Human Performance
Q1: The majority of aviation accidents are caused by ^t40q1
DE · FR
- A) Meteorological influences.
- B) Human failure.
- C) Technical failure.
- D) Geographical influences.
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because statistical analyses consistently show that roughly 70-80% of aviation accidents have human error as a primary or contributing cause, including poor judgment, loss of situational awareness, and inadequate decision-making.
- A is wrong because weather is a contributing factor in some accidents but accounts for a far smaller share than human error.
- C is wrong because modern aircraft are highly reliable and technical failures cause only a minority of accidents.
- D is wrong because geographical influences (terrain, obstacles) are environmental factors, not the dominant accident cause.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: B)
### Q2: The "swiss cheese model" can be used to explain the ^t40q2
DE · FR
- A) State of readiness of a pilot.
- B) Optimal problem solution.
- C) Procedure for an emergency landing.
- D) Error chain.
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because James Reason's Swiss Cheese Model shows how accidents result from an error chain — multiple defensive layers (represented as slices of cheese) each have weaknesses ("holes"), and an accident occurs only when these holes align simultaneously to let a hazard pass through all barriers.
- A is wrong because the model does not address pilot readiness or fitness.
- B is wrong because it is not a problem-solving tool.
- C is wrong because it has nothing to do with emergency landing procedures.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: D)
### Q3: What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 6000 ft? ^t40q3
DE · FR
- A) 18.9 %
- B) 21 %
- C) 78 %
- D) 12 %
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because the composition of atmospheric gases remains constant at approximately 21% oxygen regardless of altitude — it is the partial pressure of oxygen that decreases as you climb, not the percentage.
- A is wrong because 18.9% does not correspond to any standard atmospheric value.
- C is wrong because 78% is the proportion of nitrogen, not oxygen.
- D is wrong because 12% is far below the actual oxygen fraction at any altitude within the atmosphere.
Source
Q4: Which is the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere? ^t40q4
DE · FR
- A) 21 %
- B) 0.1 %
- C) 78 %
- D) 1 %
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because nitrogen constitutes approximately 78% of the atmosphere and remains physiologically inert under normal flight conditions, though it becomes relevant in decompression sickness after diving.
- A is wrong because 21% is the proportion of oxygen.
- B is wrong because 0.1% is far too low and does not correspond to any major atmospheric gas.
- D is wrong because 1% represents the approximate total of all trace gases combined, not nitrogen.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: C)
### Q5: At which altitude is the atmospheric pressure approximately half the MSL value (1013 hPa)? ^t40q5
DE · FR
- A) 5000 ft
- B) 10000 ft
- C) 22000 ft
- D) 18000 ft
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because at approximately 18,000 ft the atmospheric pressure drops to about 500 hPa, which is roughly half of the standard sea-level value of 1013.25 hPa, and this also means the partial pressure of oxygen is halved.
- A is wrong because at 5,000 ft the pressure is still about 843 hPa.
- B is wrong because at 10,000 ft the pressure is approximately 700 hPa.
- C is wrong because at 22,000 ft the pressure is well below half the sea-level value.
Key Terms
MSL = Mean Sea Level
Source
Q6: Air consists of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases. Which is the approximate percentage of other gases? ^t40q6
DE · FR
- A) 21 %
- B) 1 %
- C) 78 %
- D) 0.1 %
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because after oxygen (21%) and nitrogen (78%), the remaining approximately 1% consists of trace gases — mainly argon (about 0.93%) with small amounts of carbon dioxide, neon, and helium.
- A is wrong because 21% is the oxygen proportion.
- C is wrong because 78% is the nitrogen proportion.
- D is wrong because 0.1% is too low; argon alone accounts for nearly 1%.
Source
Q7: Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by ^t40q7
DE · FR
- A) Little sleep.
- B) Unhealthy food.
- C) Smoking.
- D) Alcohol.
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because cigarette smoke contains carbon monoxide (CO) from incomplete combustion, and CO binds to haemoglobin with approximately 200 times the affinity of oxygen, reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.
- A is wrong because sleep deprivation causes fatigue but does not produce CO.
- B is wrong because unhealthy food affects nutrition but does not generate CO.
- D is wrong because alcohol impairs cognitive function through a different mechanism unrelated to CO poisoning.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: C)
### Q8: What does the term "Red-out" mean? ^t40q8
DE · FR
- A) "Red vision" during negative g-loads
- B) Rash during decompression sickness
- C) Anaemia caused by an injury
- D) Falsified colour perception during sunrise and sunset
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because red-out occurs during sustained negative g-forces (such as in a pushover or bunt manoeuvre), which force blood into the head and eyes, engorging the retinal blood vessels and creating a red-tinted visual field.
- B is wrong because decompression sickness causes joint pain and skin mottling, not a red visual field.
- C is wrong because anaemia is a blood condition unrelated to g-forces.
- D is wrong because sunrise and sunset affect ambient light colour, not a physiological visual disturbance.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: A)
### Q9: Which of these is NOT a symptom of hyperventilaton? ^t40q9
DE · FR
- A) Cyanose
- B) Spasm
- C) Disturbance of consciousness
- D) Tingling
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because cyanosis (blue discolouration of skin and lips) is caused by low blood oxygen levels and is a sign of hypoxia, not hyperventilation. Hyperventilation actually increases blood oxygen levels while decreasing CO2.
- B is wrong as an answer choice because muscle spasms (tetany) are a genuine symptom of hyperventilation due to alkalosis.
- C is wrong because disturbed consciousness does occur during severe hyperventilation.
- D is wrong because tingling in the extremities and face is one of the earliest and most characteristic hyperventilation symptoms.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: A)
### Q10: Which of these symptoms may indicate hypoxia? ^t40q10
DE · FR
- A) Blue discolouration of lips and fingernails
- B) Blue marks all over the body
- C) Muscle cramps in the upper body area
- D) Joint pain in knees and feet
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because cyanosis — the bluish discolouration of lips, fingertips, and nail beds — is a classic clinical sign of hypoxia caused by an increased proportion of deoxygenated haemoglobin in the blood.
- B is wrong because diffuse blue marks over the body suggest bruising, not oxygen deficiency.
- C is wrong because upper body muscle cramps are more associated with hyperventilation or electrolyte imbalances.
- D is wrong because joint pain in knees and feet is characteristic of decompression sickness, not hypoxia.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: A)
### Q11: Which of the human senses is most influenced by hypoxia? ^t40q11
DE · FR
- A) The visual perception (vision)
- B) The tactile perception (sense of touch)
- C) The oltfactory perception (smell)
- D) The auditory perception (hearing)
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because the retina has an exceptionally high oxygen demand, making vision the first sense to degrade under hypoxic conditions — night vision can deteriorate noticeably at altitudes as low as 5,000 ft.
- B is wrong because touch is relatively resistant to mild hypoxia.
- C is wrong because smell, while it can be affected, is not the most sensitive sense to oxygen deprivation.
- D is wrong because hearing is also less affected than vision at moderate altitude.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: A)
### Q12: From which altitude on does the body usually react to the decreasing atmospheric pressure? ^t40q12
DE · FR
- A) 10000 feet
- B) 7000 feet
- C) 12000 feet
- D) 2000 feet
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because at approximately 7,000 ft the body begins to show measurable physiological responses to reduced oxygen partial pressure, such as increased heart rate and breathing rate, though a healthy person can still compensate.
- A is wrong because 10,000 ft is an altitude where compensation is already well underway, not where it begins.
- C is wrong because at 12,000 ft the body is already struggling to compensate adequately.
- D is wrong because at 2,000 ft the oxygen partial pressure is still too close to sea-level values to trigger noticeable physiological responses.
Source
Q13: Which altitude marks the lower limit where the the body is unable to completely compensate the effects of the low atmospheric pressure? ^t40q13
DE · FR
- A) 7000 feet
- B) 5000 feet
- C) 22000 feet
- D) 12000 feet
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because above approximately 12,000 ft the body's compensatory mechanisms — increased breathing and heart rate — are no longer sufficient to maintain adequate blood oxygen saturation, and hypoxic symptoms become increasingly apparent.
- A is wrong because at 7,000 ft the body begins compensating but can still manage effectively.
- B is wrong because 5,000 ft is well within the range where no significant compensation is needed.
- C is wrong because 22,000 ft is far above the threshold where compensation fails — at that altitude, loss of consciousness occurs rapidly.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: D)
### Q14: What is the function of the red blood cells (erythrocytes)? ^t40q14
DE · FR
- A) Blood coagulation
- B) Blood sugar regulation
- C) Immune defense
- D) Oxygen transport
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because red blood cells contain haemoglobin, an iron-rich protein that binds oxygen in the lungs and delivers it to tissues throughout the body, making them the primary oxygen transport mechanism.
- A is wrong because blood coagulation is the function of platelets (thrombocytes).
- B is wrong because blood sugar regulation is controlled by the pancreas via insulin and glucagon.
- C is wrong because immune defence is the function of white blood cells (leucocytes).
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: D)
### Q15: Which of these accounts for the blood coagulation? ^t40q15
DE · FR
- A) Capillaries of the arteries
- B) Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
- C) White blood cells (leucocytes)
- D) Blood plates (thrombocytes)
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because blood platelets (thrombocytes) are cell fragments that aggregate at injury sites and activate the clotting cascade to form a fibrin clot, stopping bleeding.
- A is wrong because capillaries are blood vessels, not clotting agents.
- B is wrong because red blood cells transport oxygen, not participate in coagulation.
- C is wrong because white blood cells are responsible for immune defence, not blood clotting.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: D)
### Q16: Which is the function of the white blood cells (leucocytes)? ^t40q16
DE · FR
- A) Immune defense
- B) Blood sugar regulation
- C) Blood coagulation
- D) Oxygen transport
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because white blood cells (leucocytes) are the cellular components of the immune system, responsible for identifying and destroying pathogens, foreign substances, and abnormal cells.
- B is wrong because blood sugar regulation is managed by hormones from the pancreas.
- C is wrong because blood coagulation is the role of thrombocytes (platelets).
- D is wrong because oxygen transport is performed by red blood cells (erythrocytes) via haemoglobin.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: A)
### Q17: Which is the function of the blood platelets (thrombocytes)? ^t40q17
DE · FR
- A) Oxygen transport
- B) Immune defense
- C) Blood coagulation
- D) Blood sugar regulation
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because thrombocytes (platelets) are the primary agents of haemostasis — they rapidly aggregate at vascular injury sites and release chemicals that trigger the coagulation cascade, forming a stable clot.
- A is wrong because oxygen transport is the function of erythrocytes (red blood cells).
- B is wrong because immune defence belongs to leucocytes (white blood cells).
- D is wrong because blood sugar regulation is a hormonal function of the pancreas.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: C)
### Q18: Which of these is NOT a risk factor for hypoxia? ^t40q18
DE · FR
- A) Blood donation
- B) Diving
- C) Menstruation
- D) Smoking
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because scuba diving is a risk factor for decompression sickness (nitrogen bubbles forming in tissues), not hypoxia — diving itself does not reduce the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.
- A is wrong as an answer because blood donation reduces red blood cell count, directly lowering oxygen transport ability.
- C is wrong because heavy menstruation can lead to anaemia, which reduces oxygen-carrying capacity.
- D is wrong because smoking introduces carbon monoxide that binds to haemoglobin, displacing oxygen.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: B)
### Q19: What is an appropriate reaction when a passenger during cruise flight suddenly feels uncomfortable? ^t40q19
DE · FR
- A) Adjust cabin temperature and prevent excessive bank
- B) Avoid conversation and choose a higher airspeed
- C) Switch on the heater blower and provide thermal blankets
- D) Give additional oxygen and avoid low load factors
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because adjusting the cabin temperature to a comfortable level and reducing bank angle minimises the most common causes of passenger discomfort — thermal discomfort and vestibular stimulation that can trigger motion sickness.
- B is wrong because avoiding conversation isolates the passenger and higher airspeed does not address the underlying discomfort.
- C is wrong because warming a potentially overheated passenger could worsen their condition.
- D is wrong because supplemental oxygen is not the standard first response, and avoiding low load factors is not the primary concern.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: A)
### Q20: What ist the correct term for an involuntary and stereotypical reaction of an organism to the stimulation of a receptor? ^t40q20
DE · FR
- A) Reflex
- B) Reduction
- C) Coherence
- D) Virulence
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because a reflex is defined as an involuntary, rapid, and stereotyped neural response to a specific stimulus, mediated through a reflex arc without requiring conscious thought.
- B is wrong because reduction is a general term meaning decrease, not a physiological response.
- C is wrong because coherence refers to logical consistency or connectedness.
- D is wrong because virulence describes the severity or harmfulness of a pathogen, not a nervous system reaction.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: A)
### Q21: Which is the correct term for the system which, among others, controls breathing, digestion, and heart frequency? ^t40q21
DE · FR
- A) Critical nervous system
- B) Compliant nervous system
- C) Autonomic nervous system
- D) Automatical nervous system
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because the autonomic nervous system (ANS) regulates involuntary body functions including heart rate, breathing, digestion, and glandular activity through its sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
- A is wrong because "critical nervous system" is not a recognised anatomical term.
- B is wrong because "compliant nervous system" does not exist in medical terminology.
- D is wrong because the correct term is "autonomic," not "automatical" — though they sound similar, only C uses the proper medical designation.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: A)
### Q22: Which is the parallax error? ^t40q22
DE · FR
- A) Wrong interpretation of instruments caused by the angle of vision
- B) A decoding error in communication between pilots
- C) Long-sightedness due to aging especially during night
- D) Misperception of speed during taxiing
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because parallax error occurs when an instrument is read from an oblique viewing angle rather than straight on, causing the pointer to appear displaced against the scale and producing a false reading.
- B is wrong because communication errors between pilots relate to encoding/decoding in the communication model, not instrument reading.
- C is wrong because age-related long-sightedness (presbyopia) is a refractive eye condition, not a parallax effect.
- D is wrong because speed misperception during taxiing is a visual illusion unrelated to instrument reading angles.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: B)
### Q23: Which characteristic is important when choosing sunglasses used by pilots? ^t40q23
DE · FR
- A) No UV filter
- B) Curved sidepiece
- C) Unbreakable
- D) Non-polarised
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because polarised lenses can render LCD displays and glass cockpit instruments unreadable by blocking the plane of light they emit, and they may also mask glare reflections from other aircraft or water surfaces that serve as important visual cues.
- A is wrong because UV protection is actually desirable for eye health at altitude, not something to avoid.
- B is wrong because curved sidepieces are a comfort feature, not a safety-critical characteristic.
- C is wrong because while durability is nice, it is not the aviation-specific concern that makes non-polarisation essential.
Source
- [?] Source PDF non identifiée (original: D)
### Q24: The connection between middle ear and nose and throat region is called ^t40q24
DE · FR
- A) Inner ear.
- B) Eardrum.
- C) Eustachian tube.
- D) Cochlea.
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because the Eustachian tube (auditory tube) is the anatomical passage connecting the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing pressure equalisation during altitude changes by opening when you swallow or yawn.
- A is wrong because the inner ear contains the balance organs and cochlea but does not connect to the throat.
- B is wrong because the eardrum (tympanic membrane) is the boundary between the outer and middle ear.
- D is wrong because the cochlea is the spiral-shaped hearing organ within the inner ear.
Source
Q25: In which situation is it NOT possible to achieve a pressure compensation between the middle ear and the environment? ^t40q25
DE · FR
- A) During a light and slow climb
- B) The eustachien tube is blocked
- C) All windows are completely closed
- D) Breathing takes place using the mouth solely
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because when the Eustachian tube is blocked — typically due to a cold, sinus infection, or allergic swelling — air cannot flow between the middle ear and the throat, making pressure equalisation impossible and causing severe ear pain during altitude changes.
- A is wrong because a slow climb actually makes equalisation easier.
- C is wrong because window position has no effect on middle ear pressure; equalisation occurs internally through the Eustachian tube.
- D is wrong because mouth breathing does not prevent the Eustachian tube from functioning.
Source
Q26: Wings level after a longer period of turning can lead to the impression of ^t40q26
DE · FR
- A) Starting a descent.
- B) Turning into the opposite direction.
- C) Starting a climb.
- D) Steady turning in the same direction as before.
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because during a prolonged coordinated turn, the semicircular canal fluid adapts and stops signalling the turn; when the pilot levels the wings, the fluid movement creates a false signal interpreted as rotation in the opposite direction — this is the "leans" illusion.
- A is wrong because the illusion is one of lateral rotation, not vertical descent.
- C is wrong because there is no false climb sensation from levelling out of a turn.
- D is wrong because the adapted semicircular canals no longer signal the original turn direction upon recovery.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q27: Which of these options does NOT stimulate motion sickness (disorientation)? ^t40q27
DE · FR
- A) Turbulence in level flight
- B) Non-accelerated straight and level flight
- C) Flying under the influence of alcohol
- D) Head movements during turns
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because non-accelerated straight-and-level flight produces no vestibular stimulation and no conflict between the visual and balance systems, so it cannot trigger motion sickness.
- A is wrong as an answer because turbulence creates unpredictable accelerations that stimulate the vestibular system and cause sensory conflict.
- C is wrong because alcohol changes the density of the endolymph fluid in the inner ear, amplifying sensory mismatches.
- D is wrong because head movements during turns provoke the Coriolis effect in the semicircular canals, a strong trigger for disorientation.
Key Terms
D — Drag
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q28: Which optical illusion might be caused by a runway with an upslope during the approach? ^t40q28
DE · FR
- A) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too fast and reduces the speed below the normal approach speed
- B) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too low and therefore approaches the runway above the regular glide slope
- C) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too slow and speeds up above the normal approach speed
- D) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too high and therefore descents below the regular glide slope
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because an upsloping runway appears shorter and steeper than a flat runway, tricking the pilot's visual system into perceiving a higher-than-actual approach angle, which leads to an instinctive descent below the correct glide slope — creating a dangerous undershoot risk.
- A is wrong because the illusion affects perceived height, not speed.
- B is wrong because it describes the opposite illusion (feeling too low) which would occur with a downsloping runway.
- C is wrong because speed perception is not the primary illusion created by runway slope.
Source
Q29: What impression may be caused when approaching a runway with an upslope? ^t40q29
DE · FR
- A) An undershoot
- B) An overshoot
- C) A landing beside the centerline
- D) A hard landing
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because this question asks about the impression (what the pilot perceives), not the actual outcome. An upsloping runway gives the visual illusion of being too high, so the pilot perceives an overshoot situation.
- A is wrong because although the pilot's corrective response to the false overshoot impression may actually cause an undershoot, the perceived impression itself is of overshooting.
- C is wrong because runway slope does not create lateral displacement illusions.
- D is wrong because the slope illusion affects perceived approach angle, not the perception of landing firmness.
Source
Q30: The occurence of a vertigo is most probable when moving the head ^t40q30
DE · FR
- A) During a climb.
- B) During a straight horizontal flight.
- C) During a descent.
- D) During a turn.
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because moving the head during a turn creates the Coriolis illusion — the semicircular canals are already stimulated by the turn, and adding a head rotation in a different plane simultaneously stimulates additional canals, producing an overwhelming and disorienting sensation of tumbling.
- A is wrong because a climb alone does not pre-load the semicircular canals the way a turn does.
- B is wrong because straight and level flight provides no existing vestibular stimulation to conflict with head movement.
- C is wrong because a descent, like a climb, does not produce the rotational vestibular loading that makes the Coriolis effect so severe.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q31: A Grey-out is the result of ^t40q31
DE · FR
- A) Hypoxia.
- B) Positive g-forces.
- C) Hyperventilation.
- D) Tiredness.
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because grey-out occurs when positive g-forces pull blood away from the head toward the lower body, reducing blood pressure in the retinal arteries and causing progressive loss of colour vision and peripheral vision before full blackout.
- A is wrong because although hypoxia also affects vision, grey-out specifically refers to the g-force-induced phenomenon.
- C is wrong because hyperventilation causes tingling and spasms from CO2 depletion, not the characteristic grey visual field.
- D is wrong because tiredness causes fatigue and reduced alertness, not the acute visual symptoms of grey-out.
Key Terms
D — Drag
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q32: Visual illusions are mostly caused by ^t40q32
DE · FR
- A) Colour blindness.
- B) Misinterpretation of the brain.
- C) Rapid eye movements.
- D) Binocular vision.
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because the brain actively constructs perception by interpreting sensory input based on prior experience and expectations, and when environmental cues are ambiguous or unusual — as is common in aviation — the brain's "best guess" can be dangerously wrong.
- A is wrong because colour blindness is a retinal condition affecting colour discrimination, not a cause of spatial or approach illusions.
- C is wrong because rapid eye movements (saccades) are normal visual behaviour, not a source of illusions.
- D is wrong because binocular vision actually improves depth perception and reduces illusions.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q33: The average decrease of blood alcohol level for an adult in one hour is approximately ^t40q33
DE · FR
- A) 0.1 percent.
- B) 0.3 percent.
- C) 0.03 percent.
- D) 0.01 percent.
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because the liver metabolises alcohol at a roughly constant rate of approximately 0.01% (0.1 per mille or 0.1 g/L) blood alcohol concentration per hour, regardless of body weight, food intake, or the type of drink consumed.
- A is wrong because 0.1% per hour is ten times the actual rate and would mean even heavy intoxication clears in a few hours.
- B is wrong because 0.3% per hour is thirty times too fast.
- C is wrong because 0.03% per hour is three times the actual rate.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q34: Which answer states a risk factor for diabetes? ^t40q34
DE · FR
- A) Sleep deficiency
- B) Overweight
- C) Smoking
- D) Alcohol consumption
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because overweight and obesity — particularly excess visceral fat — are the strongest modifiable risk factors for type 2 diabetes due to the insulin resistance they cause, and diabetes is a significant concern in aviation medicine because of the risk of hypoglycaemic episodes impairing pilot performance.
- A is wrong because although sleep deficiency affects general health, it is not a primary risk factor for diabetes.
- C is wrong because smoking is primarily a cardiovascular and respiratory risk factor.
- D is wrong because moderate alcohol consumption is not a leading cause of diabetes.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q35: A risk factor for decompression sickness is ^t40q35
DE · FR
- A) Sports.
- B) 100 % oxygen after decompression.
- C) Scuba diving prior to flight.
- D) Smoking.
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because scuba diving causes nitrogen to dissolve into body tissues under high ambient pressure, and if the diver flies before adequate off-gassing time (typically 12-24 hours), the reduced cabin pressure causes dissolved nitrogen to form painful and dangerous bubbles in tissues and blood.
- A is wrong because normal sporting activity does not load tissues with dissolved nitrogen.
- B is wrong because breathing 100% oxygen after decompression actually accelerates nitrogen elimination and is a treatment measure.
- D is wrong because smoking impairs oxygen transport but does not cause nitrogen saturation.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q36: Which statement is correct with regard to the short-term memory? ^t40q36
DE · FR
- A) It can store 10 (±5) items for 30 to 60 seconds
- B) It can store 5 (±2) items for 1 to 2 minutes
- C) It can store 7 (±2) items for 10 to 20 seconds
- D) It can store 3 (±1) items for 5 to 10 seconds
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because George Miller's classic research established that short-term (working) memory can hold approximately 7 plus or minus 2 chunks of information for about 10-20 seconds without active rehearsal, which is why pilots must write down ATC clearances and frequencies immediately.
- A is wrong because both the capacity (10 items) and duration (30-60 seconds) are overstated.
- B is wrong because the capacity is understated and the duration is too long.
- D is wrong because both values are too small — the brain can hold more than 3 items.
Key Terms
ATC = Air Traffic Control
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q37: For what approximate time period can the short-time memory store information? ^t40q37
DE · FR
- A) 35 to 50 seconds
- B) 3 to 7 seconds
- C) 10 to 20 seconds
- D) 30 to 40 seconds
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because unrehearsed information in short-term memory decays within approximately 10-20 seconds, which is why aviation procedures emphasise immediate read-back of clearances and writing down critical information.
- A is wrong because 35-50 seconds significantly overestimates the retention time without rehearsal.
- B is wrong because 3-7 seconds is too short — even unrehearsed memory lasts somewhat longer.
- D is wrong because 30-40 seconds exceeds the actual decay time for passively stored items.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q38: What is a latent error? ^t40q38
DE · FR
- A) An error which has an immediate effect on the controls
- B) An error which only has consequences after landing
- C) An error which is made by the pilot actively and consciously
- D) An error which stays undetected in the system for a long time
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because in James Reason's error model, latent errors are hidden failures embedded in the system — such as poor design, inadequate procedures, or organisational shortcuts — that remain dormant and undetected until they combine with an active error to cause an incident or accident.
- A is wrong because an error with immediate effect on controls is an active error, not a latent one.
- B is wrong because latent errors are defined by their hidden nature, not their timing relative to landing.
- C is wrong because conscious, deliberate errors are violations, not latent conditions.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q39: The ongoing process to monitor the current flight situation is called ^t40q39
DE · FR
- A) Constant flight check.
- B) Situational thinking.
- C) Situational awareness.
- D) Anticipatory check procedure.
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because situational awareness (SA), as defined by Mica Endsley, is the continuous process of perceiving elements in the environment, comprehending their meaning, and projecting their future state — it is the foundation of sound aeronautical decision-making.
- A is wrong because "constant flight check" is not a recognised human factors term.
- B is wrong because "situational thinking" is not the standard terminology used in aviation psychology.
- D is wrong because "anticipatory check procedure" describes a proactive checklist approach, not the overarching mental model of the flight environment.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q40: Regarding the communication model, how can the use of the same code during radio communication be ensured? ^t40q40
DE · FR
- A) By the use of proper headsets
- B) By the use of radio phraseology
- C) By using radios certified for aviation use only
- D) By a particular frequency allocation
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because standardised ICAO radiotelephony phraseology ensures that both sender and receiver share the same unambiguous "code" with pre-defined meanings, minimising the risk of miscommunication in the communication model.
- A is wrong because headsets improve audio clarity but do not standardise the language or coding of the message.
- C is wrong because certified radios ensure signal quality, not message coding.
- D is wrong because frequency allocation manages traffic separation, not the shared understanding of words and phrases.
Key Terms
ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q41: In what different ways can a risk be handled appropriately? ^t40q41
DE · FR
- A) Avoid, reduce, transfer, accept
- B) Avoid, ignore, palliate, reduce
- C) Ignore, accept, transfer, extrude
- D) Extrude, avoid, palliate, transfer
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because the four standard risk management strategies are: Avoid (eliminate the hazard entirely), Reduce (implement controls to lower probability or severity), Transfer (shift the risk to another party such as through insurance), and Accept (consciously acknowledge residual risk when it falls within acceptable limits).
- B is wrong because "ignore" and "palliate" are not recognised risk management strategies.
- C is wrong because ignoring risk is never acceptable in aviation, and "extrude" is not a risk management term.
- D is wrong because neither "extrude" nor "palliate" are legitimate risk management strategies.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q42: Under which circumstances is it more likely to accept higher risks? ^t40q42
DE · FR
- A) During flight planning when excellent weather is forecast
- B) During check flights due to a high level of nervousness
- C) Due to group-dynamic effects
- D) If there is not enough information available
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because group dynamics can cause "risky shift" — a well-documented phenomenon where groups tend to accept bolder, riskier decisions than individuals would alone, driven by social pressure, conformity, and diffusion of responsibility.
- A is wrong because excellent weather actually reduces risk and does not push pilots toward accepting higher risks.
- B is wrong because nervousness during check flights typically makes pilots more cautious, not more risk-accepting.
- D is wrong because insufficient information usually promotes caution or deferral rather than acceptance of higher risk.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q43: Which dangerous attitudes are often combined? ^t40q43
DE · FR
- A) Self-abandonment and macho
- B) Invulnerability and self-abandonment
- C) Macho and invulnerability
- D) Impulsivity and carefulness
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because the macho attitude ("I can handle anything") and invulnerability ("it won't happen to me") frequently occur together, as both stem from overconfidence and underestimation of personal risk.
- A is wrong because self-abandonment (resignation) is the opposite of macho — a resigned pilot gives up, while a macho pilot takes on too much.
- B is wrong because invulnerability and resignation are contradictory mindsets.
- D is wrong because impulsivity and carefulness are opposites and cannot logically coexist as a combined dangerous attitude.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q44: What is an indication for a macho attitude? ^t40q44
DE · FR
- A) Quick resignation in complex and critical situations
- B) Careful walkaround procedure
- C) Risky flight maneuvers to impress spectators on ground
- D) Comprehensive risk assessment when faced with unfamiliar situations
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because the macho attitude is defined by the need to demonstrate daring and skill, often to an audience, and performing risky manoeuvres to impress spectators is a textbook example — the pilot prioritises ego over safety.
- A is wrong because quick resignation describes the resignation (self-abandonment) hazardous attitude, the opposite of macho.
- B is wrong because a careful walkaround is a sign of professionalism, not any hazardous attitude.
- D is wrong because comprehensive risk assessment reflects sound aeronautical decision-making, not a hazardous attitude.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q45: Which factor can lead to human error? ^t40q45
DE · FR
- A) Proper use of checklists
- B) Double check of relevant actions
- C) The bias to see what we expect to see
- D) To be doubtful if something looks unclear or ambiguous
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because confirmation bias — the tendency to perceive and interpret information in a way that confirms pre-existing expectations — is a major source of human error, leading pilots to misread instruments, overlook abnormalities, or misidentify visual references.
- A is wrong because proper checklist use is a countermeasure against error, not a cause.
- B is wrong because double-checking is an error-trapping technique.
- D is wrong because healthy doubt and questioning ambiguous information is a protective behaviour that reduces error.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q46: Which is the best combination of traits with respect to the individual attitude and behaviour for a pilot? ^t40q46
DE · FR
- A) Introverted - stable
- B) Extroverted - stable
- C) Extroverted - unstable
- D) Introverted - unstable
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because extroversion supports effective communication, assertiveness, and crew coordination essential for CRM, while emotional stability ensures the pilot remains calm, consistent, and rational under pressure.
- A is wrong because although stability is positive, introversion can hinder the assertive communication and teamwork skills needed in cockpit environments.
- C is wrong because emotional instability leads to erratic performance and overreaction under stress.
- D is wrong because both introversion and instability are disadvantageous for the demands of piloting.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q47: Complacency is a risk due to ^t40q47
DE · FR
- A) Better training options for young pilots.
- B) The high error rate of technical systems.
- C) The high number of mistakes normally made by humans.
- D) Increased cockpit automation.
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because as cockpit automation becomes more sophisticated and reliable, pilots tend to reduce their active monitoring, lose vigilance, and allow their manual flying skills to degrade — this is automation complacency, and it becomes critically dangerous when the automation fails unexpectedly.
- A is wrong because better training options should reduce complacency, not cause it.
- B is wrong because unreliable systems would actually increase vigilance, not reduce it.
- C is wrong because a high human error rate is a general human factors issue, not the specific cause of complacency.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q48: The ideal level of arousal is at which point in the diagram? ^t40q48
DE · FR

- A) Point D
- B) Point C
- C) Point B
- D) Point A
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C (Point B) because on the Yerkes-Dodson inverted-U curve, Point B sits at the peak where moderate arousal produces maximum performance.
- A is wrong because Point D represents excessive arousal where performance has collapsed due to overwhelming stress.
- B is wrong because Point C is past the optimal peak, in the declining performance zone.
- D is wrong because Point A represents too little arousal (boredom, under-stimulation), where performance suffers from lack of alertness and motivation.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q49: At which point in the diagram will a pilot find himself to be overstrained? ^t40q49
DE · FR

- A) Point B
- B) Point D
- C) Point C
- D) Point A
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B (Point D) because it lies at the far right of the Yerkes-Dodson curve where excessive arousal causes performance to collapse — the pilot is overstrained, experiencing cognitive overload, tunnel vision, and potentially panic.
- A is wrong because Point B is the optimal arousal level with peak performance.
- C is wrong because Point C, while past optimal, still represents declining but not yet collapsed performance.
- D is wrong because Point A represents under-arousal (boredom), the opposite of being overstrained.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q50: Which of these qualities are influenced by stress? 1. Attention 2. Concentration 3. Responsiveness 4. Memory ^t40q50
DE · FR
- A) 1
- B) .1, 2, 3
- C) 1, 2, 3, 4
- D) .2, 4
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because stress affects all four cognitive functions: attention narrows (tunnel vision), concentration becomes fragmented, responsiveness changes (initially faster then degraded under extreme stress), and memory — especially working memory encoding and retrieval — is impaired by elevated cortisol.
- A is wrong because it only includes attention, ignoring the effects on concentration, responsiveness, and memory.
- B is wrong because it excludes memory, which is significantly affected.
- D is wrong because it omits attention and responsiveness, both of which are demonstrably impacted by stress.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q51: The proportion of oxygen in the air at sea level is 21%. What is this percentage at an altitude of 5 km (16,400 ft)? ^t40q51
DE · FR
- A) 5 %
- B) 15 %
- C) 10 %
- D) 21 %
Answer
D)
Explanation
The correct answer is D because the proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere remains constant at approximately 21% regardless of altitude — what decreases with altitude is the total atmospheric pressure, and therefore the partial pressure of oxygen available for breathing. A, B, and C are all wrong because they suggest the percentage of oxygen itself changes with altitude, which is incorrect; the atmosphere maintains a homogeneous composition up to approximately 80 km.
Source
Q52: The signs of oxygen deficiency ^t40q52
DE · FR
- A) are right away clearly noticeable.
- B) can appear from as low as 4000 ft altitude.
- C) appear in smokers at lower altitudes than in non-smokers.
- D) consist of extreme difficulty in breathing (gasping for air).
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because smokers already have elevated carboxyhaemoglobin levels from carbon monoxide binding to their red blood cells, effectively reducing their oxygen-carrying capacity even before flight, so hypoxic symptoms manifest at lower altitudes compared to non-smokers.
- A is wrong because hypoxia is insidious — symptoms develop gradually and the pilot often does not recognise them.
- B is wrong because 4,000 ft is generally too low for noticeable hypoxic effects in most people.
- D is wrong because gasping for air is not a typical hypoxia symptom; instead, early signs include impaired judgment and reduced night vision.
Source
Q53: Carbon monoxide ^t40q53
DE · FR
- A) is a by-product of the chemical energy production in cells: tissue absorbs oxygen and releases carbon monoxide.
- B) has a sweet smell and bitter taste. It is only harmful in very high doses.
- C) is toxic and results from incomplete combustion, e.g. a leaking exhaust system in an aircraft or incomplete gas combustion in a hot air balloon.
- D) is, together with oxygen and hydrogen, one of the most important elements present in the atmosphere.
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because carbon monoxide (CO) is a highly toxic gas produced by incomplete combustion of carbon-based fuels, and in aviation it can enter the cabin through leaking exhaust systems; it binds to haemoglobin with approximately 200 times the affinity of oxygen.
- A is wrong because cells produce carbon dioxide (CO2) as a metabolic waste product, not carbon monoxide.
- B is wrong because CO is odourless, colourless, and tasteless, making it extremely dangerous even at low concentrations.
- D is wrong because CO is a trace gas, not one of the major atmospheric components.
Source
Q54: How long does it generally take for the human eye to fully adapt to darkness? ^t40q54
DE · FR
- A) Approx. 30 minutes.
- B) Approx. 1 hour.
- C) Approx. 15 minutes.
- D) Approx. 5 minutes.
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because full dark adaptation requires approximately 30 minutes for the rod cells in the retina to reach maximum sensitivity through the regeneration of rhodopsin (visual purple), which is why pilots should avoid bright lights before night flying.
- B is wrong because one hour significantly overestimates the adaptation time.
- C is wrong because at 15 minutes the rods are only partially adapted and night vision is not yet at full capability.
- D is wrong because 5 minutes only allows for initial cone adaptation, not the complete rod-based dark adaptation needed for effective night vision.
Source
Q55: Low blood pressure ^t40q55
DE · FR
- A) mainly causes problems at rest in a lying position.
- B) can cause dizziness.
- C) is a recurring problem in elderly smokers.
- D) causes absolutely no problems.
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because hypotension (low blood pressure) can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting, particularly when changing posture (orthostatic hypotension), which poses a flight safety risk.
- A is wrong because low blood pressure mainly causes symptoms during posture changes (standing up), not while lying down.
- C is wrong because elderly smokers are more commonly affected by high blood pressure (hypertension), not low blood pressure.
- D is wrong because low blood pressure can certainly cause symptoms that impair pilot performance.
Source
Q56: What symptom will most probably occur at 20,000 ft (6100 m) altitude without a pressurised cabin or oxygen equipment? ^t40q56
DE · FR
- A) Loss of consciousness.
- B) Altitude sickness with pulmonary oedema.
- C) Dyspnoea.
- D) Fever.
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because at 20,000 ft without supplemental oxygen, the time of useful consciousness (TUC) is very short — typically only a few minutes — and rapid loss of consciousness follows due to severe hypoxia as the partial pressure of oxygen is far below what the body requires.
- B is wrong because pulmonary oedema develops over hours to days of high-altitude exposure, not during acute exposure.
- C is wrong because while shortness of breath may occur briefly, loss of consciousness is the most probable and dangerous outcome.
- D is wrong because fever is unrelated to altitude exposure.
Source
Q57: When flying with a severe head cold, sharp pain can affect the sinuses. This pain occurs ^t40q57
DE · FR
- A) during descent.
- B) with every notable change in flight altitude.
- C) during climb.
- D) during accelerations.
Answer
A)
Explanation
The correct answer is A because during descent, external atmospheric pressure increases and trapped air within congested sinuses cannot equalise, creating a painful pressure differential — this is known as barosinusitis.
- B is wrong because while altitude changes in both directions can cause discomfort, descent is specifically the most problematic phase because the blocked sinuses cannot vent the increasing external pressure inward.
- C is wrong because during climb, expanding air within the sinuses can usually escape more easily, even through partially blocked passages.
- D is wrong because linear accelerations do not create the pressure differentials that cause sinus pain.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q58: Which are the symptoms of motion sickness (kinetosis)? ^t40q58
DE · FR
- A) High fever, vomiting, headache.
- B) High fever, dizziness, watery diarrhoea.
- C) Dizziness, sweating, nausea.
- D) Watery diarrhoea, vomiting, headache.
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because the classic symptoms of motion sickness (kinetosis) are dizziness, sweating, pallor, and nausea, which may progress to vomiting — all caused by a conflict between visual and vestibular sensory inputs.
- A is wrong because high fever is not a symptom of motion sickness; it indicates infection.
- B is wrong because neither high fever nor watery diarrhoea are associated with kinetosis.
- D is wrong because watery diarrhoea is a gastrointestinal symptom unrelated to vestibular-induced motion sickness.
Source
Q59: During a normal approach to an unusually wide runway, one may have the impression that the approach is being made ^t40q59
DE · FR
- A) at too great a height.
- B) at too high a speed.
- C) at too low a speed.
- D) at too low a height.
Answer
C)
Explanation
The correct answer is C because a runway wider than the pilot is accustomed to makes the visual perspective appear as though the aircraft is lower and closer than it actually is, creating the impression of being at too low a speed and too low a height — the pilot may then tend to fly the approach too high.
- A is wrong because the wide runway creates the opposite illusion — feeling too low, not too high.
- B is wrong because the illusion relates to perceived height and proximity, not excessive speed.
- D is wrong because feeling too low in height would be a consequence, but the question asks about speed impression, and C correctly captures the speed-related illusion.
Source
Q60: Under positive g-forces, a greyout can occur which precedes blackout. Which organ is primarily affected by greyout? ^t40q60
DE · FR
- A) The lungs.
- B) The eyes.
- C) The brain.
- D) The muscles.
Answer
B)
Explanation
The correct answer is B because the eyes (specifically the retina) are the first organ to be affected by positive g-forces because retinal blood vessels are extremely sensitive to reduced blood pressure — the retina has the highest oxygen demand of any tissue, so when blood drains away under g-loading, vision degrades before consciousness is affected.
- A is wrong because the lungs continue to function under moderate g-forces.
- C is wrong because the brain loses function after the eyes — loss of consciousness (G-LOC) follows grey-out and blackout.
- D is wrong because muscles are not meaningfully affected by the blood pressure reduction that causes grey-out.
Source
Q61: When a pilot scans the sky to detect the presence of other aircraft, he should ^t40q61
DE · FR
- A) try to take in the visible portion of the sky with large sweeping eye movements.
- B) roll the eyes across as wide a field of vision as possible.
- C) scan the sky sector by sector and let the eyes rest briefly on each sector.
- D) take in the entire visible portion of the sky by moving the eyes as rapidly as possible.
Answer
C)
Explanation
Effective visual scanning requires dividing the sky into sectors and pausing briefly on each one, allowing the eyes to focus and detect movement or contrast changes that indicate other aircraft.
- Option A and Option D advocate rapid, sweeping eye movements that prevent the eye from fixating long enough to register a small target.
- Option B similarly relies on continuous rolling motion, which reduces detection probability.
- Only Option C describes the proven sector-by-sector technique recommended in human factors training.
Source
Q62: Alcohol is eliminated at a rate of: ^t40q62
DE · FR
- A) 0.5 per mille per hour.
- B) 0.3 per mille per hour.
- C) 0.1 per mille per hour.
- D) 1 per mille per hour.
Answer
C)
Explanation
The human liver metabolises alcohol at a relatively constant rate of approximately 0.1 per mille per hour, regardless of the type of drink consumed or any attempted countermeasures such as coffee or exercise.
- Option A (0.5‰/h) and Option D (1‰/h) greatly overestimate the elimination rate, which could lead pilots to believe they are sober sooner than they actually are.
- Option B (0.3‰/h) is also too high.
- For SPL exam purposes, the standard value to remember is 0.1‰ per hour.
Key Terms
SPL = Sailplane Pilot Licence
Source
Q63: From the following factors, identify the one that increases the risk of heart attack: ^t40q63
DE · FR
- A) Lack of exercise.
- B) Hypoglycaemia.
- C) Undernutrition.
- D) Cholesterol level too low.
Answer
A)
Explanation
A sedentary lifestyle with insufficient physical activity is a well-established cardiovascular risk factor that increases the likelihood of heart attack.
- Option B (hypoglycaemia) is a metabolic condition primarily affecting energy supply to the brain, not a direct cardiac risk factor.
- Option C (undernutrition) and Option D (low cholesterol) are actually the opposite of known risk factors — it is overnutrition and high cholesterol that contribute to coronary artery disease.
- Regular exercise is one of the most effective protective measures against cardiovascular disease.
Source
Q64: Amphetamine is a stimulant which in Switzerland can be obtained on prescription from pharmacies ^t40q64
DE · FR
- A) Pilots on duty on a flight of more than 5 hours are allowed to take this medication to stay awake.
- B) Pilots on duty may solely take this medication if accompanied by a qualified co-pilot.
- C) Pilots on duty on a flight of more than 5 hours should always have this medication at hand for moments of fatigue.
- D) Due to its adverse effects, pilots on duty are not allowed to take this medication.
Answer
D)
Explanation
Amphetamines are strictly prohibited for pilots on duty because their adverse effects — including impaired judgment, overconfidence, risk-taking behaviour, and a crash of fatigue after the drug wears off — directly compromise flight safety.
- Option A and Option C suggest using amphetamines to combat fatigue during long flights, which is dangerous and illegal under aviation medical regulations.
- Option B implies that a co-pilot can mitigate the risk, but no crew arrangement makes stimulant use acceptable.
- The correct approach to fatigue is proper rest before flight, not pharmacological stimulation.
Source
Q65: What is meant by "risk area awareness" in aviation? ^t40q65
DE · FR
- A) Knowledge of accident rates during takeoff and landing.
- B) The awareness that the aerodrome area where aircraft taxi ("risk area") is a dangerous zone.
- C) Awareness of the potential hazards of the various phases of flight.
- D) A procedure for preventing aviation accidents.
Answer
C)
Explanation
Risk area awareness refers to the pilot's conscious understanding that different phases of flight — takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and landing — each carry distinct hazards requiring specific vigilance.
- Option A is too narrow, focusing only on statistical accident rates rather than active awareness.
- Option B incorrectly interprets "risk area" as a physical location on the aerodrome.
- Option D describes risk area awareness as a procedure, but it is a mindset and competency, not a checklist or formal procedure.
- Effective risk area awareness allows the pilot to anticipate and mitigate threats proactively.
Source
Q66: Several decision-making models are applied in aviation. A widely used model goes by the acronym "DECIDE". Which of the following statements is correct? ^t40q66
DE · FR
- A) The first D stands for "Do" and means "Apply the best option".
- B) The first D stands for "Detect" and means "Recognise that a change has occurred which requires attention".
- C) The first E stands for "Evaluate" and means "Assess the consequences of one's actions".
- D) DECIDE is a decision-making aid that must be applied in every in-flight decision situation.
Answer
B)
Explanation
The DECIDE model follows the sequence: Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate. The first letter D stands for "Detect," meaning the pilot recognises that a change in the situation has occurred requiring a decision.
- Option A incorrectly assigns "Do" to the first D — "Do" is actually the fifth step, where the chosen course of action is implemented.
- Option C misplaces "Evaluate" as the first E, but the first E is "Estimate" (assess the significance of the change).
- Option D overstates the requirement — DECIDE is a helpful framework, not a mandatory procedure for every single decision.
Source
Q67: Regarding typical hazardous attitudes, which of the following statements is correct? ^t40q67
DE · FR
- A) It is possible to recognise and correct one's own hazardous attitudes.
- B) An anti-authority attitude is less dangerous than macho behaviour.
- C) Inexperienced pilots are generally the only ones who behave dangerously.
- D) Hazardous attitudes do not really exist because flight safety depends solely on the pilot's attention.
Answer
A)
Explanation
Human factors research identifies five hazardous attitudes — anti-authority, macho, invulnerability, resignation, and impulsivity — and demonstrates that pilots can learn to recognise these tendencies in themselves and apply corrective antidotes.
- Option B incorrectly ranks hazardous attitudes; all five are dangerous and none should be dismissed as less threatening.
- Option C wrongly limits dangerous behaviour to inexperienced pilots, when in fact experienced pilots can also exhibit complacency and overconfidence.
- Option D denies the existence of hazardous attitudes entirely, contradicting decades of aviation safety research.
Source
Q68: Which of these statements correctly describes "selective attention"? ^t40q68
DE · FR
- A) Selective attention is unavoidable in the cockpit to avoid distraction during checklist recitation.
- B) Selective attention can lead the pilot to fail to notice an audible alarm even though it is perfectly audible.
- C) Selective attention refers to an attitude where attention is focused on flight instruments when visibility conditions are poor.
- D) Selective attention is a method for avoiding stress.
Answer
B)
Explanation
Selective attention is a cognitive phenomenon where concentrating intensely on one task causes the brain to filter out other stimuli, even obvious ones like a loud alarm. This is sometimes called "inattentional blindness" or "tunnel hearing.
Option A confuses selective attention with a deliberate cockpit strategy, when it is actually an involuntary cognitive limitation.
Option C describes instrument scan technique, not the psychological concept of selective attention.
- Option D incorrectly categorises it as a stress management method, when in fact selective attention under stress can be dangerous because critical warnings may go unnoticed.
Source
Q69: Regarding stress, which of the following statements is correct? ^t40q69
DE · FR
- A) There is an optimal level of stress that even improves performance.
- B) Under-stimulation causes no stress and has no negative effect on performance.
- C) Stress in the cockpit improves the work rate.
- D) Stress is only caused by brief overload.
Answer
A)
Explanation
The Yerkes-Dodson law demonstrates that moderate stress (eustress) enhances alertness, focus, and performance, while too little or too much stress degrades it — forming an inverted-U curve.
- Option B is incorrect because under-stimulation (boredom) is itself a form of stress that reduces vigilance and increases error rates.
- Option C oversimplifies by suggesting all cockpit stress is beneficial, when excessive stress causes cognitive overload and poor decision-making.
- Option D wrongly limits stress to brief overload, ignoring chronic stress from fatigue, personal problems, or sustained workload.
Source
Q70: The human internal clock ^t40q70
DE · FR
- A) has a cycle of roughly 25 hours.
- B) has a cycle of roughly 20 hours.
- C) is synchronised with the external clock and its cycle lasts exactly 24 hours.
- D) has a cycle of roughly 30 hours.
Answer
A)
Explanation
Research on circadian rhythms shows that the human endogenous biological clock runs on a cycle of approximately 25 hours when isolated from external time cues such as daylight and social schedules. Daily exposure to light resets (entrains) this internal clock to the 24-hour day-night cycle.
Option B (20 hours) and Option D (30 hours) are incorrect values.
Option C is wrong because the internal clock does not naturally run at exactly 24 hours — it requires daily resynchronisation by environmental cues called Zeitgebers.
Source
Q71: Which of the following measures is suitable for relieving the onset of motion sickness (kinetosis) in passengers? ^t40q71
DE · FR
- A) move the head regularly
- B) look through the windows
- C) breathe fresh air
- D) drink coffee
Answer
C)
Explanation
Breathing fresh, cool air helps stabilise the autonomic nervous system and is one of the most effective immediate remedies for the onset of motion sickness.
- Option A (moving the head regularly) worsens symptoms by increasing conflicting vestibular stimulation.
- Option B (looking through the windows) can aggravate the sensory mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs in some individuals.
- Option D (drinking coffee) is a stimulant that can increase nausea and does not address the underlying vestibular conflict causing motion sickness.
Source
Q72: During training, a pilot has mainly used narrow runways. What illusion will this pilot experience during a correct final approach to a flat, very wide runway? ^t40q72
DE · FR
- A) the illusion that the runway slopes upward in the landing direction (upslope)
- B) the illusion of being at a greater height above the runway than is actually the case
- C) the illusion of being lower above the runway than is actually the case
- D) the illusion that the runway first slopes upward (upslope) then downward (downslope)
Answer
C)
Explanation
A pilot accustomed to narrow runways perceives a wide runway as being closer (lower) than it actually is because the wider visual angle tricks the brain into interpreting the scene as a nearer surface. This creates the dangerous illusion of being too low, which may cause the pilot to fly a higher approach than necessary and flare too high.
Option A and Option D describe slope-related illusions unrelated to runway width.
Option B describes the opposite illusion — the pilot feels lower, not higher.
- Understanding this visual trap is essential for safe approaches to unfamiliar aerodromes.
Source
Q73: When are middle ear pressure equalization problems most probable to occur? ^t40q73
DE · FR
- A) during a long flight at high altitude
- B) during a rapid descent
- C) during a long climb
- D) during strong negative vertical accelerations
Answer
B)
Explanation
Middle ear pressure equalisation problems are most likely during rapid descent because the Eustachian tube must open to allow higher-pressure air from the throat into the middle ear cavity, which is physiologically more difficult than the reverse. During ascent, expanding air in the middle ear vents outward relatively easily.
- Option A (long high-altitude flight) maintains a constant cabin altitude and does not create pressure differentials.
- Option C (long climb) involves gradual pressure decrease that the ear handles well.
- Option D (negative g-forces) affects the vestibular system, not middle ear pressure.
Source
Q74: The proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% at sea level. How does it change at 5500 m? ^t40q74
DE · FR
- A) it is one quarter of the sea level percentage
- B) it is half the sea level percentage
- C) it is double the sea level percentage
- D) it is the same as at sea level
Answer
D)
Explanation
The composition of the atmosphere remains constant at approximately 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen from sea level up to about 80 km altitude. What decreases with altitude is not the percentage of oxygen but the total atmospheric pressure, and therefore the partial pressure of oxygen available to the lungs.
- Option A and Option B incorrectly suggest that the proportion changes.
- Option C proposes an increase, which is also wrong.
- The key concept for pilots is that hypoxia at altitude results from reduced partial pressure, not from a change in oxygen percentage.
Source
Q75: Which are the effects of inhaling carbon monoxide (from a defective exhaust system)? ^t40q75
DE · FR
- A) even in low concentrations, this gas can cause total incapacitation
- B) there are no harmful effects to fear as carbon monoxide is harmless
- C) harmful effects are solely to be expected if the body is exposed to the gas for several hours
- D) there are no harmful effects to fear as the body compensates for the reduced oxygen supply
Answer
A)
Explanation
Carbon monoxide (CO) binds to haemoglobin approximately 200 times more readily than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and drastically reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Even very low concentrations can cause headaches, impaired judgment, and eventually total incapacitation or death.
Option B and Option D dangerously dismiss CO as harmless — it is one of aviation's most insidious threats because it is colourless and odourless.
Option C incorrectly suggests that only prolonged exposure is harmful, when in fact even brief exposure to moderate concentrations can be lethal.
Source
Q76: Which is the most effective hearing protection in the cabin of a powered aircraft or hot air balloon? ^t40q76
DE · FR
- A) cotton wool
- B) a helmet with earphones
- C) ear plugs
- D) due to the low noise produced, any protection is effective
Answer
B)
Explanation
A helmet with integrated earphones provides the highest level of hearing protection by covering the entire ear with a rigid shell that attenuates both direct sound and vibration-transmitted noise, while simultaneously enabling clear radio communication.
- Option A (cotton wool) offers minimal attenuation and is not a proper hearing protector.
Option C (ear plugs) provide reasonable protection but less than a full helmet and may impair communication clarity.
Option D incorrectly assumes that cockpit noise levels are low — sustained exposure to even moderate cockpit noise causes cumulative hearing damage over time.
Source
Q77: Gas-forming foods that cause flatulence ought to be avoided before a high-altitude flight. Which of these foods must therefore be avoided? ^t40q77
DE · FR
- A) legumes (beans)
- B) meat
- C) pasta
- D) potatoes
Answer
A)
Explanation
Legumes such as beans, peas, and lentils are well known to produce significant intestinal gas during digestion. At altitude, ambient pressure decreases and any trapped gas in the body expands according to Boyle's law, potentially causing severe abdominal pain and distraction in flight.
- Option B (meat), Option C (pasta), and Option D (potatoes) do not produce significant intestinal gas under normal circumstances.
- Pilots planning high-altitude flights should avoid gas-forming foods in the hours before departure.
Source
Q78: The respiratory process enables gas exchange in somatic cells (metabolism). These cells ^t40q78
DE · FR
- A) absorb nitrogen and release oxygen
- B) absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide (CO2)
- C) absorb oxygen and release nitrogen
- D) absorb oxygen and release carbon monoxide (CO)
Answer
B)
Explanation
In cellular respiration, somatic cells take in oxygen and use it to metabolise glucose and other nutrients, producing energy (ATP) and releasing carbon dioxide (CO2) as a waste product.
Option A and Option C incorrectly involve nitrogen, which plays no active role in cellular metabolism — it is physiologically inert at normal pressures.
Option D incorrectly names carbon monoxide (CO) as a metabolic by-product; CO is a toxic gas from incomplete combustion, not from normal cellular processes.
Source
Q79: A regular smoker pilot smokes a few cigarettes shortly before an alpine flight. What effects might this have on their flight fitness? ^t40q79
DE · FR
- A) for a regular smoker, there are no effects to fear as the body is accustomed to the harmful substances absorbed
- B) the pilot will experience oxygen deficiency at a lower altitude than if they had abstained from smoking before the flight
- C) the nicotine absorbed may cause mild disturbances of consciousness and difficulty concentrating
- D) the smoke causes mild carbon dioxide (CO2) poisoning, which may cause sensations of dizziness and numbness
Answer
B)
Explanation
Cigarette smoke contains carbon monoxide (CO), which binds to haemoglobin and reduces the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. A pilot who smokes before an alpine flight effectively raises their "physiological altitude" — they will experience symptoms of oxygen deficiency (hypoxia) at a lower altitude than a non-smoking pilot would.
- Option A incorrectly assumes that habitual smoking confers tolerance; the CO effect on haemoglobin is cumulative regardless of habit.
- Option C attributes the wrong symptoms to nicotine.
- Option D confuses carbon monoxide (CO) with carbon dioxide (CO2), which are entirely different gases.
Source
Q80: When is the risk of vestibular disturbance causing dizziness greatest? ^t40q80
DE · FR
- A) when rotating the head during a descent
- B) when rotating the head during straight-and-level flight
- C) when rotating the head during a climb
- D) when rotating the head during a coordinated turn
Answer
D)
Explanation
Rotating the head during a coordinated turn creates the Coriolis illusion — the semicircular canals are already stimulated by the angular acceleration of the turn, and a head rotation in a different plane stimulates additional canals simultaneously, producing a powerful and disorienting sensation of tumbling or spinning.
- Option A, Option B, and Option C involve head rotation during relatively stable flight conditions where only one set of canals is stimulated at a time, making vestibular disturbance far less likely.
- The Coriolis illusion is one of the most dangerous vestibular phenomena in aviation.
Source
Q81: How can a pilot better withstand positive g-forces in flight? ^t40q81
DE · FR
- A) by sitting as upright as possible
- B) by relaxing their muscles and leaning forward
- C) by contracting the abdominal and leg muscles and performing forced breathing
- D) by tightening their harness straps as much as possible
Answer
C)
Explanation
Contracting the abdominal and leg muscles (the anti-G straining manoeuvre or L-1 technique) increases intra-abdominal pressure and impedes blood from pooling in the lower body, maintaining blood flow to the brain and delaying the onset of grey-out and G-LOC. Forced, cyclical breathing maintains thoracic pressure.
- Option A (sitting upright) has minimal effect.
- Option B (relaxing and leaning forward) would accelerate blood pooling in the lower extremities.
- Option D (tightening harness straps) secures the pilot but does not counteract the haemodynamic effects of g-forces.
Source
Q82: Which are the most dangerous effects of oxygen deficiency? ^t40q82
DE · FR
- A) tingling sensations
- B) blue discoloration of fingernails and lips
- C) impairment of judgment and concentration
- D) nausea
Answer
C)
Explanation
Impairment of judgment and concentration is the most dangerous effect of hypoxia because the pilot loses the very cognitive abilities needed to recognise the problem and take corrective action — a phenomenon known as "insidious hypoxia.
Option A (tingling) and Option D (nausea) are unpleasant but do not directly prevent the pilot from deciding to descend.
Option B (cyanosis) is a visible physical sign but does not impair decision-making in itself.
- The critical danger is that a hypoxic pilot often feels fine while their mental performance deteriorates severely.
Source
Q83: What can be said about the rate of blood alcohol elimination in humans? ^t40q83
DE · FR
- A) it is accelerated by breathing pure oxygen
- B) it depends only on time and amounts to roughly 0.1 per mille per hour
- C) it depends on the alcohol content of the drink consumed
- D) it can be accelerated by drinking strong coffee
Answer
B)
Explanation
Alcohol is eliminated from the blood by the liver at a nearly constant rate of approximately 0.1 per mille per hour, determined solely by time and the liver's enzyme capacity.
Option A (breathing pure oxygen) does not accelerate hepatic alcohol metabolism.
Option C is incorrect because the elimination rate is constant regardless of whether the alcohol came from beer, wine, or spirits — what differs is how much total alcohol was consumed.
- Option D (drinking coffee) may increase alertness temporarily but has no effect on the metabolic breakdown of alcohol.
Source
Q84: What impact does proprioception (deep sensitivity) have on position perception? ^t40q84
DE · FR
- A) in coordination with the balance organ, proprioception gives a correct position impression even when visibility is lost
- B) when visual references are lost, proprioception can give a false perception of position
- C) proprioception alone is always sufficient to sustain a correct perception of position
- D) when training is adequate, proprioception can prevent spatial disorientation when visibility is lost
Answer
B)
Explanation
Proprioception — the sense of body position derived from receptors in muscles, joints, and tendons — can provide misleading information about the aircraft's attitude when visual references are absent. Without visual confirmation, the proprioceptive system cannot reliably distinguish between gravitational forces and centripetal forces in a turn.
- Option A incorrectly claims that proprioception and the vestibular system together provide accurate orientation without vision.
- Option C overstates proprioception's reliability.
- Option D wrongly suggests that training can overcome this fundamental physiological limitation.
- Only visual references or flight instruments can reliably prevent spatial disorientation.
Source
Q85: Which of these factors has no direct effect on visual acuity? ^t40q85
DE · FR
- A) high blood pressure
- B) carbon monoxide (CO)
- C) oxygen deficiency
- D) alcohol
Answer
A)
Explanation
High blood pressure (hypertension) does not directly impair visual acuity during normal flight operations, although severe chronic hypertension may eventually damage the retina over time.
- Option B (carbon monoxide) reduces oxygen delivery to the retina, directly degrading vision, particularly night vision.
- Option C (oxygen deficiency) similarly starves the highly oxygen-dependent photoreceptors, causing measurable visual impairment even at moderate altitudes.
- Option D (alcohol) depresses the central nervous system and impairs visual processing, focus, and contrast sensitivity.
- All three of these factors directly affect a pilot's ability to see clearly.
Source
Q86: Up to what maximum altitude can a healthy human body compensate for oxygen deficiency by increasing heart rate and breathing rate? ^t40q86
DE · FR
- A) roughly 3,000 ft
- B) roughly 22,000 ft
- C) roughly 6,000-7,000 ft
- D) roughly 10,000-12,000 ft
Answer
D)
Explanation
The human body can compensate for the reduced partial pressure of oxygen up to approximately 10,000-12,000 ft by increasing heart rate, respiratory rate, and cardiac output. Above this altitude, these compensatory mechanisms become insufficient and supplemental oxygen is required to prevent significant performance degradation.
- Option A (3,000 ft) is far too low — compensation is barely needed at this altitude.
- Option B (22,000 ft) far exceeds the body's compensatory range.
- Option C (6,000-7,000 ft) is the altitude where compensatory mechanisms begin to activate, not their upper limit.
Source
Q87: What has to be observed when taking over-the-counter medications? ^t40q87
DE · FR
- A) even over-the-counter medications can influence flight fitness
- B) over-the-counter medications have no side effects and therefore no influence on flight fitness
- C) all flying is prohibited after taking any medication
- D) over-the-counter medications only have insignificant side effects; their influence on flight fitness is negligible
Answer
A)
Explanation
Many over-the-counter medications — including antihistamines, cold remedies, pain relievers, and decongestants — can cause drowsiness, dizziness, impaired reaction time, or blurred vision, all of which compromise flight safety.
Option B and Option D dangerously dismiss the potential for side effects.
Option C is too extreme — not all medications are incompatible with flying, but each must be evaluated individually.
- The correct approach is to consult an aviation medical examiner (AME) before flying with any medication, whether prescription or over-the-counter.
Source
Q88: What sensory illusion can a linear acceleration produce in horizontal flight when visual references are lost? ^t40q88
DE · FR
- A) the impression of being in a left turn
- B) the impression of descending
- C) the impression of being in a right turn
- D) the impression of climbing
Answer
D)
Explanation
A forward linear acceleration in horizontal flight pushes the pilot back into the seat, and the otolith organs in the inner ear interpret the combined acceleration vector as a backward tilt — creating the somatogravic illusion of a climb. Without visual references, the pilot may instinctively push the nose down to "correct" the perceived climb, risking a dive into terrain.
- Option A and Option C (turning impressions) are associated with semicircular canal stimulation, not linear acceleration.
- Option B (descent impression) would result from deceleration, not acceleration.
Source
Q89: How long does the human eye take to fully adapt to darkness? ^t40q89
DE · FR
- A) roughly 1 second
- B) roughly 10 minutes
- C) roughly 10 seconds
- D) roughly 30 minutes
Answer
D)
Explanation
Full dark adaptation of the human eye takes approximately 30 minutes as the rod photoreceptors in the retinal periphery gradually increase their sensitivity through biochemical changes in rhodopsin.
- Option A (1 second) and Option C (10 seconds) describe only the initial pupil dilation, which is a small part of the adaptation process.
- Option B (10 minutes) represents partial adaptation — at this point, the cones have adapted but the rods have not yet reached maximum sensitivity.
- Pilots planning night flights should protect their dark adaptation by avoiding bright white light for at least 30 minutes before departure.
Source
Q90: Which of these statements about hyperventilation is correct? ^t40q90
DE · FR
- A) hyperventilation is always a consequence of oxygen deficiency
- B) hyperventilation causes an excess of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood
- C) hyperventilation can be triggered by stress and anxiety
- D) hyperventilation causes a deficiency of carbon monoxide (CO) in the blood
Answer
C)
Explanation
Hyperventilation — excessively rapid or deep breathing — is frequently triggered by stress, anxiety, or fear, which causes the pilot to unconsciously breathe faster than metabolically necessary. This excessive ventilation blows off too much CO2, causing hypocapnia (low blood CO2), not an excess.
- Option A is wrong because hyperventilation is not caused by oxygen deficiency; it can occur at any altitude when the pilot is stressed.
- Option B incorrectly states that CO2 increases, when in fact it decreases.
- Option D confuses carbon monoxide (CO) with carbon dioxide (CO2) — hyperventilation involves CO2, not CO.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q91: Vestibular disturbances during a turn can cause dizziness. What measure is most effective in preventing them? ^t40q91
DE · FR
- A) during the turn, look out through the window in the direction of the turn
- B) keep the head as still as possible during the turn
- C) breathe deeply and slowly, ensuring an adequate supply of fresh air
- D) alternately move the head from right to left during the turn
Answer
B)
Explanation
Keeping the head still during a turn prevents the Coriolis illusion, which occurs when head movement in one plane is combined with the angular rotation of the turn, stimulating multiple semicircular canals simultaneously and producing intense vertigo.
- Option A (looking out the window) does not address the vestibular cause of the disturbance.
- Option C (deep breathing and fresh air) helps with motion sickness but not with vestibular vertigo from head movements.
- Option D (alternating head movements) would dramatically worsen the problem by creating repeated Coriolis stimulation.
Source
Q92: Which is the immediate effect of inhaling cigarette smoke on a regular smoker? ^t40q92
DE · FR
- A) lowered blood pressure
- B) dilation of blood vessels
- C) reduced oxygen transport in the blood
- D) increased carbon dioxide (CO2) content in the blood
Answer
C)
Explanation
The carbon monoxide (CO) in cigarette smoke binds to haemoglobin far more readily than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and immediately reducing the blood's capacity to transport oxygen to tissues and organs.
- Option A (lowered blood pressure) is incorrect — nicotine actually raises blood pressure through vasoconstriction.
- Option B (dilation of blood vessels) is also wrong; nicotine causes vasoconstriction, not dilation.
- Option D confuses the issue — smoking does not significantly increase CO2 levels; the problem is CO displacing oxygen on the haemoglobin molecule.
Source
Q93: What is the relationship between oxygen deficiency and visual acuity? ^t40q93
DE · FR
- A) oxygen deficiency can reduce visual acuity
- B) oxygen deficiency has no effect on visual acuity
- C) oxygen deficiency has a negative effect on visual acuity only during the day
- D) oxygen deficiency has a negative effect on visual acuity solely at night
Answer
A)
Explanation
The retina is one of the most metabolically active tissues in the body and is highly sensitive to oxygen deprivation. Even mild hypoxia can reduce visual acuity, diminish contrast sensitivity, and narrow the visual field, with night vision being affected first since rod cells are particularly oxygen-demanding.
- Option B incorrectly denies any relationship.
- Option C and Option D each restrict the effect to one time of day, when in reality both day and night vision are impaired — night vision is simply affected earlier and more severely because rods have higher oxygen requirements than cones.
Source
Q94: Oxygen deficiency and hyperventilation share some similar symptoms. Which of these symptoms always indicates oxygen deficiency? ^t40q94
DE · FR
- A) blue lips and fingernails (cyanosis)
- B) visual disturbance
- C) hot and cold sensations
- D) tingling sensations
Answer
A)
Explanation
Cyanosis — a bluish discolouration of the lips and fingernails caused by deoxygenated haemoglobin — is a reliable and specific sign of oxygen deficiency that cannot be produced by hyperventilation alone.
- Option B (visual disturbance), Option C (hot and cold sensations), and Option D (tingling) can all occur in both hypoxia and hyperventilation, making them unreliable for distinguishing between the two conditions.
- Recognising cyanosis is therefore a critical diagnostic tool: if blue lips or nail beds are observed, the cause is definitively inadequate oxygen supply, and descent to lower altitude is required immediately.
Source
Q95: What is the proportion of oxygen (in %) in the air at an altitude of approximately 34,000 feet? ^t40q95
DE · FR
- A) 10%
- B) 21%
- C) 5%
- D) 42%
Answer
B)
Explanation
The atmosphere maintains a constant composition of approximately 21% oxygen from sea level through the troposphere and well into the stratosphere. At 34,000 ft, while the total atmospheric pressure is only about one quarter of sea-level pressure, the proportion of oxygen remains 21%.
- Option A (10%), Option C (5%), and Option D (42%) all incorrectly suggest the percentage changes with altitude.
- The critical point is that at 34,000 ft the partial pressure of oxygen is dangerously low despite the unchanged percentage, making supplemental oxygen or pressurisation essential for survival.
Source
Q96: During a visual flight, you suddenly lose all external visual references. Spatial orientation using only cutaneous senses and proprioception is ^t40q96
DE · FR
- A) impossible
- B) possible only for experienced pilots
- C) possible only after adequate training
- D) possible for solely a few minutes
Answer
A)
Explanation
Without external visual references, maintaining spatial orientation using only cutaneous senses (pressure on the skin) and proprioception (body position sense) is physiologically impossible because these senses cannot distinguish between gravitational forces and the centripetal or inertial forces experienced in flight.
- Option B and Option C incorrectly suggest that experience or training can overcome this fundamental human limitation.
- Option D implies that orientation is possible for a short time, but in reality spatial disorientation can begin within seconds of losing visual references.
- Only flight instruments or restored visual contact can provide reliable attitude information.
Source
Q97: Which is the most probable and most dangerous poisoning that can occur on board a piston-engine aircraft? ^t40q97
DE · FR
- A) poisoning due to cosmic radiation at high altitude
- B) carbon monoxide poisoning
- C) ozone poisoning
- D) poisoning due to leaded fuel vapors
Answer
B)
Explanation
Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning from a defective or leaking exhaust system is the most likely and most dangerous in-flight poisoning in piston-engine aircraft. CO is colourless and odourless, making it undetectable without a dedicated CO detector, and it binds to haemoglobin 200 times more strongly than oxygen, rapidly incapacitating the pilot.
- Option A (cosmic radiation) is a long-term cumulative risk for frequent high-altitude flyers, not an acute poisoning event.
- Option C (ozone) affects primarily high-altitude jet aircraft.
- Option D (leaded fuel vapours) can occur during refuelling but is not a common in-flight hazard.
Source
Q98: What impression results from a correct final approach to a runway with a strong upslope in the landing direction? ^t40q98
DE · FR
- A) the impression of landing too short
- B) the impression of too shallow an approach
- C) the impression of too high an approach
- D) the impression of too low an approach
Answer
C)
Explanation
When approaching a runway that slopes upward in the landing direction, the pilot perceives the runway surface at an unusual angle that creates the visual illusion of being too high on approach. The upsloping surface compresses the visual perspective, making the runway appear closer and the approach steeper than it actually is.
- Option A and Option D describe the opposite illusion.
- Option B (too shallow) would occur with a downsloping runway.
- This visual trap can lead the pilot to unnecessarily steepen the approach, potentially resulting in a dangerously low and short landing.
Source
Q99: Why should gas-forming foods be avoided before undertaking a high-altitude flight? ^t40q99
DE · FR
- A) because gas expansion during descent can cause pain in the digestive system
- B) because gas expansion at high altitudes can cause pain in the digestive system
- C) because at high altitudes, gases evaporate into the blood and cause decompression sickness
- D) because gas-forming foods promote motion sickness
Answer
B)
Explanation
As altitude increases, ambient pressure decreases and trapped gases in the body expand according to Boyle's law. Intestinal gas produced by gas-forming foods such as beans and lentils expands significantly at altitude, causing abdominal distension, pain, and distraction from flying tasks.
- Option A incorrectly places the problem during descent, when gas would actually compress.
- Option C confuses intestinal gas expansion with dissolved nitrogen forming bubbles in the blood (decompression sickness), which is an entirely different mechanism.
- Option D incorrectly links gas-forming foods to motion sickness, which is a vestibular phenomenon.
Source
Q100: Which blood component primarily transports oxygen? ^t40q100
DE · FR
- A) red blood cells
- B) blood plasma
- C) blood platelets
- D) white blood cells
Answer
A)
Explanation
Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain haemoglobin, the iron-containing protein that binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it to tissues throughout the body. Each red blood cell carries approximately 270 million haemoglobin molecules, making erythrocytes the primary oxygen transport system.
- Option B (blood plasma) carries a small amount of dissolved oxygen but contributes less than 2% of total oxygen transport.
- Option C (blood platelets) are involved in blood clotting, not gas transport.
- Option D (white blood cells) are part of the immune system and play no role in oxygen delivery.
Source
Q101: What illusion can occur when visual references are lost during a prolonged coordinated turn? ^t40q101
DE · FR
- A) the impression of no longer being in a turn (wings level)
- B) the impression of being in a descent
- C) the impression of being in a climb
- D) the impression of being in a greater bank angle than is actually the case
Answer
A)
Explanation
During a prolonged coordinated turn at constant rate, the fluid in the semicircular canals gradually matches the rotation speed and stops deflecting the sensory hairs, causing the vestibular system to signal "no turn" even though the aircraft remains banked. The pilot perceives wings-level flight. If the pilot then levels the wings, they experience the sensation of turning in the opposite direction and may re-enter the original turn — this is the mechanism behind the deadly graveyard spiral.
- Option B, Option C, and Option D describe different illusions not associated with vestibular adaptation during steady turns.
Source
Q102: Your passenger wishes to ease their fear of flying by drinking a strong alcoholic drink just before departure. What effect has to be expected at high altitude? ^t40q102
DE · FR
- A) at high altitude, the psychological effects of alcohol decrease
- B) alcohol is eliminated more slowly at high altitude than on the ground
- C) alcohol is eliminated more rapidly at high altitude than on the ground
- D) oxygen deficiency at high altitude amplifies the effects of alcohol
Answer
D)
Explanation
At altitude, the reduced partial pressure of oxygen (hypoxia) acts synergistically with alcohol to amplify its impairing effects on the central nervous system. Both hypoxia and alcohol independently degrade cognitive function, and together they produce a combined impairment far greater than either alone — sometimes described as a multiplier effect.
- Option A incorrectly claims that alcohol effects decrease at altitude.
- Option B and Option C concern the elimination rate, which is primarily determined by liver metabolism and does not change significantly with altitude.
- The combination of altitude and alcohol is particularly dangerous for passengers who may need to respond in an emergency.
Source
Q103: Which is the correct technique for seeing at night? ^t40q103
DE · FR
- A) stare directly at distant, faintly lit objects as directly as possible
- B) do not stare directly at objects but look slightly to the side
- C) stare directly at all objects as directly as possible
- D) scan objects with rapid large eye movements
Answer
B)
Explanation
At night, the central fovea of the retina — used for direct vision — contains only cone cells, which require more light to function effectively. The rod cells responsible for low-light sensitivity are concentrated in the retinal periphery. Looking slightly to the side of an object (off-centre viewing) places its image on the rod-rich area, making it visible in dim conditions.
- Option A and Option C (staring directly) use only the foveal cones, which are essentially blind in low light, causing the object to disappear.
- Option D (rapid large eye movements) disrupts the fixation time needed for the rods to detect faint light.
Source
Q104: Your passenger complains of middle ear pressure equalization problems. How can you help them? ^t40q104
DE · FR
- A) stop the climb, if possible descend until the pain subsides, then climb again at a lower rate
- B) stop the descent, if possible climb until the pain subsides, then descend at a lower rate
- C) descend at a higher rate until the pain subsides, then continue descending at a lower rate
- D) stop the descent, if possible climb until the pain subsides, then descend at a higher rate
Answer
B)
Explanation
Middle ear pressure equalisation problems occur most commonly during descent, when increasing external pressure cannot enter the middle ear cavity fast enough through the Eustachian tube. The correct remedy is to stop the descent, climb slightly if possible to reduce the pressure differential and allow the pain to subside, then resume the descent at a slower rate to give the Eustachian tube time to equalise.
- Option A addresses climbing problems, which are much less common.
Option C (descending faster) would worsen the pressure imbalance.
Option D correctly stops the descent but then resumes at a higher rate, which would recreate the problem.
Source
Q105: Which of the following symptoms may indicate oxygen deficiency? ^t40q105
DE · FR
- A) joint pain
- B) lung pain
- C) reduced heart rate
- D) difficulty concentrating
Answer
D)
Explanation
Difficulty concentrating is one of the earliest and most characteristic symptoms of hypoxia (oxygen deficiency), reflecting the brain's high sensitivity to reduced oxygen supply. As altitude increases and oxygen partial pressure drops, cognitive functions deteriorate before physical symptoms become apparent.
- Option A (joint pain) is associated with decompression sickness, not hypoxia.
- Option B (lung pain) is not a typical hypoxia symptom.
- Option C (reduced heart rate) is incorrect because the body's compensatory response to hypoxia is to increase heart rate, not decrease it.
Source
Q106: What causes motion sickness (kinetosis)? ^t40q106
DE · FR
- A) a disorder of the middle ear
- B) irritation of the balance organ
- C) evaporation of gases into the blood
- D) a strong reduction in atmospheric pressure
Answer
B)
Explanation
Motion sickness is caused by irritation of the vestibular system (balance organ) in the inner ear when it receives conflicting signals from the eyes, the vestibular apparatus, and proprioceptors. This sensory mismatch — for example, the inner ear detecting motion while the eyes see a stationary cockpit interior — triggers the autonomic nervous system response that produces nausea and vomiting.
- Option A (middle ear disorder) confuses a pathological condition with a normal physiological response.
- Option C and Option D describe altitude-related phenomena (decompression) that are unrelated to motion sickness.
Source
Q107: Which are the side effects of anti-motion-sickness medications? ^t40q107
DE · FR
- A) drowsiness and slowed reaction time
- B) general weakness and loss of appetite
- C) exhaustion and depression
- D) hyperactivity and risk-taking tendency
Answer
A)
Explanation
Anti-motion-sickness medications — primarily antihistamines (such as dimenhydrinate) and anticholinergics (such as scopolamine) — commonly cause drowsiness and significantly slowed reaction times as their primary side effects. These effects directly compromise the alertness and rapid decision-making required for safe flying.
- Option B, Option C, and Option D describe side effects not typically associated with standard anti-motion-sickness drugs.
- Because of the sedating effects described in Option A, pilots should not use these medications before or during flight without medical clearance from an aviation medical examiner.
Source
Q108: What is decisive for the onset of noise-induced hearing loss? ^t40q108
DE · FR
- A) only the duration of noise exposure
- B) the duration and intensity of the noise
- C) only the intensity of the noise
- D) the sudden onset of a noise
Answer
B)
Explanation
Noise-induced hearing loss depends on the total sound energy dose received by the ear, which is a function of both the intensity (measured in decibels) and the duration of exposure. A very loud noise over a short period or a moderately loud noise sustained over many hours can both cause permanent damage.
- Option A ignores intensity — a quiet sound, no matter how long the exposure, will not cause damage.
- Option C ignores duration — a brief loud burst is generally less harmful than the same intensity sustained for hours.
- Option D (sudden onset) describes acoustic shock, which is only one mechanism and not the full picture.
Source
Q109: Increasing and sustained positive g-loads can produce symptoms that appear in the following order: ^t40q109
DE · FR
- A) loss of color vision, reduction of peripheral vision, total loss of vision, loss of consciousness
- B) red-out, reduction of peripheral vision, total loss of vision, loss of consciousness
- C) reduction of peripheral vision, loss of color vision, total loss of vision, loss of consciousness
- D) loss of color vision, reduction of peripheral vision, red-out, loss of consciousness
Answer
A)
Explanation
As positive g-forces increase, blood drains from the head toward the lower body in a predictable sequence of visual and neurological symptoms: first grey-out (loss of colour vision as the retina receives less oxygenated blood), then tunnel vision (reduction of peripheral vision as the outer retina fails first), then complete blackout (total loss of vision), and finally G-LOC (loss of consciousness).
- Option B incorrectly begins with red-out, which occurs under negative g-forces, not positive.
- Option C reverses the first two symptoms.
- Option D inserts red-out mid-sequence, which does not occur during positive g-loading.
Source
Q110: From what altitude does the body of a healthy person begin to compensate for oxygen deficiency by accelerating breathing rate? ^t40q110
DE · FR
- A) roughly 6,000-7,000 ft
- B) roughly 10,000-12,000 ft
- C) roughly 3,000-4,000 ft
- D) from 12,000 ft
Answer
A)
Explanation
At approximately 6,000-7,000 ft, the reduced partial pressure of oxygen becomes sufficient to trigger the body's chemoreceptors, which detect the drop in blood oxygen and stimulate an increase in respiratory rate as a compensatory mechanism.
- Option B (10,000-12,000 ft) describes the upper limit of effective compensation, not where it begins.
- Option C (3,000-4,000 ft) is too low — at this altitude, the oxygen reduction is minimal and no compensation is needed.
- Option D (from 12,000 ft) is the point where compensation becomes inadequate, not where it starts.
Source
Q111: The ideal level of arousal is at which point in the diagram? ^t40q111
DE · FR

- A) Point C
- B) Point D
- C) Point B
- D) Point A
Answer
C)
Explanation
The Yerkes-Dodson law, illustrated by the inverted-U curve in figure, shows that performance peaks at a moderate, optimal level of arousal — represented by Point B at the top of the curve.
- Option D (Point A) lies on the left side where arousal is too low, resulting in boredom, inattention, and poor performance.
- Option A (Point C) and Option B (Point D) represent progressively higher arousal levels on the right side of the curve, where over-stimulation causes anxiety, cognitive overload, and declining performance.
- For pilots, maintaining arousal at Point B ensures maximum alertness without the errors that come from excessive stress.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q112: Which answer is correct concerning stress? ^t40q112
DE · FR
- A) Everybody reacts to stress in the same manner
- B) Stress and its different symptoms are irrelevant for flight safety
- C) Stress can occur if there seems to be no solution for a given problem
- D) Training and experience have no influence on the occurence of stress
Answer
C)
Explanation
Stress commonly arises when a person perceives a threatening or problematic situation for which no adequate solution appears available — the feeling of being trapped or overwhelmed triggers the physiological stress response.
- Option A is incorrect because individual stress responses vary enormously based on personality, experience, coping mechanisms, and physical condition.
- Option B dangerously dismisses the impact of stress on flight safety, when in fact stress-related errors are a major factor in aviation incidents.
- Option D is wrong because training and experience are proven to raise the stress threshold by providing learned responses to challenging situations.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q113: During flight you have to solve a problem, how to you proceed? ^t40q113
DE · FR
- A) Solve problem immediately, otherwise refer to the operationg handbook
- B) Contact other pilot via radio for help, keep flying
- C) Primarily fly the airplane and keep it stable, then attend to the problem and keep flying the airplane
- D) There is no time for solving problems during flight
Answer
C)
Explanation
The fundamental principle of airmanship is "aviate, navigate, communicate" — in that order. The pilot's primary duty is always to fly the aircraft and maintain stable flight before addressing any secondary problem.
- Option A risks losing aircraft control by prioritising problem-solving over flying.
Option B (radio contact) is a valid step but must come after ensuring the aircraft is under control.
Option D incorrectly implies that problem-solving during flight is impossible, when in fact pilots routinely handle in-flight issues provided they maintain aircraft control as the overriding priority.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q114: At which point in the diagram will a pilot find himself to be overstrained? ^t40q114
DE · FR

- A) Point D
- B) Point C
- C) Point A
- D) Point B
Answer
A)
Explanation
On the Yerkes-Dodson inverted-U curve, Point D represents the extreme right of the arousal axis where stress levels are very high and performance has collapsed — the pilot is overstrained. At this level of arousal, cognitive function breaks down, decision-making becomes erratic, and the risk of critical errors increases dramatically.
- Option B (Point C) represents elevated but not yet maximal stress.
- Option C (Point A) represents under-arousal and boredom.
- Option D (Point B) is the peak of the curve where optimal performance occurs.
- Recognising the slide from Point B toward Point D is a critical pilot skill.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q115: The swiss cheese model is used to explain the ^t40q115
DE · FR
- A) State of readiness of a pilot.
- B) Optimal problem solution.
- C) Error chain.
- D) Procedure for an emergency landing.
Answer
C)
Explanation
James Reason's Swiss Cheese Model is a foundational concept in aviation safety that illustrates how accidents result from an error chain — a series of individual failures in successive defensive barriers that happen to align, allowing a hazard to penetrate all layers simultaneously. Each "slice of cheese" represents a safety barrier with inherent "holes" (latent conditions and active failures).
- Option A (pilot readiness) is assessed through fitness-to-fly checks, not the Swiss Cheese Model.
- Option B (problem solving) uses decision-making frameworks like DECIDE.
- Option D (emergency landing procedures) are covered by standard operating procedures and checklists, not error chain theory.
Key Terms
D — Drag
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q116: What does the term Red-out mean? ^t40q116
DE · FR
- A) Rash during decompression sickness
- B) Falsified colour perception during sunrise and sunset
- C) "Red vision" during negative g-loads
- D) Anaemia caused by an injury
Answer
C)
Explanation
Red-out occurs during sustained negative g-forces (such as during a bunt or inverted flight manoeuvre), when blood is forced upward into the head and eyes. The excess blood pressure in the ocular capillaries produces a characteristic red tinge across the visual field. This is the negative-g counterpart to grey-out and blackout, which occur under positive g-forces when blood drains away from the head.
- Option A (decompression sickness rash) is an entirely different condition affecting dissolved gases in the body.
- Option B (sunrise/sunset colour) is a natural optical phenomenon, not a physiological impairment.
- Option D (anaemia from injury) is a medical condition unrelated to g-forces.
Source
- [?] Source non identifiée
### Q117: What does presbyopia mean? ^t40q117
DE · FR
- A) Unable to see distant objects without correction.
- B) The visual field must be corrected with concave lenses.
- C) For a private pilot, being fit to fly with strong corrections.
- D) Poor near vision without correction.
Answer
D)
Explanation
Presbyopia is an age-related condition in which the lens of the eye loses its flexibility and can no longer accommodate for near vision, making reading or checking cockpit instruments difficult without reading glasses.
- Option A is wrong because inability to see distant objects describes myopia (short-sightedness), not presbyopia.
- Option B is wrong because concave lenses correct myopia; presbyopes need convex (positive) lenses for near vision.
- Option C is wrong because fitness to fly with optical correction is a separate medical regulatory matter, not the definition of presbyopia.
Source
Q118: The inner ear consists of ^t40q118
DE · FR
- A) 3 semicircular canals, 2 otolith organs, 1 cochlea.
- B) 3 semicircular canals and 1 cochlea.
- C) 3 semicircular canals and 2 otolith organs.
- D) 2 otolith organs and 1 cochlea.
Answer
A)
Explanation
The inner ear contains three functional components: the three semicircular canals (which detect rotational accelerations), the two otolith organs - utricle and saccule - (which detect linear accelerations and static position relative to gravity), and the cochlea (which converts sound waves into nerve signals). These seven structures are essential for balance and hearing respectively.
- Option B is wrong because it omits the two otolith organs.
- Option C is wrong because it omits the cochlea, which is essential for hearing.
- Option D is wrong because it omits the semicircular canals, which are indispensable for detecting rotation.
Source
Q119: What is the normal weight of a person? ^t40q119
DE · FR
- A) Height in cm minus one hundred.
- B) Height in cm minus one hundred, minus 10%.
- C) Height minus age minus 20%.
- D) Double the age minus 10%.
Answer
A)
Explanation
The classical "normal weight" formula (also known as the Broca index) is simply height in centimetres minus 100, giving weight in kilograms. Thus a person 170 cm tall has a normal weight of 70 kg. Although this formula is simplistic and largely replaced by BMI in modern medicine, it remains used in aeronautical references.
- Option B is wrong because subtracting an additional 10% gives the "ideal weight", not the normal weight.
- Options C and D are wrong because age does not feature in classical reference weight formulas.
Source
Q120: Which profession carries a higher risk of contracting AIDS? ^t40q120
DE · FR
- A) Driver.
- B) Doctor.
- C) Butcher.
- D) Pilot.
Answer
B)
Explanation
Doctors, nurses, and other healthcare professionals face an elevated risk of HIV exposure through accidental needle-stick injuries, blood splashes, or contact with infected bodily fluids during medical procedures. This occupational risk is specific to working with medical equipment and potentially infected patients.
- Option A is wrong because drivers are not occupationally exposed to blood or bodily fluids.
- Option C is wrong because although butchers work with cuts and animal blood, HIV is not transmitted from animals.
- Option D is wrong because pilots are not occupationally exposed to HIV transmission risks.
Source
Q121: How is the AIDS virus transmitted? ^t40q121
DE · FR
- A) By sharing used syringes.
- B) By a cold.
- C) By physical contact such as shaking hands.
- D) By parasites.
Answer
A)
Explanation
HIV is transmitted by direct contact with certain infected bodily fluids: blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. Sharing used syringes is one of the primary transmission routes because it directly introduces infected blood into another person's bloodstream.
- Option B is wrong because HIV is not transmitted by airborne droplets or nasal secretions.
- Option C is wrong because ordinary skin contact such as a handshake does not transmit HIV.
- Option D is wrong because HIV is a virus, not a parasite, and it is not spread through parasitic vectors.
Source
Q122: What can be said about vaccinations? ^t40q122
DE · FR
- A) The duration of protection from basic vaccinations is unlimited.
- B) Travel vaccinations are valid for 5 years.
- C) Basic vaccinations must be renewed regularly.
- D) Vaccinations only activate when the symptoms of the disease appear.
Answer
C)
Explanation
Basic vaccinations - such as those against tetanus, diphtheria, and poliomyelitis - provide immunity that wanes over time and requires regular booster doses to maintain effective protection. For example, the tetanus booster is generally recommended every ten years.
- Option A is wrong because no vaccine offers indefinite protection without boosters.
- Option B is wrong because the duration of validity varies considerably by travel vaccine (for example, yellow fever offers lifelong protection after a single dose, while others require more frequent boosters).
- Option D is wrong because vaccines induce preventive immunity before any contact with the disease; they do not activate in response to symptoms.
Source
Q123: Which product carries the least risk of contact with an infectious disease? ^t40q123
DE · FR
- A) Washed salad.
- B) Fresh milk.
- C) Ice cream.
- D) Bottled mineral water.
Answer
D)
Explanation
Bottled mineral water is packaged in a controlled, sterile environment, and its sealed container protects it from subsequent contamination. It therefore carries the least risk of transmitting food- or water-borne infectious diseases, particularly when travelling in regions with uncertain hygiene standards.
- Option A is wrong because even washed salad can harbour pathogens if the washing water is contaminated or the washing is inadequate.
- Option B is wrong because unpasteurised fresh milk can contain pathogenic bacteria; even pasteurised milk is perishable.
- Option C is wrong because ice cream may be prepared with contaminated water and is subject to cold-chain failures.
Source
Q124: What is the effect of taking a medication and alcohol simultaneously? ^t40q124
DE · FR
- A) The side effects of the medication are reduced.
- B) Can increase the effect of the medication.
- C) Strongly reduces the rate of alcohol elimination.
- D) Increases the rate of alcohol elimination.
Answer
B)
Explanation
Alcohol interacts with many medications and potentiates (amplifies) their effect, particularly sedatives, antihistamines, sleeping pills, and anxiolytics. This interaction is especially dangerous for pilots because it can cause drowsiness, slowed reflexes, and impaired judgement far greater than those produced by either alcohol or the medication alone.
- Option A is wrong because alcohol generally amplifies the side effects of medications rather than reducing them.
- Option C is wrong because alcohol and medications are metabolised through different hepatic pathways; interactions may delay the metabolism of some drugs but do not have a major direct effect on alcohol elimination.
- Option D is wrong because no common medication significantly accelerates the elimination of alcohol.
Source
Q125: What is the sleep cycle for an adult? ^t40q125
DE · FR
- A) 6 hours of sleep and 18 hours of wakefulness.
- B) Hours of sleep and hours of wakefulness approximately equal.
- C) 8 hours of sleep and 16 hours of wakefulness.
- D) 15 hours of sleep and 9 hours of wakefulness.
Answer
C)
Explanation
For most adults, sleep requirement is approximately 8 hours per night, leaving approximately 16 hours of wakefulness. This 8/16 balance allows sufficient physical and mental recovery to maintain the cognitive and physical performance needed for daily activities, including flying. Chronic sleep deprivation degrades alertness, reaction time, and decision-making.
- Option A is wrong because 6 hours of sleep is insufficient for the majority of adults and corresponds to chronic sleep deprivation.
- Option B is wrong because equal sleep and waking hours (12/12) corresponds to the needs of a newborn, not an adult.
- Option D is wrong because 15 hours of sleep would indicate a pathological condition such as hypersomnia.
Source
Q126: How is the AIDS virus transmitted? ^t40q126
DE · FR
- A) Through kissing.
- B) Through unprotected sexual intercourse.
- C) Through the use of public toilets.
- D) Through insects.
Answer
B)
Explanation
HIV is transmitted primarily through unprotected sexual intercourse, through sharing contaminated syringes, and from mother to child during pregnancy or breastfeeding. Unprotected sexual intercourse is the most common route of transmission worldwide.
- Option A is wrong because HIV is not present in infectious quantities in saliva and is not transmitted by ordinary kissing.
- Option C is wrong because HIV does not survive long outside the body and is not transmitted via common surfaces.
- Option D is wrong because unlike malaria, HIV cannot be transmitted by insect bites.
Source
Q127: Which substance in cigarette smoke increases the probability of lung cancer? ^t40q127
DE · FR
- A) Lead.
- B) Tar.
- C) Carbon dioxide.
- D) Nicotine.
Answer
B)
Explanation
Tar is a mixture of carcinogenic chemicals contained in cigarette smoke. When inhaled, it deposits in the lungs and irritates pulmonary tissue, causing cellular damage, genetic mutations, and ultimately lung cancer. It is tar, not nicotine, that is directly responsible for the carcinogenic effect of tobacco.
- Option A is wrong because lead is present in trace amounts in some emissions but is not the principal carcinogen in tobacco.
- Option C is wrong because carbon dioxide (CO2) is a non-carcinogenic combustion product, although carbon monoxide (CO) is hazardous in a different way.
- Option D is wrong because nicotine is the addictive substance in cigarettes but is not directly responsible for lung cancer - it is tar that carries the carcinogenic agents.
Source
Q128: You must not fly with tonsillitis because ^t40q128
DE · FR
- A) It can lead to inflammation of the lungs.
- B) Due to breathing difficulties.
- C) Oxygen deficiency is multiplied.
- D) It can produce inflammation of the middle ear.
Answer
D)
Explanation
Tonsillitis (throat infection) causes swelling of the mucous membranes of the throat and nasopharynx, which can block the Eustachian tube. In flight, during altitude changes, this prevents pressure equalisation in the middle ear and can lead to barotraumatic otitis media (middle ear inflammation) that is particularly painful and potentially dangerous.
- Option A is wrong because while a bacterial throat infection can spread to the lungs, this is not the primary reason that contraindicates flying.
- Option B is wrong because while a throat infection can impair breathing, this is not the primary reason - it is the risk of ear inflammation that is decisive.
- Option C is wrong because tonsillitis does not directly affect blood oxygen saturation.
Source
Q129: What physical training is recommended to prevent heart disease? ^t40q129
DE · FR
- A) Exercise 3 times per week for 20 minutes with heart rate double the resting rate.
- B) Exercise once per week for 30 minutes with heart rate triple the resting rate.
- C) Exercise for one hour with heart rate double the resting rate.
- D) Exercise every day for 30 minutes with heart rate triple the resting rate.
Answer
A)
Explanation
Standard cardiology guidelines for the prevention of cardiovascular disease recommend moderate-intensity aerobic exercise (heart rate approximately double the resting rate) for at least 20 minutes, repeated a minimum of three times per week. This regular training strengthens the heart muscle, improves circulation, and reduces cardiovascular risk factors.
- Option B is wrong because a single session per week is insufficient to achieve a significant cardiovascular benefit.
- Option C is wrong because one hour without a defined weekly frequency is not the recognised standard, and the absence of a weekly frequency is problematic.
- Option D is wrong because a heart rate triple the resting rate corresponds to intense exercise that is not recommended as a prevention standard; excessively intense exercise can even be dangerous.
Source