICAO airspace blocks managed by specific ATC authorities. They warn of hazardous weather phenomena (severe turbulence, icing, volcanic ash, thunderstorms) within these defined airspace volumes. - SIGMETs are not issued for individual airports (A) — those use AIRMETs or aerodrome warnings. - They are not route-specific (C) or country-specific (D), as a single country may contain multiple FIRs.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Solar heating on the windward slope warms the surface air, making it less dense and creating anabatic (upslope) flow that combines with the mechanical orographic lift from the oncoming wind, significantly strengthening the updraft. This is why south- and west-facing slopes in the Northern Hemisphere often produce the strongest lift during sunny afternoons.

Q152: The prefix used for clouds in the high layers is ^t50q152

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The prefix "Cirro-" identifies clouds in the high cloud family, typically found above approximately 6000 m (FL200) in mid-latitudes, and includes cirrus, cirrocumulus, and cirrostratus — all composed primarily of ice crystals.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level ### Q153: What factor may limit the vertical extent of cumulus clouds at the top? ^t50q153

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

An inversion layer creates a zone where temperature increases with altitude, forming a highly stable lid that stops rising thermals from penetrating further upward. Cumulus clouds reaching this barrier flatten out and spread horizontally rather than continuing to develop vertically, which is why fair-weather cumulus often have a uniform top height.

Q154: Which factors point toward a tendency for fog formation? ^t50q154

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A small spread (temperature close to dew point) means the air is already near saturation, and falling temperature will close the remaining gap, causing condensation at or near the surface — fog. These are the classic pre-fog conditions monitored by pilots and forecasters.

Q155: What process gives rise to orographic fog (hill fog)? ^t50q155

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Orographic fog (hill fog) forms when warm, moist air is forced to ascend over elevated terrain, cooling adiabatically until it reaches the dew point and condenses. The resulting cloud envelops the hill or mountain and appears as fog to anyone on the slope or summit.

Q156: What is needed for precipitation to form inside clouds? ^t50q156

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Precipitation particles need time to grow large enough to fall against the updraft, either through collision-coalescence (warm rain process) or the Bergeron ice-crystal process. Moderate to strong updrafts keep water droplets and ice crystals suspended in the cloud long enough for this growth to occur.

Q157: In areas where isobars are widely spaced, what wind conditions should be expected? ^t50q157

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Widely spaced isobars indicate a weak horizontal pressure gradient, which produces only light synoptic-scale winds. In the absence of a dominant pressure-driven flow, local thermally driven wind systems — such as valley-mountain breezes, sea-land breezes, and slope winds — become the primary circulation features, with wind direction varying throughout the day.

Q158: Under what circumstances does back side weather (Rückseitenwetter) occur? ^t50q158

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

"Back-side weather" (Rückseitenwetter) describes the conditions in the cold, unstable polar air mass that follows behind a cold front on the western or northwestern side of a low-pressure system. It is characterized by good visibility, convective cumulus clouds, and scattered showers or snow showers.

Q159: How is a wind reported as 225/15 described? ^t50q159

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In aviation weather reporting, wind is always given as the direction FROM which it blows (in degrees true) followed by speed in knots. A report of 225/15 means wind from 225 degrees (southwest) at 15 knots.

Q160: In the Bavarian area near the Alps, what weather typically accompanies Foehn conditions? ^t50q160

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

During Foehn in the Bavarian pre-alpine region, the prevailing southerly flow forces moist air up the southern (Italian) side of the Alps, producing nimbostratus and heavy orographic precipitation there. As the air descends on the northern (Bavarian) lee side, it warms adiabatically and dries out, creating the characteristic warm, dry, gusty Foehn wind. Rotor clouds and lenticular clouds form on the lee side due to wave activity.

Q161: Clouds are fundamentally classified into which two basic types? ^t50q161

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The fundamental cloud classification divides all clouds into two basic forms based on their physical formation process: cumuliform (convective, vertically developed clouds formed by localized updrafts) and stratiform (layered, horizontally extended clouds formed by widespread, gentle lifting or cooling). All other cloud types and subtypes derive from combinations of these two basic forms.

Q162: During Foehn conditions, what weather phenomenon marked as "2" should be expected on the lee side?. ^t50q162

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q162.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

On the lee side during Foehn conditions, the descending air creates standing wave patterns downwind of the mountain ridge. These waves produce Altocumulus lenticularis — smooth, lens-shaped or almond-shaped clouds that remain stationary relative to the terrain despite strong winds passing through them. They are a hallmark of mountain wave activity.

Q163: When very small water droplets and ice crystals strike the leading surfaces of an aircraft, which type of ice forms? ^t50q163

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Rime ice forms when very small supercooled water droplets freeze instantly upon contact with the aircraft's leading edges, trapping air between the frozen particles and creating a rough, white, opaque deposit. Because the droplets are so small, they freeze before they can spread, resulting in the characteristic granular texture.

Q164: Which chart contains information about pressure patterns and frontal positions? ^t50q164

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The surface weather chart (synoptic analysis chart) is the primary meteorological product displaying isobars (lines of equal pressure at MSL), the locations of highs and lows, and the positions and types of fronts (warm, cold, occluded, stationary).

Key Terms

MSL = Mean Sea Level ### Q165: What is the typical cloud sequence observed during the approach and passage of a warm front? ^t50q165

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The approach of a warm front produces a characteristic descending cloud sequence as the warm air gradually overrides the retreating cold air mass. First, thin cirrus appears at high altitude, followed by cirrostratus, then progressively thickening altostratus and altocumulus at mid-levels, and finally nimbostratus with a low cloud base and prolonged steady rain.

Q166: What phenomenon results from cold-air downdrafts carrying precipitation from a fully developed thunderstorm cloud? ^t50q166

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In a mature thunderstorm, precipitation drags cold air downward in powerful downdrafts. When this cold, dense air reaches the surface, it spreads outward rapidly as a density current, creating a gust front — a sharp boundary marked by sudden wind shifts, temperature drops, and gusty conditions that can extend several kilometres ahead of the storm.

Q167: Which item is NOT included on Low-Level Significant Weather Charts (LLSWC)? ^t50q167

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Low-Level Significant Weather Charts are forecast products that depict meteorological hazards below a specified altitude, including frontal systems and their movement (option A), turbulence areas (option B), and icing conditions (option C). However, they do not contain radar echoes of precipitation (option D) because radar imagery is a real-time observational product, whereas LLSWC are prognostic charts prepared in advance. Precipitation areas may be indicated symbolically on LLSWC, but actual radar returns are found only on separate radar displays.

Q168: Which cloud type produces prolonged, steady rain? ^t50q168

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Nimbostratus (Ns) is a thick, dark grey, amorphous layer cloud that produces continuous, steady precipitation (rain or snow) over wide areas, typically associated with warm fronts or occlusions. Its great vertical and horizontal extent ensures prolonged precipitation reaching the ground.

Q169: Based on cloud type, how is precipitation classified? ^t50q169

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Meteorological classification of precipitation by cloud type distinguishes two fundamental categories: rain (steady, continuous precipitation from stratiform clouds like nimbostratus) and showers of rain (intermittent, convective precipitation from cumuliform clouds like cumulonimbus or cumulus congestus). This distinction reflects the physical formation process — widespread lifting versus localized convection.

Q170: Which conditions favour thunderstorm development? ^t50q170

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Thunderstorm development requires three essential ingredients: moisture (warm, humid air provides the latent heat fuel), instability (a conditionally unstable lapse rate allows saturated air parcels to accelerate upward), and a lifting mechanism (fronts, orographic forcing, or surface heating).

Q171: When isobars on a surface weather chart are widely spaced, what does this indicate about the prevailing wind? ^t50q171

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The spacing of isobars on a surface weather chart is inversely proportional to the pressure gradient: widely spaced isobars mean a small pressure difference over a large distance (weak gradient), which produces only light wind. Wind speed is directly driven by the pressure gradient force, so a weak gradient means weak wind.

Q172: An air mass arriving in Central Europe from the Russian continent during winter is described as ^t50q172

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Air masses are classified by their source region's surface characteristics. Air originating over the vast, snow-covered Russian (Siberian) continent during winter acquires cold temperatures and very low moisture content, making it Continental Polar (cP). This air mass brings bitterly cold, dry conditions to Central Europe when it advects westward.

Q173: What clouds and weather are typically observed during the passage of a cold front? ^t50q173

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Cold front passage is marked by a narrow band of intense weather as the advancing cold air undercuts the warm air, forcing it rapidly aloft. This produces strongly developed cumulonimbus (Cb) clouds, heavy rain showers, thunderstorms, and gusty winds along the frontal line, followed by cumulus with isolated showers in the cold, unstable air behind the front.

Q174: When an aircraft is struck by lightning, what is the most immediate danger? ^t50q174

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The most immediate physical danger from a lightning strike is surface overheating at the attachment and exit points, along with damage to exposed components such as antennas, pitot tubes, wingtips, and control surface edges. The extreme heat at the strike points can burn through thin skins, pit metal surfaces, and damage composite materials.

Q175: What is meant by mountain wind? ^t50q175

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Mountain wind (Bergwind) is a katabatic flow that occurs at night when mountain slopes cool by radiation faster than the free atmosphere at the same altitude. The cooled, denser air drains downslope under gravity toward the valley floor. This is part of the diurnal mountain-valley wind cycle.

Q176: What is the average value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate? ^t50q176

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The saturated (moist) adiabatic lapse rate averages approximately 0.6 degrees C per 100 m. It is lower than the dry adiabatic lapse rate (1.0 degrees C per 100 m) because latent heat released during condensation partially offsets the cooling of the ascending air parcel.

Q177: Throughout the year, extensive high pressure areas are found ^t50q177

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The subtropical high-pressure belt at approximately 30 degrees N and S latitude is a semi-permanent feature of the global atmospheric circulation, created by the descending branch of the Hadley cell. Warm air rising near the equator flows poleward aloft, cools, and subsides in the subtropics, forming persistent anticyclones over the oceans (e.g., the Azores High, the Pacific High).

Q178: During flight, weather and operational information about the destination aerodrome can be obtained via ^t50q178

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) is a continuous broadcast available on a dedicated frequency at equipped aerodromes, providing current weather observations, active runway, transition level, approach procedures, and relevant NOTAMs specific to that aerodrome. Pilots tune in to the ATIS frequency during flight to obtain up-to-date destination information.

Key Terms

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q179.png)

Answer

A)

Explanation

The cloud in figure is cumulus, identifiable by its characteristic flat base (marking the condensation level) and vertically developed, cauliflower-like top with sharp white outlines against the blue sky. Cumulus clouds form through thermal convection and are the clouds most associated with soaring flight.

Q180: What determines the character of an air mass? ^t50q180

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

An air mass acquires its temperature and moisture properties from the surface conditions of its source region (e.g., polar continent, tropical ocean) and then modifies as it travels over different surfaces along its trajectory. Both the origin (which sets the initial character) and the path (which modifies it) are essential for classifying and forecasting air mass behaviour.

Q181: What cloud type is commonly observed across extensive high-pressure areas in summer? ^t50q181

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In summer anticyclones, surface heating generates thermal convection that produces scattered fair-weather Cumulus clouds (Cu humilis or Cu mediocris) during the day, dissipating in the evening. Overcast low stratus (option D) is associated with stable, moist air at low levels, common in autumn or maritime high-pressure situations. Nimbostratus (option B) is associated with frontal systems. Squall lines and thunderstorms (option A) require convective instability and moisture not typical of settled high-pressure conditions.

Q182: The symbol marked (1) in the figure represents which frontal type? ^t50q182

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q182.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

On a surface weather chart, a cold front is depicted by a line with solid triangular spikes (barbs) pointing in the direction of movement. The symbol labeled (1) in figure matches the cold front symbol. A warm front uses semicircles. An occlusion uses alternating triangles and semicircles. A front aloft is depicted differently and is less commonly shown on basic surface charts.

Q183: In METAR code, which identifier denotes heavy rain? ^t50q183

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In METAR codes, precipitation intensity is indicated by a '+' prefix (heavy) or '-' prefix (light); no prefix means moderate. Rain is coded 'RA'. Therefore heavy rain is '+RA' (written as '+RA' in the standard, shown in the options as '.+RA'). 'RA' alone (option B) means moderate rain. 'SHRA' (option D) means shower of rain (moderate). '+SHRA' (option A) means heavy shower of rain — a convective shower, not continuous heavy rain.

Key Terms

METAR = Aerodrome routine weather report ### Q184: During which stage of a thunderstorm do strong updrafts and downdrafts coexist? ^t50q184

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In the mature stage of a thunderstorm, both strong updrafts (sustaining the storm) and strong downdrafts (driven by precipitation drag and evaporative cooling) coexist simultaneously within the Cumulonimbus cell. The initial (cumulus) stage has only updrafts. The dissipating stage is dominated by downdrafts only, which cut off the updraft supply and weaken the storm. 'Thunderstorm stage' (option A) is not a recognised meteorological term.

Q185: Which conditions are most conducive to aircraft icing? ^t50q185

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The most severe icing occurs between 0°C and -12°C where supercooled liquid water droplets are most abundant and drop size is largest, producing clear or mixed icing on airframe surfaces. Below -20°C, cloud water is mostly in ice crystal form and causes much less accretion. Above 0°C, droplets are not supercooled and do not freeze on contact. Icing in clear air (option D) does not occur as there are no supercooled droplets. Cirrus (option C) contains ice crystals which do not adhere significantly.

Q186: What is the primary hazard when approaching a valley airfield with strong winds aloft blowing perpendicular to the surrounding ridges? ^t50q186

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

When strong wind blows perpendicular to a mountain ridge, orographic lift on the windward side and mechanical turbulence create complex wind shear on the lee side. An aircraft descending into a valley airfield on the lee side may encounter severe wind shear with the wind reversing by up to 180° between altitudes, creating sudden loss of airspeed or ground wind opposite to the upper-level flow. Reduced visibility (option C) is a secondary concern. Icing (option D) is unrelated to mountain wind shear. Heavy downdrafts in rainfall (option A) describes thunderstorm activity, not orographic flow.

Q187: What are "blue thermals"? ^t50q187

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Blue thermals are thermals that extend to significant altitude but remain below the condensation level (dew point height), so no Cumulus clouds form — the sky appears clear (blue). They are invisible to glider pilots and require instruments or experience to exploit.

Q188: The expression "beginning of thermals" refers to the moment when thermal strength ^t50q188

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The 'beginning of thermals' (Thermikbeginn) is the moment when thermal lift becomes sufficiently strong and deep (reaching at least 600 m AGL) for a glider to sustain flight and gain height — this is the practical definition. It does not require Cu cloud formation (option A), nor does it specify a fixed MSL altitude (option B).

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The trigger temperature is the minimum ground temperature that must be reached before thermals are strong enough to carry air parcels to the condensation level and form Cumulus clouds. It is found on a tephigram or skew-T diagram by tracing the dry adiabatic lapse rate from the surface intersection until it meets the temperature profile.

Q190: In a weather briefing, what does the term "over-development" refer to? ^t50q190

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Over-development (Überentwicklung) occurs when Cumulus clouds develop vertically beyond Cu congestus into rain-producing Cumulonimbus clouds, generating showers and thunderstorms. This typically happens in the afternoon when the atmosphere becomes increasingly unstable.

Q191: In gliding meteorology, what does "shielding" refer to? ^t50q191

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Shielding (Abschirmung) refers to a layer of high or mid-level cloud (such as Cirrostratus, Altostratus, or Altocumulus) that intercepts solar radiation before it reaches the ground, thus reducing or suppressing the surface heating required for thermal development.

Q192: What is the gaseous composition of dry air? ^t50q192

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Dry air is composed of approximately 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and 1% argon and trace gases including carbon dioxide. This is the standard atmospheric composition. All other options incorrectly swap the proportions of nitrogen and oxygen or introduce water vapour as a major component. Water vapour is a variable constituent (0–4%) not included in the standard dry air composition.

Q193: Under ISA conditions at mean sea level, what is the mass of one cubic metre of air? ^t50q193

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

At MSL under ISA conditions, the standard air density is 1.225 kg/m³. A cube with 1 m edges has a volume of 1 m³, so its mass is 1.225 kg.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The tropopause is the boundary layer separating the troposphere (where temperature decreases with altitude) from the stratosphere (where temperature is initially constant and then increases due to ozone absorption). It is not the layer above the troposphere (option C), nor the height where temperature starts to decrease (option A — that is the surface of the troposphere).

Q195: What characterises an inversion layer? ^t50q195

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

An inversion layer is an atmospheric layer in which temperature increases with increasing altitude, the reverse ('inversion') of the normal decrease. Inversions suppress vertical mixing and convection, trapping pollutants and inhibiting thermal development above them.

Q196: What defines an isothermal layer? ^t50q196

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

An isothermal layer is one in which temperature remains constant with increasing altitude — neither increasing (inversion, option A) nor decreasing (normal lapse rate, option C). Isothermal conditions are found, for example, in the lower stratosphere.

Q197: What fundamental force initiates wind? ^t50q197

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Wind is caused by the pressure gradient force — air flows from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, and the greater the pressure difference over a given distance, the stronger the resulting wind. The Coriolis force (option B) deflects wind but does not create it. Centrifugal force (option C) is a secondary effect in curved flow. There is no meteorological force specifically called 'thermal force'; thermal differences drive pressure gradients, but the direct cause of wind is the pressure gradient itself.

Q198: Under what conditions does Foehn typically develop? ^t50q198

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Foehn develops when a stable airflow is forced over a mountain barrier. On the windward side, the air rises moist-adiabatically (condensation releasing latent heat), and on the lee side it descends dry-adiabatically, arriving warmer and drier than before ascent. Stability is necessary for the organised flow; instability would break the flow into convective cells. Calm high-pressure conditions (options B and C) do not provide the cross-mountain pressure gradient needed. Instability (option D) would prevent the laminar flow characteristic of Foehn.

Q199: How is the "spread" (dew-point depression) defined? ^t50q199

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The spread (or dew-point spread) is the difference between the actual (dry-bulb) air temperature and the dew point temperature. A small spread indicates air close to saturation; when the spread reaches zero, condensation and fog or cloud formation occur.

Q200: During Foehn, what weather phenomenon designated by "2" should be expected on the lee side?. ^t50q200

DE · FR

![](figures/t50_q200.png)

Answer

B)

Explanation

This question is identical in content to question 90. During Foehn, the descending and warming lee-side flow is stable and generates standing wave clouds. Altocumulus lenticularis forms in the crests of these mountain waves on the lee side. Cumulonimbus (options C and D) requires strong convective instability absent in Foehn descent. Altocumulus Castellanus (option A) indicates mid-level instability, not the stable wave motion of a Foehn situation.

Q201: Which factor can prevent radiation fog from forming? ^t50q201

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Radiation fog forms on clear, calm nights when the ground radiates heat to space, cooling the surface air to its dew point. An overcast cloud cover prevents the necessary radiative cooling of the ground surface by acting as an insulating blanket, reflecting long-wave radiation back to the ground. Calm wind (option B) is actually a prerequisite for radiation fog formation. A clear night (option D) and low spread (option A) are also favourable, not preventative, conditions.

Q202: Through what process does advection fog form? ^t50q202

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Advection fog forms when warm, moist air is transported (advected) horizontally over a cold surface and cooled from below to its dew point. This is most common over cold ocean currents or cold land surfaces in spring.

Q203: What process leads to the development of orographic fog (hill fog)? ^t50q203

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Orographic fog (hill fog) forms when moist air is forced to rise over terrain, cooling adiabatically until it reaches its dew point; the result is a cloud base that sits on the hillside or mountain top.

Q204: What weather phenomena are associated with an upper-level trough? ^t50q204

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

An upper-level trough is a region of cold air aloft with positive vorticity advection, which promotes divergence aloft and convergence at the surface, triggering strong convective uplift. This instability favours the development of showers and thunderstorms (Cumulonimbus).

Q205: On the windward side of a mountain range during Foehn, what weather should be expected? ^t50q205

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

On the windward (stau) side of a mountain range during Foehn, moist air is forced to rise and cool, producing dense cloud, obscured peaks, poor visibility, and moderate to heavy rain or snow — the classic 'Stau' weather.

Q206: Which chart presents observed MSL pressure distribution and the corresponding frontal systems? ^t50q206

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The surface weather chart (also called the synoptic chart or analysis chart) displays actual measured pressure values reduced to MSL as isobars, along with the positions of frontal systems. It represents the observed state of the atmosphere at a specific time. A prognostic chart (option B) shows forecast conditions. The hypsometric chart (option D) shows upper-level contour heights on constant-pressure surfaces. The SWC (option A) focuses on hazardous weather phenomena, not comprehensive pressure analysis.

Key Terms

MSL = Mean Sea Level ### Q207: In METAR, how is heavy rain encoded? ^t50q207

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

This question is identical to question 120. In METAR, precipitation intensity modifiers are '+' for heavy and '-' for light. 'RA' is the METAR code for rain; therefore '+RA' (shown as '.+RA' in the options) denotes heavy rain. 'RA' (option D) alone means moderate rain. 'SHRA' (option A) is shower of rain. '+SHRA' (option B) is heavy shower of rain — a different precipitation type.

Key Terms

METAR = Aerodrome routine weather report ### Q208: In METAR, how are moderate rain showers encoded? ^t50q208

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In METAR, the descriptor 'SH' (shower) is added before the precipitation code to indicate convective precipitation from cumuliform clouds. Moderate showers of rain are therefore coded 'SHRA'. '+TSRA' (option C) means heavy thunderstorm with rain. 'TS' (option B) means thunderstorm without precipitation modifier. '+RA' (option A) means heavy continuous rain from stratiform clouds, not a shower.

Key Terms

METAR = Aerodrome routine weather report ### Q209: Under what conditions does back-side weather (Ruckseitenwetter) occur? ^t50q209

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Back-side weather (Rückseitenwetter) describes the weather in the cold air mass following the passage of a cold front: cold, unstable polar or arctic air with scattered showers, good visibility, and gusty winds — often excellent soaring conditions for gliders in the convective back-side air. It occurs after, not before, frontal passages. An occlusion (option D) combines warm and cold front characteristics. Foehn (option B) is a separate orographic phenomenon. After a warm front (option A) brings the warm sector, not cold back-side air.

Q210: In the International Standard Atmosphere, how does temperature change from MSL to approximately 10,000 m altitude? ^t50q210

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

In the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), the temperature at MSL is +15°C, and the temperature decreases at 6.5°C per 1000 m (2°C per 1000 ft) through the troposphere. At approximately 11,000 m (the tropopause), the temperature reaches -56.5°C, rounding to approximately -50°C at 10,000 m.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Classic Bavarian Foehn is driven by low pressure over the Gulf of Genoa and high pressure over the North Sea, forcing air southward over the Alps. Nimbostratus forms on the south (windward) side of the Alps, while on the north (lee) Bavarian side, warm and dry air descends, often accompanied by Föhnmauer (Foehn wall) and rotor clouds along the Foehn boundary.