Air Law

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Q1: An SPL or LAPL(S) licence holder has logged 9 winch launches, 4 aero-tow launches and 2 bungee launches over the past 24 months. Which launch methods is the pilot permitted to use as PIC today? ^t10q1

DE · FR

• A) Aero-tow and bungee.
• B) Winch and aero-tow.
• C) Winch and bungee.
• D) Winch, bungee and aero-tow.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under Part-SFCL, a pilot must have completed at least 5 launches using a given method within the preceding 24 months to act as PIC with that method. Here the pilot has 9 winch launches (meets the threshold) and 2 bungee launches (also meets the threshold, as the minimum for bungee is lower). However, with only 4 aero-tow launches the pilot falls short of the required 5, so aero-tow is not permitted.

• Option A is wrong because it includes aero-tow.
• Option B is wrong because it also includes aero-tow.
• Option D includes all three methods, but aero-tow is not qualified.
• Only Option C correctly lists winch and bungee.

Key Terms

LAPL = Light Aircraft Pilot Licence; PIC = Pilot in Command; SPL = Sailplane Pilot Licence

Q2: Which documents are required to be carried on board during an international flight? a) Certificate of aircraft registration b) Certificate of airworthiness c) Airworthiness review certificate d) EASA Form-1 e) Airplane logbook f) Appropriate papers for every crew member g) Technical logbook ^t10q2

DE · FR

• A) A, b, c, e, f
• B) D, f, g
• C) B, c, d, e, f, g
• D) A, b, e, g

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 6 and EU Regulation 965/2012, international flights require the Certificate of Airworthiness (b), Airworthiness Review Certificate (c), EASA Form-1 release document (d), the journey log (e), crew licences and medical certificates (f), and the technical logbook (g).

• Option A omits Form-1 and the technical logbook.
• Option B is far too limited.
• Option D omits critical documents like the ARC and crew papers.
• Option C provides the complete standard EASA enumeration for international flight.

Key Terms

ARC = Airworthiness Review Certificate; EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q3: Which type of area may be entered subject to certain conditions? ^t10q3

DE · FR

• A) Dangerous area
• B) No-fly zone
• C) Prohibited area
• D) Restricted area

Answer

D)

Explanation

A restricted area (designated "R" on charts) may be entered subject to conditions published in the AIP, such as obtaining prior clearance from the responsible authority.

• Option A (dangerous area, designated "D") contains hazards but has no legal entry restriction -- pilots may enter at their own risk.
• Option B (no-fly zone) is not a standard ICAO classification.
• Option C (prohibited area, designated "P") forbids all flight unconditionally.
• Only Option D correctly describes airspace that permits conditional entry.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q4: In which publication can the specific restrictions for a restricted airspace be found? ^t10q4

DE · FR

• A) NOTAM
• B) AIP
• C) AIC
• D) ICAO chart 1:500000

Answer

B)

Explanation

The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is the primary authoritative document containing permanent information about airspace structure, including the detailed conditions, activation times, and authority contacts for restricted areas in the ENR section.

• Option A (NOTAMs) may announce temporary changes but do not define the base restrictions.
• Option C (AICs) contain advisory or administrative information, not regulatory airspace definitions.
• Option D (ICAO charts) show boundaries graphically but do not detail the specific restrictions and conditions for entry.

Key Terms

AIC = Aeronautical Information Circular; AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; NOTAM = Notice to Air Missions

Q5: What legal status do the rules and procedures established by EASA have? (e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED) ^t10q5

DE · FR

• A) They hold the same status as ICAO Annexes
• B) They are not legally binding and serve only as guidance
• C) They are part of EU regulation and legally binding across all EU member states
• D) They become legally binding only after ratification by individual EU member states

Answer

C)

Explanation

EASA regulations such as Part-SFCL and Part-MED are published as EU Implementing or Delegated Regulations under the Basic Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. EU Regulations are directly applicable law in all member states without requiring national ratification, making them immediately binding.

• Option A is wrong because ICAO Annexes are standards and recommended practices requiring national adoption, not equivalent to EU law.
• Option B is incorrect because EASA rules are fully legally binding.
• Option D is wrong because EU Regulations do not require individual state ratification.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q6: What is the validity period of the Certificate of Airworthiness? ^t10q6

DE · FR

• A) 12 months
• B) 6 months
• C) 12 years
• D) Unlimited

Answer

D)

Explanation

The Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) has unlimited validity -- once issued, it remains valid as long as the aircraft meets its type design standards and is properly maintained. What requires periodic renewal (typically annually) is the Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC), which confirms continuing airworthiness has been verified.

• Option A (12 months) and Option B (6 months) confuse the CofA with the ARC renewal period.
• Option C (12 years) is not a standard aviation validity period for any certificate.

Key Terms

ARC = Airworthiness Review Certificate

Q7: What does the abbreviation "ARC" stand for? ^t10q7

DE · FR

• A) Airspace Restriction Criteria
• B) Airworthiness Review Certificate
• C) Airworthiness Recurring Control
• D) Airspace Rulemaking Committee

Answer

B)

Explanation

ARC stands for Airworthiness Review Certificate, as defined in EU Regulation 1321/2014 (Part-M). It is issued after a periodic airworthiness review confirms the aircraft's continuing airworthiness documentation and condition are in order.

• Option A (Airspace Restriction Criteria), Option C (Airworthiness Recurring Control), and Option D (Airspace Rulemaking Committee) are fabricated terms not used in EASA or ICAO aviation law.

Key Terms

ARC = Airworthiness Review Certificate; EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q8: The Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the state ^t10q8

DE · FR

• A) In which the airworthiness review is done.
• B) In which the aircraft is constructed.
• C) In which the aircraft is registered.
• D) Of the residence of the owner.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 8 and Annex 7, the Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the state of registry -- the country where the aircraft is registered. That state bears responsibility for ensuring the aircraft meets applicable airworthiness standards.

• Option A (where the review is done) is incorrect because reviews may occur abroad.
• Option B (where constructed) is irrelevant since manufacturing state differs from registry state.
• Option D (owner's residence) has no bearing on CofA issuance.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q9: A pilot licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is recognised in ^t10q9

DE · FR

• A) The country where the licence was issued.
• B) Those countries that have individually accepted this licence upon application.
• C) All ICAO contracting states.
• D) The country where the licence was acquired.

Answer

C)

Explanation

ICAO Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing) establishes international standards for pilot licences. A licence issued in full compliance with Annex 1 standards is recognised across all 193 ICAO Contracting States, enabling international aviation operations without individual country-by-country acceptance.

• Option A and Option D are essentially the same idea and too restrictive.

• Option B incorrectly implies case-by-case acceptance is needed.

• The universal mutual recognition of Annex 1 licences is a cornerstone of international civil aviation.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q10: Which topic does ICAO Annex 1 address? ^t10q10

DE · FR

• A) Rules of the air
• B) Operation of aircraft
• C) Air traffic services
• D) Flight crew licensing

Answer

D)

Explanation

ICAO Annex 1 covers Personnel Licensing, which includes standards for flight crew licences (PPL, CPL, ATPL), ratings, medical certificates, and instructor qualifications.

• Option A (Rules of the Air) is Annex 2.
• Option B (Operation of Aircraft) is Annex 6.
• Option C (Air Traffic Services) is Annex 11.
• Knowing the ICAO Annexes by number and subject is a standard Air Law exam requirement.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q11: For a pilot aged 62, how long is a Class 2 medical certificate valid? ^t10q11

DE · FR

• A) 60 Months.
• B) 24 Months.
• C) 12 Months.
• D) 48 Months.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under Part-MED (Commission Regulation (EU) 1178/2011), the validity of a Class 2 medical certificate depends on the pilot's age. For pilots aged 50 and over, validity is reduced to 12 months. At age 62, the 12-month rule clearly applies.

• Option A (60 months) applies to younger pilots under 40 in some categories.
• Option B (24 months) applies to pilots aged 40-49.
• Option D (48 months) is not a standard medical validity period.

Q12: What does the abbreviation "SERA" stand for? ^t10q12

DE · FR

• A) Specialized Radar Approach
• B) Standard European Routes of the Air
• C) Standardized European Rules of the Air
• D) Selective Radar Altimeter

Answer

C)

Explanation

SERA stands for Standardised European Rules of the Air, established by Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012. SERA harmonises the rules of the air across all EU member states, implementing ICAO Annex 2 provisions at European level and adding EU-specific rules covering right-of-way, VMC minima, altimeter settings, and signals.

• Option A, Option B, and Option D are invented abbreviations not used in aviation regulation.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q13: What does the abbreviation "TRA" stand for? ^t10q13

DE · FR

• A) Terminal Area
• B) Temporary Radar Routing Area
• C) Temporary Reserved Airspace
• D) Transponder Area

Answer

C)

Explanation

TRA stands for Temporary Reserved Airspace -- airspace of defined dimensions reserved for a specific activity (military exercises, aerobatic displays, parachuting) during a published period. TRAs are activated via NOTAM and differ from TSAs (Temporary Segregated Areas) in that they may permit shared use under certain conditions.

• Option A (Terminal Area), Option B (Temporary Radar Routing Area), and Option D (Transponder Area) are not standard ICAO or EASA designations.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; NOTAM = Notice to Air Missions

Q14: What must be taken into account when entering an RMZ? ^t10q14

DE · FR

• A) The transponder must be switched on Mode C with squawk 7000
• B) A clearance from the local aviation authority must be obtained
• C) Continuous radio monitoring is required, and radio contact should be established if possible
• D) A clearance to enter the area must be obtained

Answer

C)

Explanation

An RMZ (Radio Mandatory Zone) requires all aircraft to carry and operate a functioning radio, to monitor the designated frequency continuously, and to establish two-way radio contact before entry if possible.

• Option A describes a TMZ requirement (transponder), not an RMZ.
• Option B and Option D imply formal ATC clearance is needed, which is a CTR requirement, not an RMZ.
• The RMZ is defined in SERA.6005 and national AIP supplements.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication; ATC = Air Traffic Control; CTR = Control Zone

Q15: What does an area designated as "TMZ" signify? ^t10q15

DE · FR

• A) Traffic Management Zone
• B) Touring Motorglider Zone
• C) Transponder Mandatory Zone
• D) Transportation Management Zone

Answer

C)

Explanation

TMZ stands for Transponder Mandatory Zone -- airspace within which all aircraft must be equipped with and operate a pressure-altitude reporting transponder (Mode C or Mode S). This allows ATC radar and collision avoidance systems to identify and track traffic.

• Option A (Traffic Management Zone), Option B (Touring Motorglider Zone), and Option D (Transportation Management Zone) are not recognised aviation terms.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control

Q16: A flight is classified as a "visual flight" when the ^t10q16

DE · FR

• A) Flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions.
• B) Visibility in flight exceeds 8 km.
• C) Visibility in flight exceeds 5 km.
• D) Flight is conducted under visual flight rules.

Answer

D)

Explanation

A visual flight (VFR flight) is defined by the rules under which it is conducted -- Visual Flight Rules (VFR) -- not by the prevailing weather. VMC (Visual Meteorological Conditions) describes the weather minima required for VFR, but a flight conducted in VMC could still be flown under IFR.

• Option A confuses the rule set with weather conditions.
• Options B and C cite specific visibility values that are VMC minima for particular airspace classes, not the definition of a VFR flight.

Key Terms

IFR = Instrument Flight Rules; VFR = Visual Flight Rules; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q17: What does the abbreviation "VMC" stand for? ^t10q17

DE · FR

• A) Visual flight rules
• B) Instrument flight conditions
• C) Variable meteorological conditions
• D) Visual meteorological conditions

Answer

D)

Explanation

VMC stands for Visual Meteorological Conditions -- the specific minima of visibility and cloud clearance defined in SERA.5001 that must be met for VFR flight. If conditions fall below VMC, the airspace is in IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions).

• Option A (Visual Flight Rules) is VFR, not VMC.
• Option B (Instrument Flight Conditions) is essentially IMC terminology.
• Option C (Variable Meteorological Conditions) is not a standard aviation term.
• VMC and VFR are related but distinct concepts.

Key Terms

IMC = Instrument Meteorological Conditions; VFR = Visual Flight Rules; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q18: Two powered aircraft are converging on crossing courses at identical altitude. Which aircraft must give way? ^t10q18

DE · FR

• A) The lighter aircraft must climb
• B) Both must turn to the right
• C) Both must turn to the left
• D) The heavier aircraft must climb

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per SERA.3210, when two aircraft are on converging courses at approximately the same altitude, each shall alter heading to the right. This ensures both aircraft pass behind each other, avoiding collision.

• Option A and Option D incorrectly introduce weight as a factor, which is irrelevant to crossing right-of-way rules.
• Option C (both turn left) would cause the aircraft to converge further rather than diverge.
• The "turn right" rule is a fundamental ICAO collision avoidance principle.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q19: Two aeroplanes are on crossing tracks. Which one must yield? ^t10q19

DE · FR

• A) Both must turn to the left
• B) The aircraft approaching from the right has the right of priority
• C) Both must turn to the right
• D) The aircraft approaching from right to left has the right of priority

Answer

D)

Explanation

Under SERA.3210(b), when two aircraft converge at approximately the same altitude, the aircraft that has the other on its right must give way. In other words, the aircraft approaching from the right (flying from right to left relative to the other pilot's perspective) has right-of-way.

• Option A is incorrect as turning left increases collision risk.
• Option B states the principle backwards.
• Option C describes the evasive action for head-on encounters, not the right-of-way principle for crossing traffic.

Q20: What cloud separation must be maintained during a VFR flight in airspace classes C, D and E? ^t10q20

DE · FR

• A) 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically
• B) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically
• C) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
• D) 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per SERA.5001, VFR flights in airspace classes C, D, and E must maintain 1500 m horizontal distance from cloud and 1000 ft (approximately 300 m) vertical distance from cloud. The key detail is that horizontal is expressed in metres and vertical in feet -- mixing these units is a common exam trap.

• Option A uses 1000 m horizontal (too small).
• Option B uses 1000 m vertical (incorrect unit and value).
• Option D reverses the horizontal/vertical values.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q21: In airspace "E", what is the minimum flight visibility for a VFR aircraft at FL75? ^t10q21

DE · FR

• A) 3000 m
• B) 5000 m
• C) 1500 m
• D) 8000 m

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per SERA.5001, in airspace class E above 3000 ft AMSL but below FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 5000 m (5 km). FL75 (approximately 7500 ft) falls within this altitude band.

• Option A (3000 m) is not a standard VFR minimum.
• Option C (1500 m) applies only in uncontrolled airspace at low altitude.
• Option D (8000 m) applies at and above FL100, not below it.

Key Terms

AMSL = Above Mean Sea Level; FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q22: In airspace "C", what is the minimum flight visibility for a VFR aircraft at FL110? ^t10q22

DE · FR

• A) 5000 m
• B) 8000 m
• C) 1500 m
• D) 3000 m

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per SERA.5001, at and above FL100 in controlled airspace (including class C), the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8000 m (8 km). FL110 is above FL100, so the 8 km rule applies.

• Option A (5000 m) is the minimum below FL100.
• Option C (1500 m) applies in low-altitude uncontrolled airspace.
• Option D (3000 m) does not correspond to any standard SERA VFR minimum in controlled airspace.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q23: In airspace "C", what is the minimum flight visibility for a VFR aircraft at FL125? ^t10q23

DE · FR

• A) 5000 m
• B) 3000 m
• C) 1500 m
• D) 8000 m

Answer

D)

Explanation

FL125 is above FL100, so the SERA.5001 rule for high-altitude VFR applies: minimum flight visibility is 8000 m in all controlled airspace including class C.

• Option A (5000 m) applies below FL100.
• Option B (3000 m) and Option C (1500 m) apply only in lower uncontrolled airspace.
• The progression to remember is: low-altitude uncontrolled = 1.5 km, controlled below FL100 = 5 km, at or above FL100 = 8 km.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q24: What are the minimum cloud clearance requirements for a VFR flight in airspace "B"? ^t10q24

DE · FR

• A) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft
• B) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m
• C) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m
• D) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m

Answer

D)

Explanation

Where VFR is permitted in class B airspace, the cloud clearance minima per SERA.5001 are 1500 m horizontal and 300 m (approximately 1000 ft) vertical.

• Option A uses only 1000 m horizontal distance, which is insufficient.
• Option B states 1000 m vertical, which is far too large and uses the wrong value.
• Option C uses only 1000 m horizontal and the correct vertical, but the horizontal is insufficient.
• Only Option D provides both correct values.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q25: In airspace "C" below FL 100, what minimum flight visibility applies to VFR operations? ^t10q25

DE · FR

• A) 10 km
• B) 5 km
• C) 8 km
• D) 1.5 km

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per SERA.5001, in airspace class C below FL100 (above 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL), the minimum VFR flight visibility is 5 km.

• Option A (10 km) is not a standard SERA minimum.
• Option C (8 km) applies only at and above FL100.
• Option D (1.5 km) applies in uncontrolled airspace at low altitudes.
• Glider pilots crossing class C airspace below FL100 must verify at least 5 km visibility.

Key Terms

AGL = Above Ground Level; AMSL = Above Mean Sea Level; FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q26: In airspace "C" at and above FL 100, what minimum flight visibility applies to VFR operations? ^t10q26

DE · FR

• A) 5 km
• B) 8 km
• C) 10 km
• D) 1.5 km

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per SERA.5001, at and above FL100 in controlled airspace including class C, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8 km. This higher threshold reflects the greater closing speeds and reduced reaction time at higher altitudes.

• Option A (5 km) is the minimum below FL100.
• Option C (10 km) is not a standard SERA VMC minimum.
• Option D (1.5 km) applies only in low-altitude uncontrolled airspace.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q27: How is the term "ceiling" defined? ^t10q27

DE · FR

• A) Height of the base of the lowest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.
• B) Altitude of the base of the lowest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.
• C) Height of the base of the highest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.
• D) Height of the base of the lowest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 10000 ft.

Answer

A)

Explanation

Ceiling is defined as the height (above ground level) of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more than half the sky (BKN or OVC, more than 4 oktas) below 20,000 ft.

• Option B uses "altitude" (referenced to MSL) instead of "height" (referenced to the surface).

• Option C refers to the "highest" cloud layer when it should be the "lowest.

• Option D incorrectly limits the threshold to 10,000 ft instead of 20,000 ft.

Key Terms

MSL = Mean Sea Level

Q28: During daytime interception by a military aircraft, what does the following signal mean: a sudden 90-degree or greater heading change and a climb without crossing the intercepted aircraft's flight path? ^t10q28

DE · FR

• A) You are entering a restricted area; leave the airspace immediately
• B) You may continue your flight
• C) Follow me; I will guide you to the nearest suitable airfield
• D) Prepare for a safety landing; you have entered a prohibited area

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 2, Appendix 1, when an intercepting aircraft makes an abrupt break-away manoeuvre of 90 degrees or more and climbs away without crossing the intercepted aircraft's track, this is the standard "release" signal meaning "You may proceed." The intercept is complete and the pilot may continue on their route.

• Option A and Option D imply airspace violation warnings that use different signals.
• Option C ("follow me") involves the interceptor rocking wings and maintaining a steady heading toward the destination aerodrome.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q29: When flying at FL 80, what altimeter setting must be used? ^t10q29

DE · FR

• A) 1013.25 hPa.
• B) Local QNH.
• C) 1030.25 hPa.
• D) Local QFE.

Answer

A)

Explanation

Flight levels are defined relative to the International Standard Atmosphere pressure datum of 1013.25 hPa. When flying at or above the transition altitude, pilots must set 1013.25 hPa on the altimeter subscale and reference altitude as a flight level.

• Option B (QNH) gives altitude above mean sea level and is used below the transition altitude.
• Option C (1030.25 hPa) is not a standard reference pressure.
• Option D (QFE) gives height above a specific aerodrome and is never used for flight levels.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; QFE = Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation; QNH = Pressure adjusted to mean sea level

Q30: What is the objective of the semi-circular rule? ^t10q30

DE · FR

• A) To permit flying without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP
• B) To enable safe climbing or descending within a holding pattern
• C) To reduce the risk of collisions by decreasing the likelihood of opposing traffic at the same altitude
• D) To prevent collisions by prohibiting turning manoeuvres

Answer

C)

Explanation

The semi-circular (hemispherical) cruising level rule (SERA.5015) assigns different altitude bands to different magnetic tracks -- eastbound flights use odd thousands of feet, westbound use even thousands. By vertically separating aircraft flying in opposite directions, the probability of head-on collision at the same altitude is greatly reduced.

• Option A is unrelated to cruising levels.
• Option B describes holding pattern procedures.
• Option D is incorrect because the rule concerns altitude assignment, not manoeuvre restrictions.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication

Q31: A transponder capable of transmitting the current pressure altitude is a ^t10q31

DE · FR

• A) Transponder approved for airspace "B".
• B) Mode A transponder.
• C) Pressure-decoder.
• D) Mode C or S transponder.

Answer

D)

Explanation

A transponder that transmits pressure altitude information is either a Mode C or Mode S transponder. Mode C adds automatic pressure altitude reporting to the basic Mode A identity code, while Mode S provides all Mode C capabilities plus selective interrogation and data link features.

• Option A is incorrect because "approved for airspace B" is not a transponder classification.
• Option B is wrong because Mode A only transmits a 4-digit squawk code without altitude data.
• Option C is wrong because "pressure-decoder" is not an aviation term.

Q32: Which transponder code signals a loss of radio communication? ^t10q32

DE · FR

• A) 7700
• B) 7000
• C) 7600
• D) 2000

Answer

C)

Explanation

Transponder code 7600 is the internationally recognised squawk for radio communication failure. Pilots must memorise the three emergency codes: 7700 for general emergency, 7600 for radio failure, and 7500 for unlawful interference (hijacking).

• Option A (7700) is for emergencies, not specifically communication loss.
• Option B (7000) is the standard European VFR conspicuity code.
• Option D (2000) is used when entering controlled airspace without an assigned code.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q33: In the event of a radio failure, which transponder code should be selected without any ATC request? ^t10q33

DE · FR

• A) 7000
• B) 7500
• C) 7700
• D) 7600

Answer

D)

Explanation

When a pilot experiences radio communication failure, they must immediately squawk 7600 without waiting for any ATC instruction, since by definition communication is no longer possible. This proactive action alerts ATC to the situation and triggers loss-of-communications procedures.

• Option A (7000) is the general VFR code and does not communicate an emergency.
• Option B (7500) signals unlawful interference, which is a completely different situation.
• Option C (7700) is for general emergencies, not specifically radio failure.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q34: Which transponder code should be set automatically during an emergency without waiting for instructions? ^t10q34

DE · FR

• A) 7600
• B) 7000
• C) 7500
• D) 7700

Answer

D)

Explanation

In any general emergency (engine failure, fire, medical emergency, structural damage), the pilot must immediately set transponder code 7700 without waiting for ATC instruction. This triggers an alarm on ATC radar displays and activates emergency response procedures.

• Option A (7600) is specifically for radio communication failure, not general emergencies.
• Option B (7000) is the standard VFR conspicuity code.
• Option C (7500) is reserved exclusively for unlawful interference (hijacking) and should never be set for other emergencies.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q35: Which air traffic service bears responsibility for the safe conduct of flights? ^t10q35

DE · FR

• A) FIS (flight information service)
• B) AIS (aeronautical information service)
• C) ATC (air traffic control)
• D) ALR (alerting service)

Answer

C)

Explanation

Air Traffic Control (ATC) is the service specifically responsible for providing separation between aircraft and ensuring the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic in controlled airspace. Per ICAO Annex 11, ATC actively manages aircraft movements to prevent collisions.

• Option A (FIS) provides useful information but does not direct or separate aircraft.
• Option B (AIS) publishes aeronautical information documents but has no operational control role.
• Option D (ALR) initiates search and rescue when aircraft are overdue or in distress, but does not manage ongoing flight safety.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q36: Which services make up the air traffic control service? ^t10q36

DE · FR

• A) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service)
• B) TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service)
• C) FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service)
• D) ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service)

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 11, the three constituent units of ATC are: TWR (Aerodrome Control, handling traffic at and around the aerodrome), APP (Approach Control, managing arriving and departing traffic in the terminal area), and ACC (Area Control Centre, handling en-route traffic).

• Option A incorrectly includes FIS, which is an information service separate from ATC.
• Option C lists information and communication services, none of which are ATC units.
• Option D mixes emergency services (ALR, SAR) with only one ATC unit (TWR).

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q37: Regarding separation in airspace "E", which statement is correct? ^t10q37

DE · FR

• A) IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic
• B) VFR traffic is separated from both VFR and IFR traffic
• C) VFR traffic receives no separation from any traffic
• D) VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Class E airspace, ATC separates IFR flights from other IFR flights, but VFR traffic receives no ATC separation service whatsoever -- neither from other VFR traffic nor from IFR traffic. VFR pilots in Class E must rely entirely on the see-and-avoid principle, with traffic information provided where possible.

• Option A incorrectly states IFR is separated only from VFR (it is separated from other IFR).
• Option B and Option D wrongly imply VFR traffic receives some form of separation.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; IFR = Instrument Flight Rules; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q38: Which air traffic services are available within an FIR (flight information region)? ^t10q38

DE · FR

• A) ATC (air traffic control) AIS (aeronautical information service)
• B) AIS (aeronautical information service) SAR (search and rescue)
• C) FIS (flight information service) ALR (alerting service)
• D) ATC (air traffic control) FIS (flight information service)

Answer

C)

Explanation

A Flight Information Region (FIR) provides two universal services throughout its entire volume: FIS (Flight Information Service), which provides weather, NOTAM, and traffic information to pilots, and ALR (Alerting Service), which notifies rescue services when aircraft are in distress or overdue. ATC is not provided throughout the entire FIR -- it exists only within designated controlled airspace (CTAs, CTRs, airways) that may lie within the FIR.

• Options A, B, and D either include ATC incorrectly or omit the correct pairing.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; FIR = Flight Information Region; NOTAM = Notice to Air Missions

Q39: How can a pilot reach FIS (flight information service) during flight? ^t10q39

DE · FR

• A) Via telephone.
• B) By a personal visit.
• C) Via radio communication.
• D) Via internet.

Answer

C)

Explanation

FIS is an operational service provided to airborne pilots, and the primary means of contacting it during flight is via radio communication on the designated FIS frequency. While pre-flight information may be obtained by telephone or online, the in-flight FIS service itself is radio-based.

• Option A (telephone) and Option D (internet) are ground-based contact methods impractical for real-time in-flight communication.
• Option B (personal visit) is obviously impossible while airborne.

Q40: What is the standard phraseology to warn that a light aircraft is following a heavier wake turbulence category aircraft? ^t10q40

DE · FR

• A) Attention propwash
• B) Be careful wake winds
• C) Danger jet blast
• D) Caution wake turbulence

Answer

D)

Explanation

The standard ICAO phraseology for wake turbulence warnings is "CAUTION WAKE TURBULENCE," as prescribed in ICAO Doc 4444 (PANS-ATM). Standardised phraseology is mandatory in aviation to eliminate ambiguity.

• Option A ("attention propwash"), Option B ("be careful wake winds"), and Option C ("danger jet blast") are all non-standard phrases not found in ICAO-approved phraseology.
• Using non-standard terms could cause confusion and is prohibited in EASA airspace.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q41: Which of the following represents a correct position report? ^t10q41

DE · FR

• A) DEABC over "N" at 35
• B) DEABC reaching "N"
• C) DEABC, "N", 2500 ft
• D) DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft

Answer

C)

Explanation

A standard position report per ICAO Doc 4444 must include: aircraft callsign, position (fix or waypoint), and altitude or flight level.

• Option C (DEABC, "N", 2500 ft) provides all three elements correctly and concisely.

• Option A lacks a clear altitude reference ("at 35" is ambiguous).

• Option B is incomplete because it omits altitude entirely.

• Option D uses the nonsensical expression "FL 2500 ft" -- flight levels and feet are never combined this way; it should be either "FL 25" or "2500 ft.".

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q42: What kind of information is contained in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? ^t10q42

DE · FR

• A) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces
• B) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces
• C) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods
• D) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees

Answer

D)

Explanation

The AIP is structured in three parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). The GEN section contains general administrative information including map symbols/icons, radio navigation aid listings, sunrise/sunset tables, national regulations, airport fees, and ATC fees.

• Option A describes content found in the ENR section (airspace, routes, restrictions).
• Option B describes AD section content (aerodrome charts, approach charts).
• Option C mixes items that do not correspond to any single AIP section.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication; ATC = Air Traffic Control

Q43: Into which parts is the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) divided? ^t10q43

DE · FR

• A) GEN ENR AD
• B) GEN AGA COM
• C) GEN COM MET
• D) GEN MET RAC

Answer

A)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 15, the AIP is divided into three standardised parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). This structure is universal across all ICAO member states.

• Option B (AGA, COM), Option C (COM, MET), and Option D (MET, RAC) use abbreviations from older ICAO documentation structures that are no longer part of the modern AIP organisation.
• Only Option A reflects the current ICAO-standard AIP structure.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q44: What kind of information is found in the "AD" section of the AIP? ^t10q44

DE · FR

• A) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces.
• B) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
• C) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts
• D) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods

Answer

C)

Explanation

The AD (Aerodromes) section of the AIP contains all aerodrome-specific information: aerodrome classification, runway data, approach and departure charts, taxi charts, lighting, frequencies, operating hours, and obstacle data.

• Option A describes ENR (En-Route) content covering airspace and restrictions.
• Option B describes GEN (General) content such as symbols and fees.
• Option D mixes regulatory and administrative items that do not correspond to the AD section.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication

Q45: The NOTAM shown is valid until... A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400 E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE. ^t10q45

DE · FR

• A) 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.
• B) 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC.
• C) 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC.
• D) 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC.

Answer

A)

Explanation

NOTAM time codes use the format YYMMDDHHMM in UTC. The "C)" field in a NOTAM specifies the end of validity. The code 1305211400 decodes as: year 2013 (13), month May (05), day 21, time 14:00 UTC -- giving 21 May 2013 at 14:00 UTC.

• Option B misreads the date format, interpreting the month as the date.

• Option C incorrectly reads the year as 2014.

• Option D completely misinterprets the encoding.
• Correct NOTAM decoding is a fundamental Air Law skill for all pilots.

Key Terms

NOTAM = Notice to Air Missions

Q46: A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a compilation of current ^t10q46

DE · FR

• A) AIP information of operational significance assembled prior to flight.
• B) AIC information of operational significance assembled after the flight.
• C) ICAO information of operational significance assembled after the flight.
• D) NOTAM information of operational significance assembled prior to flight.

Answer

D)

Explanation

A PIB (Pre-Flight Information Bulletin) is a standardised summary of current NOTAMs relevant to a planned flight, compiled and issued before departure. It filters pertinent NOTAMs for the route, departure, destination, and alternate aerodromes.

• Option A is wrong because a PIB is based on NOTAM data, not AIP data.
• Option B is wrong on two counts: it references AICs (not NOTAMs) and says "after the flight" (it is a pre-flight tool).
• Option C similarly misidentifies the source and timing.

Key Terms

AIC = Aeronautical Information Circular; AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; NOTAM = Notice to Air Missions

Q47: How is "aerodrome elevation" defined? ^t10q47

DE · FR

• A) The average value of the height of the manoeuvring area.
• B) The highest point of the landing area.
• C) The lowest point of the landing area.
• D) The highest point of the apron.

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, aerodrome elevation is defined as the elevation of the highest point of the landing area. This ensures the published value represents the most demanding terrain height aircraft must account for during approach and departure.

• Option A (average of the manoeuvring area) would understate the critical elevation.
• Option C (lowest point) is the opposite of the correct definition.
• Option D (highest point of the apron) is incorrect because the apron is not the landing area.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q48: How is the term "runway" defined? ^t10q48

DE · FR

• A) Rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
• B) Round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
• C) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
• D) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, a runway is a rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. The three key elements are: rectangular shape, land aerodrome, and aircraft in general.

• Option A is wrong because runways are specific to land aerodromes (water aerodromes have alighting areas, not runways).
• Option B is wrong because the shape is rectangular, not round.
• Option D is wrong because runways serve aircraft generally, not helicopters specifically (helicopters use helipads or FATO areas).

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q49: How can a wind direction indicator be made more visible? ^t10q49

DE · FR

• A) By mounting it on top of the control tower.
• B) By surrounding it with a white circle.
• C) By placing it on a large black surface.
• D) By constructing it from green materials.

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, a wind direction indicator (windsock or wind tee) should be surrounded by a white circle to enhance its visibility from the air. The high-contrast white surround makes the indicator easier to identify against the aerodrome background.

• Option A (mounting on the control tower) is not a standard ICAO visibility-enhancement method and could interfere with tower operations.
• Option C (black surface) is not specified in ICAO standards.
• Option D (green materials) would actually reduce visibility against grass surfaces.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q50: What shape does a landing direction indicator have? ^t10q50

DE · FR

• A) An angled arrow
• B) L
• C) T
• D) A straight arrow

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, the landing direction indicator is T-shaped (commonly called a "landing T" or "signal T"). Aircraft land toward the cross-bar of the T and take off away from it, making the landing direction immediately clear.

• Option A (angled arrow) and Option D (straight arrow) are not the standard ICAO shape for this indicator.
• Option B (L-shape) is used for a different purpose -- indicating a right-hand traffic circuit, not the landing direction.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q51: Who bears the responsibility for ensuring that mandatory on-board documents are present and that logbooks are correctly maintained? ^t10q51

DE · FR

• A) The air transport company.
• B) The operator of the aircraft.
• C) The pilot-in-command.
• D) The owner of the aircraft.

Answer

C)

Explanation

The pilot-in-command (PIC) bears ultimate responsibility for ensuring that all required documents are on board and properly maintained before every flight. This is a fundamental principle of aviation law under both ICAO Annex 2 and EASA regulations.

• Option A (air transport company) and Option B (operator) have general oversight duties but the direct pre-flight responsibility rests with the PIC.
• Option D (owner) may not even be present at the time of flight.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; PIC = Pilot in Command

Q52: Which activities may the Federal Council require OFAC authorization for? ^t10q52

DE · FR

• A) Only public air shows, aerobatic flights and aerobatic demonstrations on aircraft.
• B) Parachute descents, captive balloon ascents, public air shows, aerobatic flights and aerobatic demonstrations on aircraft.
• C) None of the activities listed above requires OFAC authorization.
• D) Only parachute descents and captive balloon ascents. No authorization is required for powered aircraft.

Answer

B)

Explanation

Under Swiss aviation law, the Federal Council may require OFAC (Federal Office of Civil Aviation) authorization for all listed special activities: parachute descents, captive balloon ascents, public air shows, aerobatic flights, and aerobatic demonstrations. These activities present elevated safety risks to participants and the public.

• Option A is too narrow because it excludes parachuting and captive balloons.
• Option C is wrong because authorization is indeed required.
• Option D incorrectly limits the requirement to only parachuting and captive balloons.

Q53: Is dropping objects from an aircraft in flight prohibited in Switzerland? ^t10q53

DE · FR

• A) No, only the dropping of advertising material is prohibited.
• B) Yes, it is strictly prohibited.
• C) No.
• D) Yes, subject to exceptions to be determined by the Federal Council.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Under Swiss aviation law, dropping objects from an aircraft in flight is in principle prohibited, but the Federal Council may define specific exceptions such as parachuting, emergency drops, or authorised agricultural activities.

• Option A is wrong because the prohibition is not limited to advertising material.
• Option B is wrong because exceptions exist -- it is not a strict absolute prohibition.
• Option C is wrong because there is a general prohibition in place, even though exceptions are possible.

Q54: Where specifically is the certification basis of an aircraft documented? ^t10q54

DE · FR

• A) In the VFR Manual.
• B) In the annex to the certificate of airworthiness.
• C) In the annex to the noise certificate.
• D) In the insurance certificate.

Answer

B)

Explanation

The certification basis of an aircraft (type certificate data sheet, approved operating conditions, mass limits, authorised flight categories, and required equipment) is documented in the annex to the Certificate of Airworthiness. This annex defines what the aircraft is certified to do.

• Option A (VFR Manual) contains operational procedures, not certification data.
• Option C (noise certificate annex) deals only with noise emissions.
• Option D (insurance certificate) covers financial liability, not airworthiness certification.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q55: Your aircraft, not used for commercial traffic, requires repairs abroad. Which statement applies? ^t10q55

DE · FR

• A) Repair work may only be carried out in Switzerland.
• B) The work must be carried out by a maintenance organization recognized by OFAC.
• C) The work must be carried out by a maintenance organization recognized as such by the competent aviation authority.
• D) The work must be carried out by an EASA-certified maintenance organization.

Answer

C)

Explanation

For a non-commercial aircraft requiring repairs abroad, the maintenance must be performed by an organisation recognised by the competent aviation authority of the country where the work is done. This provides flexibility while ensuring regulatory oversight.

• Option A is wrong because repairs are not restricted to Switzerland.
• Option B is wrong because OFAC recognition is not specifically required for foreign maintenance.
• Option D is too restrictive because EASA certification is not always required for non-commercial aircraft maintenance in all jurisdictions.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency

Q56: A well-known watchmaker has painted an aircraft in the brand's colours with a large watch on its fuselage. Is this allowed? ^t10q56

DE · FR

• A) Yes, if the Federal Office of Civil Aviation has given its authorization, the operation has no political purpose and the advertising markings are limited to specific parts of the aircraft.
• B) No, advertising is strictly prohibited on aircraft.
• C) Yes, subject to other provisions of federal legislation. The nationality and registration marks must in all cases remain easily recognizable.
• D) Yes, but only if the Federal Office of Civil Aviation has given its authorization and the nationality and registration marks remain easily recognizable.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under Swiss law, advertising on aircraft is permitted subject to other provisions of federal legislation, with only one mandatory condition: the nationality and registration marks must remain easily recognisable at all times. No special OFAC authorisation is needed for applying advertising markings.

• Option A imposes unnecessary conditions (OFAC authorization, no political purpose, limited placement) that are not required.

• Option B is simply wrong -- advertising is not prohibited.

• Option D incorrectly requires OFAC authorization.

Q57: Under what conditions may a person serve as a crew member on board an aircraft? ^t10q57

DE · FR

• A) When that person holds a valid licence issued by their country of origin.
• B) When that person holds a valid licence issued or recognized by the country in which the aircraft is registered.
• C) When that person holds a valid licence issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated.
• D) When that person holds a valid licence recognized by their country of origin.

Answer

B)

Explanation

A crew member must hold a valid licence issued or recognised by the state of registration of the aircraft, in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. The state of registration defines the qualification requirements for crew operating its aircraft.

• Option A and Option D reference the crew member's country of origin, which is irrelevant -- it is the aircraft's state of registration that matters.
• Option C references the country of operation, which is also not the determining factor under ICAO rules.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q58: Under what conditions is it permitted to carry and operate a radio on board? ^t10q58

DE · FR

• A) If a radio communication licence has been issued for the radio and crew members are trained in the use of the radio.
• B) If authorization to install and use the radio has been granted and crew members using the radio hold the corresponding qualification.
• C) If the frequency increments of the radio are at least 0.125 MHz and crew members using the radio hold the corresponding qualification.
• D) If authorization to install and use the radio has been granted and crew members are trained in the use of the radio.

Answer

B)

Explanation

Two cumulative conditions must be met: first, authorisation to install and use the radio must have been granted by the competent authority, and second, crew members who operate the radio must hold the corresponding formal qualification (not merely informal training).

• Option A is wrong because a "radio communication licence" is not the same as installation/use authorisation.
• Option C introduces an irrelevant technical specification about frequency increments.
• Option D is wrong because it requires only "training" rather than a formal qualification, which is insufficient.

Q59: What must a pilot possess to be authorized to communicate by radio with air traffic services? ^t10q59

DE · FR

• A) A radiotelephony course certificate and sufficient mastery of standard phraseology.
• B) In all cases, a radiotelephony qualification. Aeroplane and helicopter pilots must additionally hold a valid attestation of language proficiency in the language used.
• C) A valid attestation of language proficiency in the language used.
• D) A radiotelephony qualification and a valid attestation of language proficiency in the language used.

Answer

B)

Explanation

All pilots wishing to communicate with ATC must hold a radiotelephony qualification. Additionally, aeroplane and helicopter pilots must also possess a valid language proficiency attestation in the language used on the frequencies, as required under Swiss regulations.

• Option A is insufficient because a course certificate alone does not constitute a formal qualification.
• Option C omits the radiotelephony qualification entirely.
• Option D applies the language proficiency requirement universally, but under Swiss rules it is specifically required for aeroplane and helicopter pilots, not necessarily for all pilot categories such as glider or balloon pilots.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control

Q60: Your ophthalmologist has prescribed corrective lenses. Which statement is correct? ^t10q60

DE · FR

• A) You need not do anything. A visual deficiency that is well corrected has no effect on medical fitness.
• B) You are immediately unfit.
• C) You must promptly seek advice from your aviation medical examiner.
• D) You can simply report your ophthalmologist's decision to your aviation medical examiner at the next routine examination.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Any change in medical condition, including the prescription of corrective lenses, must be reported promptly to the aviation medical examiner (AME). The AME will assess whether the change affects medical fitness and whether additional restrictions or conditions must be placed on the licence.

• Option A is wrong because even well-corrected deficiencies may require documentation and a medical fitness reassessment.
• Option B is wrong because a corrective lens prescription does not automatically make a pilot unfit.
• Option D is wrong because waiting until the next routine examination could mean flying with an unreported medical change, which is not permitted.

Q61: In which type of airspace may a Special VFR (SVFR) flight be authorized when the ceiling is below 450 m above ground and surface visibility is less than 5 km? ^t10q61

DE · FR

• A) FIR.
• B) TMA.
• C) CTR.
• D) AWY.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Special VFR (SVFR) flights can only be authorised within a CTR (Control Zone), which is the controlled airspace immediately surrounding an aerodrome. When meteorological conditions fall below normal VMC minima, ATC within the CTR can grant SVFR clearance to permit operations.

• Option A (FIR) is too broad -- SVFR is not applicable to the entire flight information region.
• Option B (TMA) is terminal airspace above the CTR, not the zone where SVFR applies.
• Option D (AWY) is an airway where SVFR is not authorised.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; CTR = Control Zone; FIR = Flight Information Region; TMA = Terminal Manoeuvring Area; VFR = Visual Flight Rules; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q62: What evasive action should the pilots of two VFR aircraft on converging tracks generally take? ^t10q62

DE · FR

• A) One continues on track while the other turns right.
• B) One turns left, the other turns right.
• C) Each pilot turns left.
• D) Each pilot turns right.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per SERA.3210, the standard ICAO evasive action for converging aircraft is that each pilot turns right, ensuring both aircraft pass behind one another and diverge safely. This symmetrical rule eliminates ambiguity about who should manoeuvre.

• Option A is wrong because both aircraft must take action, not just one.
• Option B (one left, one right) would be uncoordinated and could worsen the situation.
• Option C (both turn left) would cause the aircraft to converge further rather than diverge.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q63: What are the minimum visibility and cloud distance requirements for VFR flight in Class D airspace below 10,000 ft AMSL? ^t10q63

DE · FR

• A) Visibility 1.5 km; clear of clouds and in permanent sight of ground or water.
• B) Visibility 8 km; cloud distance: horizontally 1.5 km, vertically 450 m.
• C) Visibility 5 km; cloud distance: horizontally 1.5 km, vertically 300 m.
• D) Visibility 5 km; clear of clouds and in permanent sight of ground or water.

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Class D airspace below FL100 (10,000 ft AMSL), SERA.5001 prescribes VMC minima of: 5 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal cloud distance, and 300 m (1,000 ft) vertical cloud distance. These are the same minima as for Classes C and E in this altitude band.

• Option A describes conditions applicable to lower uncontrolled airspace.
• Option B uses 8 km visibility and 450 m vertical clearance, which do not match any standard SERA values for this context.
• Option D omits the required cloud distance values.

Key Terms

AMSL = Above Mean Sea Level; FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q64: Among the airspace classes used in Switzerland, which ones are classified as controlled airspace? ^t10q64

DE · FR

• A) D, C
• B) G, E, D, C
• C) E, D, C
• D) E, C

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Switzerland, airspace classes C, D, and E are all classified as controlled airspace. Class G is uncontrolled airspace. Classes A and B exist in the ICAO classification system but are not used in Switzerland.

• Option A omits Class E, which is controlled airspace (though VFR traffic does not receive separation in it).
• Option B incorrectly includes Class G, which is uncontrolled.
• Option D omits Class D, which is definitely controlled airspace surrounding many Swiss aerodromes.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q65: According to the applicable rules of the air, what is the definition of "day"? ^t10q65

DE · FR

• A) The period from sunrise to sunset.
• B) The period between 06:00 and 20:00 in winter and between 06:00 and 21:00 in summer.
• C) The period from the end of morning civil twilight to the beginning of evening civil twilight.
• D) The period from the beginning of morning civil twilight to the end of evening civil twilight.

Answer

D)

Explanation

In aviation, "day" is defined as the period from the beginning of morning civil twilight to the end of evening civil twilight -- roughly 30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset. This broader definition gives pilots additional usable daylight at both ends.

• Option A (sunrise to sunset) is too restrictive and is the astronomical definition, not the aviation one.
• Option B uses fixed clock times that do not account for seasonal and geographic variations.
• Option C reverses the twilight references, which would result in a shorter rather than longer period.

Q66: What constitutes an aviation accident? ^t10q66

DE · FR

• A) Any event associated with the operation of an aircraft in which at least one person is killed or seriously injured.
• B) Any event associated with the operation of an aircraft that requires the aircraft to be repaired.
• C) The crash of an aircraft.
• D) Any event associated with the operation of an aircraft in which a person is killed or seriously injured, or in which the structural integrity, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft are significantly impaired.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Under ICAO Annex 13, an aviation accident is defined as an event associated with aircraft operation resulting in either fatal/serious injury to persons OR significant structural damage that impairs the aircraft's integrity, performance, or flight characteristics. Both criteria independently qualify an event as an accident.

• Option A is incomplete because it covers only personal injury, omitting aircraft damage.
• Option B is too broad -- not every repair constitutes an accident.
• Option C (crash) is too narrow and not the formal definition.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q67: You wish to carry out private flights for remuneration. What formality must you complete to limit your civil liability? ^t10q67

DE · FR

• A) Take out a special passenger insurance policy which passengers are required to accept.
• B) No formality is required since the Montreal Convention releases the pilot from all liability.
• C) Draw up a declaration to be signed by passengers releasing you from all liability.
• D) Issue a transport document as proof that a contract of carriage has been concluded, which limits liability for damage to baggage and for delay.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Issuing a transport document (ticket) constitutes proof that a contract of carriage has been concluded between the pilot and the passenger. Under the Montreal Convention, the existence of such a contract limits the carrier's liability for baggage damage and delays.

• Option A is incorrect because special passenger insurance is not the mechanism for limiting civil liability under the Convention.
• Option B is wrong because the Montreal Convention does not release pilots from all liability -- it caps liability under certain conditions.
• Option C (liability waiver) is not a legally recognised mechanism under international aviation law.

Q68: What type of information is disseminated through an AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular)? ^t10q68

DE · FR

• A) Aeronautical information of importance to persons involved in flight operations concerning the construction, condition or modification of aeronautical facilities and their duration.
• B) An AIC is a notice containing information that does not meet the conditions for issuing a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, or technical, administrative or legislative matters.
• C) The AIC is the manual for pilots flying IFR. Its structure and content are analogous to those of the VFR Manual.
• D) In principle, any information that justifies the issuance of a NOTAM and relates to flight safety, air navigation, or technical or legislative matters may be published by AIC.

Answer

B)

Explanation

An AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular) contains supplementary information that does not meet the criteria for publication as a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but is still relevant to flight safety, air navigation, or technical, administrative, and legislative matters. It fills the gap between urgent NOTAMs and permanent AIP entries.

• Option A describes NOTAM-type information rather than AIC content.
• Option C is completely wrong -- an AIC is not an IFR manual.
• Option D reverses the relationship: AICs contain information that does NOT justify a NOTAM, not information that does.

Key Terms

AIC = Aeronautical Information Circular; AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication; IFR = Instrument Flight Rules; NOTAM = Notice to Air Missions; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q69: What does the aerodrome operations manual govern? ^t10q69

DE · FR

• A) The certification of maintenance organizations located at the aerodrome.
• B) The organization of the aerodrome, opening hours, approach and takeoff procedures, use of aerodrome facilities by passengers, aircraft and ground vehicles as well as other users, and ground handling services.
• C) Employment contracts, vacation entitlement and shift work of the aerodrome operator.
• D) The operation and opening hours of the aerodrome restaurant and other businesses located at the aerodrome.

Answer

B)

Explanation

The aerodrome operations manual is a comprehensive document governing all operational aspects of the aerodrome: its organisation, opening hours, approach and take-off procedures, use of facilities by all users (passengers, aircraft, ground vehicles), and ground handling services.

• Option A is wrong because maintenance organisation certification is handled by EASA/national authorities, not the aerodrome operations manual.
• Option C covers employment matters unrelated to aerodrome operations.
• Option D covers commercial businesses, which are outside the scope of the operations manual.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency

Q70: What does this ground signal indicate? (Two dumbbells) ^t10q70

DE · FR

Ground signal:

]

Two dumbbells -- signal indicating that landings and takeoffs are to be made on runways only, but that other maneuvers (taxiing) may be carried out outside the runways and taxiways.

• A) Landing and takeoff on runways only. Other manoeuvres may however be conducted outside the runways and taxiways.
• B) Landing, takeoff and taxiing on runways and taxiways only.
• C) Caution during takeoff or landing.
• D) Landing and takeoff on hard-surfaced runways only.

Answer

A)

Explanation

The dumbbell signal displayed in the signals area means that landings and take-offs must be made on runways only, but other manoeuvres such as taxiing, turning, and positioning may be conducted outside the runways and taxiways on the grass or other surfaces.

• Option B is too restrictive because it confines all manoeuvres to runways and taxiways (that would be the dumbbell with a cross bar).
• Option C describes a different signal entirely.
• Option D introduces "hard-surfaced" which is not what this signal communicates.

Q71: When two aircraft approach each other head-on, what manoeuvre must both pilots perform? ^t10q71

DE · FR

• A) Each turns left.
• B) One turns right, the other turns left.
• C) One flies straight ahead while the other turns right.
• D) Each turns right.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per SERA.3210(c) and ICAO Annex 2, when two aircraft are on head-on or nearly head-on courses, both pilots must alter heading to the right, each passing the other on their left side. This mirrors road traffic conventions and eliminates ambiguity.

• Option A (both turn left) would cause the aircraft to pass on the wrong side and could lead to collision.
• Option B (one left, one right) is uncoordinated and dangerous.
• Option C (one straight, one turns) is incorrect because both pilots must take evasive action.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q72: Which of the following airspaces are not classified as controlled airspace? ^t10q72

DE · FR

• A) Class G airspace.
• B) Class G and E airspaces.
• C) Class C airspace.
• D) Class G, E and D airspaces.

Answer

B)

Explanation

In Switzerland, Classes G and E are not classified as controlled airspace for VFR traffic purposes. Class G is uncontrolled airspace, and Class E, while technically controlled for IFR flights, provides no ATC separation for VFR traffic.

• Option A is incomplete because it lists only Class G and omits Class E.
• Option C is wrong because Class C is definitely controlled airspace.
• Option D incorrectly includes Class D, which is a controlled airspace requiring ATC clearance.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; IFR = Instrument Flight Rules; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q73: To which authority has the Federal Council delegated aviation oversight in Switzerland? ^t10q73

DE · FR

• A) The Swiss air navigation services (Skyguide).
• B) The Aero-Club of Switzerland.
• C) The Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications (DETEC).
• D) The cantonal police forces.

Answer

C)

Explanation

The Federal Council delegates aviation oversight to DETEC (Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications), which in turn delegates operational supervision to FOCA (Federal Office of Civil Aviation, known as BAZL/OFAC).

• Option A (Skyguide) provides air navigation services but is not the regulatory oversight authority.
• Option B (Aero-Club) is a private association, not a government supervisory body.
• Option D (cantonal police) have no aviation oversight role.

Q74: For which of the following flights is filing a flight plan mandatory? ^t10q74

DE · FR

• A) For a VFR flight over the Alps, Pre-Alps or Jura.
• B) For a VFR flight that requires the use of air traffic control services.
• C) For a VFR flight covering more than 300 km without a stop.
• D) For a VFR flight in Class E airspace.

Answer

B)

Explanation

In Switzerland, a VFR flight plan is mandatory when the flight requires the use of air traffic control services, such as transiting a CTR, TMA, or other controlled airspace where ATC interaction is needed.

• Option A (Alps/Pre-Alps/Jura) does not automatically require a flight plan.
• Option C (300 km distance) is not a Swiss flight plan trigger.
• Option D (Class E airspace) is incorrect because VFR flights in Class E do not require ATC services or a flight plan.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; CTR = Control Zone; TMA = Terminal Manoeuvring Area; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q75: What minimum height must be maintained above densely populated areas during VFR flight? ^t10q75

DE · FR

• A) At least 300 m above the ground.
• B) At least 150 m above the highest obstacle within a 300 m radius of the aircraft.
• C) At least 150 m above the ground.
• D) At least 450 m above the ground.

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per SERA.5005 and ICAO Annex 2, the minimum height over densely populated areas is 150 m (approximately 500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a 300 m radius of the aircraft. This obstacle-clearance-based rule ensures safe separation from structures and terrain.

• Option A (300 m AGL) does not account for obstacles.
• Option C (150 m AGL) ignores the obstacle clearance requirement.
• Option D (450 m AGL) is not the standard minimum height specified in SERA.

Key Terms

AGL = Above Ground Level; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q76: Among the aircraft listed below, which have priority for landing and takeoff? ^t10q76

DE · FR

• A) Aircraft manoeuvring on the ground.
• B) Aircraft arriving from another aerodrome that are in the aerodrome circuit.
• C) Aircraft on final approach.
• D) Aircraft that have received an ATC clearance to taxi.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 2 and SERA.3210, aircraft on final approach or landing always have priority over all other aircraft in flight or manoeuvring on the ground. This rule exists because aircraft on final approach have limited ability to manoeuvre and are in the most critical phase of flight.

• Option A (ground manoeuvring aircraft) must yield to landing traffic.
• Option B (aircraft in the circuit) have lower priority than those on final.
• Option D (aircraft with taxi clearance) must also give way to landing aircraft.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q77: What does this signal indicate? ^t10q77

DE · FR

]

• A) All runways at this aerodrome are closed.
• B) Glider flying in progress at this aerodrome.
• C) Only hard-surface runways are to be used for landing and takeoff.
• D) Takeoff and landing only on runways; other manoeuvres are not restricted to the use of runways and taxiways.

Answer

B)

Explanation

The signal shown indicates that glider flying is in progress at the aerodrome. This is a standard ICAO ground signal placed in the signals area to warn arriving and overflying aircraft that gliders may be operating in the vicinity, including tow-launching and soaring.

• Option A (all runways closed) uses a different signal.

• Option C (hard-surface runways only) is not what this signal communicates.

• Option D describes the dumbbell signal, which is a different ground marking entirely.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q78: Who has the responsibility for ensuring that the required documents are carried on board the aircraft? ^t10q78

DE · FR

• A) The operator of the air transport undertaking (Operator).
• B) The owner of the aircraft.
• C) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft.
• D) The operator of the aircraft.

Answer

C)

Explanation

The pilot-in-command (PIC) is responsible for ensuring that all required documents are carried on board the aircraft before flight. This is established in ICAO Annex 2 and EASA/Swiss aviation regulations. The PIC must personally verify document compliance as part of pre-flight preparation.

• Option A (operator of air transport undertaking) and Option D (operator) have organisational responsibilities but the direct duty falls on the PIC.
• Option B (owner) may not be involved in the flight operation at all.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; PIC = Pilot in Command

Q79: Which of the following instructions regarding runway direction in use takes precedence? ^t10q79

DE · FR

• A) The wind sock.
• B) The landing T.
• C) The ATC instruction transmitted by radio from the control tower.
• D) The two digits displayed vertically on the control tower.

Answer

C)

Explanation

ATC radio instructions from the control tower take the highest precedence over all visual indicators when determining the runway direction in use. ATC has the most current and comprehensive situational awareness and may assign a runway that differs from what the windsock or landing T suggests.

• Option A (windsock) indicates wind direction but does not override ATC.
• Option B (landing T) is a visual indicator subordinate to ATC instructions.
• Option D (tower digits) provides general runway information but is superseded by direct ATC radio instructions.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control

Q80: In the event of a radio failure, what code must be set on the transponder? ^t10q80

DE · FR

• A) 7000
• B) 7500
• C) 7700
• D) 7600

Answer

D)

Explanation

Transponder code 7600 is the internationally standardised squawk for radio communication failure. Setting this code immediately alerts ATC that the pilot has lost radio contact and triggers loss-of-communications procedures.

• Option A (7000) is the standard European VFR conspicuity code and does not indicate any emergency.
• Option B (7500) is reserved for unlawful interference (hijacking).
• Option C (7700) is the general emergency code, not specifically for radio failure.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q81: Is it permitted to deviate from the rules of the air applicable to aircraft? ^t10q81

DE · FR

• A) Yes, but only in Class G airspace.
• B) No, under no circumstances.
• C) Yes, but only for safety reasons.
• D) Yes, absolutely.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 2 and SERA, deviation from the rules of the air is permitted only when necessary for safety reasons and only to the extent strictly required to address the safety concern. This is the sole legal exception.

• Option A is wrong because the exception is not limited to any specific airspace class.
• Option B is wrong because safety-driven deviations are permitted.
• Option D is wrong because unrestricted deviation is never allowed -- the safety justification must exist.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q82: What are the minimum VMC values in Class E airspace at 2100 m AMSL? Visibility - Cloud clearance: Vertical / Horizontal ^t10q82

DE · FR

• A) 1.5 km / 50 m / 100 m
• B) 8.0 km / 100 m / 300 m
• C) 5.0 km / 300 m / 1500 m
• D) 8.0 km / 300 m / 1500 m

Answer

D)

Explanation

At 2100 m AMSL (approximately 6900 ft), which is well above 3000 ft AMSL and 1000 ft AGL, the SERA.5001 VMC minima in Class E airspace are: 8 km visibility, 300 m vertical cloud clearance, and 1500 m horizontal cloud clearance.

• Option A describes values for low-altitude uncontrolled airspace, far below the required minima.
• Option B has incorrect vertical and horizontal clearance values.
• Option C uses 5 km visibility, which does not match the Class E requirement at this altitude.

Key Terms

AGL = Above Ground Level; AMSL = Above Mean Sea Level; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q83: By what time at the latest must a daytime VFR flight be completed? ^t10q83

DE · FR

• A) 30 minutes before the end of civil twilight.
• B) At the beginning of civil twilight.
• C) At sunset.
• D) At the end of civil twilight.

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Switzerland, a daytime VFR flight must be completed no later than sunset. Flying after sunset requires either a night flight qualification or special authorisation.

• Option A (30 minutes before end of civil twilight) is earlier than required.
• Option B (beginning of civil twilight) is ambiguous and does not correspond to the Swiss rule.
• Option D (end of civil twilight) is too late -- while "day" in aviation extends to the end of civil twilight, Swiss VFR completion requirements use sunset as the cut-off.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q84: Are you allowed to use the aircraft radio to communicate with ATC without holding the radiotelephony rating extension? ^t10q84

DE · FR

• A) Yes, provided other radio communications are not disrupted.
• B) No.
• C) Yes.
• D) Yes, provided I have sufficient command of phraseology.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under Swiss regulations, a pilot may use the aircraft radio to communicate with ATC without holding the specific radiotelephony extension, in airspaces where radio communication is required. The radiotelephony qualification is needed for certain controlled airspaces but basic radio use for ATC communication is permitted.

• Option A adds an unnecessary condition about not disrupting other communications.

• Option B is incorrect because the prohibition is not absolute.

• Option D adds a phraseology condition that, while good practice, is not the regulatory requirement.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control

Q85: Which type of flights may be conducted below the prescribed minimum heights without specific FOCA authorization, to the extent necessary? ^t10q85

DE · FR

• A) Mountain flights.
• B) Aerobatic flights.
• C) Aerial photography flights.
• D) Search and rescue flights.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Search and rescue (SAR) flights are permitted below prescribed minimum heights without special FOCA authorisation, to the extent operationally necessary to accomplish the rescue mission. The urgency and life-saving nature of SAR operations justifies this exemption.

• Option A (mountain flights), Option B (aerobatic flights), and Option C (aerial photography flights) all require specific authorisation to operate below minimum heights.

Q86: Is it permitted to cross an airway at FL 115 under VFR when visibility is 5 km? ^t10q86

DE · FR

• A) Yes, but only if it is a special VFR flight (SVFR).
• B) No.
• C) Yes, in Class E airspace.
• D) Yes, but only if it is a controlled VFR flight (CVFR).

Answer

B)

Explanation

At FL 115 (above FL 100), the minimum VFR visibility required is 8 km. With only 5 km visibility, the VMC minima are not met, and VFR flight through an airway is not permitted regardless of airspace class or flight type.

• Option A (SVFR) is not applicable at flight levels -- SVFR is only authorised within CTRs.

• Option C is wrong because the visibility requirement applies in all airspace at this altitude.

• Option D (CVFR) does not waive the VMC visibility minima.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q87: Are formation flights allowed? ^t10q87

DE · FR

• A) Yes, but only with authorisation from the Federal Office of Civil Aviation.
• B) Yes, but only outside controlled airspace.
• C) Yes, provided the pilots-in-command have coordinated beforehand.
• D) Yes, but only if the pilots-in-command are in permanent radio contact with each other.

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Switzerland, formation flights are permitted provided the pilots-in-command have coordinated beforehand, agreeing on the formation procedures, positions, and responsibilities. No special FOCA authorisation is needed.

• Option A is wrong because FOCA authorisation is not required.
• Option B is incorrect because formation flights are not restricted to uncontrolled airspace.
• Option D is wrong because permanent radio contact, while useful, is not a regulatory requirement for formation flying.

Q88: What does this signal mean? ^t10q88

DE · FR

]

• A) Caution during approach and landing.
• B) This signal applies only to powered aircraft.
• C) The pilot may choose the landing direction.
• D) Landing prohibited.

Answer

D)

Explanation

A red square with two white diagonal crosses (St. Andrew's crosses) is the standard ICAO ground signal meaning "landing prohibited." It is placed in the signal square to warn all aircraft that the aerodrome is closed to landing operations.

• Option A (caution during approach) is a different signal.

• Option B is wrong because the signal applies to all aircraft, not just powered ones.

• Option C is wrong because the signal prohibits landing entirely rather than allowing direction choice.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q89: Can a Flight Information Zone (FIZ) be transited without any further formality? ^t10q89

DE · FR

• A) Only with the authorisation of the Flight Information Service (FIS) and if the pilot is qualified to use radiotelephony in English.
• B) No, it is strictly prohibited for VFR flights.
• C) Only if permanent contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained. Otherwise, the rules of the airspace class in which the FIZ is located apply.
• D) Yes.

Answer

C)

Explanation

A FIZ (Flight Information Zone) may be transited provided permanent radio contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained. If radio contact cannot be established, the rules of the underlying airspace class apply.

• Option A incorrectly requires FIS authorisation and English proficiency, which are not the actual requirements.
• Option B is wrong because transit is not prohibited -- it is permitted under conditions.
• Option D is wrong because transit is not unconditional; maintaining AFIS contact is required.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q90: Which event qualifies as an aviation accident? ^t10q90

DE · FR

• A) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which at least one person was killed or seriously injured.
• B) Only the crash of an aircraft or helicopter.
• C) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which a person was killed or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustained damage notably affecting its structural strength, performance or flight characteristics.
• D) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft requiring costly repairs.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 13, an aviation accident includes any event related to aircraft operation in which a person was killed or seriously injured, OR the aircraft sustained significant structural damage affecting its structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics. Both criteria independently qualify as an accident.

• Option A is incomplete because it covers only personal injury, omitting significant aircraft damage.
• Option B is too narrow -- an accident is not limited to crashes.
• Option D is wrong because costly repairs alone do not define an accident; the damage must significantly affect structural integrity or flight characteristics.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q91: Are observed or received signals binding for the glider pilot? ^t10q91

DE · FR

• A) Yes, but only signals placed on the ground, not light signals.
• B) No.
• C) Yes.
• D) Yes, except light signals for aircraft on the ground.

Answer

C)

Explanation

All observed or received signals -- whether ground signals, light signals, or radio signals -- are binding for the glider pilot. ICAO Annex 2 makes no distinction between signal types; compliance with all visual and radio signals is mandatory for all aircraft, including gliders.

• Option A is wrong because light signals are equally binding.
• Option B is wrong because signals are mandatory, not optional.
• Option D incorrectly excludes light signals for grounded aircraft, which are also binding.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q92: What is the minimum flight height above densely populated areas and locations where large public gatherings occur? ^t10q92

DE · FR

• A) 300 m AGL.
• B) 150 m AGL above the highest obstacle within a 600 m radius of the aircraft.
• C) 600 m AGL.
• D) There is no specific height figure; however, one must fly in a manner that allows reaching clear terrain suitable for a risk-free landing at any time.

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per SERA.5005, the minimum flight height over densely populated areas and large public gatherings is 150 m (500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a 600 m radius of the aircraft. This obstacle-based rule ensures adequate clearance from structures and protects people on the ground.

• Option A (300 m AGL) does not account for obstacle clearance.

• Option C (600 m AGL) is higher than the actual requirement.

• Option D describes a general safety principle but not the specific regulatory minimum.

Key Terms

AGL = Above Ground Level

Q93: In which airspace classes may VFR flights be conducted in Switzerland without needing air traffic control services? ^t10q93

DE · FR

• A) In Class C, D, E and G airspaces.
• B) Only in Class G airspace.
• C) In Class E and G airspaces.
• D) In Class A and B airspaces.

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Switzerland, VFR flights may be conducted without ATC services in Class E and Class G airspace. Class E is controlled for IFR but does not require ATC interaction for VFR flights; Class G is entirely uncontrolled.

• Option A incorrectly includes Classes C and D, which require ATC clearance.
• Option B is too restrictive because Class E also permits VFR without ATC.
• Option D is wrong because Classes A and B either prohibit VFR or require ATC clearance.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; IFR = Instrument Flight Rules; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q94: What does this signal indicate? ^t10q94

DE · FR

]

• A) The pilot may choose the landing direction.
• B) Caution during approach and landing.
• C) This signal applies only to powered aircraft.
• D) Landing prohibited.

Answer

B)

Explanation

The signal shown indicates caution during approach and landing, warning pilots to exercise extra care due to obstacles, poor surface conditions, or other hazards at the aerodrome. This is a standard ICAO ground signal placed in the signals area.

• Option A is wrong because the signal does not indicate free choice of landing direction.
• Option C is wrong because the signal applies to all aircraft types, not just powered aircraft.
• Option D describes a different signal (red square with white diagonal crosses).

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q95: In which document must technical deficiencies found during aircraft operation be recorded? ^t10q95

DE · FR

• A) In the maintenance manual.
• B) In the journey log (aircraft logbook).
• C) In the aircraft flight manual.
• D) In the operations manual.

Answer

B)

Explanation

Technical deficiencies discovered during aircraft operation must be recorded in the journey log (aircraft logbook/tech log). This is the official document tracking the aircraft's technical status and operational history, ensuring maintenance organisations are informed of defects requiring attention.

• Option A (maintenance manual) contains procedures, not deficiency records.
• Option C (aircraft flight manual) describes operating limitations and procedures.
• Option D (operations manual) covers organisational procedures, not individual aircraft defect tracking.

Q96: How is the use of cameras regulated at the international level? ^t10q96

DE · FR

• A) Use is generally prohibited.
• B) Each State is free to prohibit or regulate their use over its territory.
• C) Use is generally permitted.
• D) Private use is generally permitted; commercial photography is subject to authorisation.

Answer

B)

Explanation

At the international level, there is no uniform ICAO rule on the use of cameras from aircraft. Each State is free to prohibit or regulate their use over its territory according to its own national laws, which may vary based on security, privacy, or military considerations.

• Option A is wrong because there is no blanket international prohibition.
• Option C is wrong because there is no blanket international permission either.
• Option D incorrectly distinguishes between private and commercial use at the international level, which is a national-level distinction.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q97: What do white or other visible coloured signals placed horizontally on a runway signify? ^t10q97

DE · FR

• A) They mark the landing area in use.
• B) Glider flying in progress at this aerodrome.
• C) The delineated runway portion is not usable.
• D) Caution during approach and landing.

Answer

C)

Explanation

White or other visible coloured signals placed horizontally on a runway indicate that the marked portion of the runway is not usable -- it may be closed, under construction, or degraded. Pilots must avoid landing on or rolling over these marked areas.

• Option A is wrong because these signals indicate closure, not active use.
• Option B describes a different ground signal (the glider operations symbol).
• Option D is a general caution signal displayed in the signals area, not on the runway itself.

Q98: How should flight time be recorded when two pilots fly together? ^t10q98

DE · FR

• A) Each pilot logs only the flight time during which they were actually flying.
• B) The pilot who made the landing may log the total flight time; the other only the time during which they were actually flying.
• C) Each pilot may log the total flight time, as both hold a licence.
• D) Each pilot logs half the time.

Answer

C)

Explanation

When two licensed pilots fly together, each pilot may log the total flight time in their personal logbook, since both are qualified licence holders participating in the flight. This is in accordance with Swiss and ICAO logging rules.

• Option A is unnecessarily restrictive and does not reflect the regulation.
• Option B creates an arbitrary distinction based on who performed the landing.
• Option D (splitting time in half) has no basis in aviation regulations.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q99: When one aircraft overtakes another in flight, how must it give way? ^t10q99

DE · FR

• A) Turn upward.
• B) Turn left.
• C) Turn downward.
• D) Turn right.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per SERA.3210 and ICAO Annex 2, an overtaking aircraft must give way by altering course to the right, passing the slower aircraft on its right side. The overtaking aircraft bears full responsibility for maintaining safe separation throughout the manoeuvre.

• Option A (turn upward) and Option C (turn downward) are not the prescribed overtaking procedure.
• Option B (turn left) is incorrect -- the standard rule requires turning right to overtake.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q100: For which domestic Swiss flights is a flight plan required? ^t10q100

DE · FR

• A) For a VFR flight in controlled airspace.
• B) For a VFR flight over the Alps.
• C) For a VFR flight that requires the use of air traffic control services.
• D) For a VFR flight covering more than 300 km without a stop.

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Switzerland, a domestic VFR flight plan is required when the flight needs to use air traffic control services, such as when transiting a CTR or TMA where ATC interaction is mandatory.

• Option A is too broad because not all controlled airspace requires a flight plan (e.g., Class E).
• Option B (Alps) does not automatically trigger a flight plan requirement.
• Option D (300 km distance) is not a Swiss flight plan criterion.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; CTR = Control Zone; TMA = Terminal Manoeuvring Area; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q101: During a VFR flight, who is responsible for collision avoidance? ^t10q101

DE · FR

• A) The second pilot when two pilots are on board.
• B) The flight information service.
• C) The air traffic control service.
• D) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft.

Answer

D)

Explanation

During VFR flight, the pilot-in-command (PIC) bears full responsibility for collision avoidance using the see-and-avoid principle. This applies regardless of whether ATC or FIS provides traffic information.

• Option A is wrong because responsibility always lies with the PIC, not the second pilot.
• Option B (FIS) provides information but has no separation responsibility.
• Option C (ATC) may provide traffic information but VFR collision avoidance remains the PIC's responsibility.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; PIC = Pilot in Command; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q102: Which event qualifies as an aviation accident? ^t10q102

DE · FR

• A) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which at least one person was killed or seriously injured.
• B) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft requiring costly repairs.
• C) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which a person was killed or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustained damage notably affecting its structural strength, performance or flight characteristics.
• D) Only the crash of an aircraft.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under ICAO Annex 13, an aviation accident is an event related to aircraft operation where a person was killed or seriously injured, OR the aircraft sustained damage significantly affecting its structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics. Both conditions independently constitute an accident.

• Option A is incomplete because it only mentions personal injury.
• Option B is wrong because cost alone does not define an accident.
• Option D is too narrow -- many accidents involve damage short of a complete crash.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q103: Which of the following exceptions to the right-of-way rules for converging routes is incorrect? ^t10q103

DE · FR

• A) Airships give way to gliders.
• B) Aircraft give way to aircraft that are visibly towing other aircraft or objects.
• C) Gliders give way to aircraft that are towing.
• D) Gliders and motor gliders give way to free balloons.

Answer

C)

Explanation

• Option C is the incorrect statement.
• Under SERA.3210, aircraft towing other aircraft or objects receive right-of-way priority -- meaning other aircraft (including gliders) do NOT have to give way to towing aircraft; rather, all aircraft must give way TO towing aircraft.
• Option C reverses this: it claims gliders give way to towing aircraft, but the actual rule is that towing aircraft give way to gliders (gliders have higher priority).
• Options A, B, and D all correctly state valid right-of-way exceptions.

Q104: What minimum meteorological conditions are required to take off or land at an aerodrome in a CTR without Special VFR authorization? ^t10q104

DE · FR

• A) Ground visibility 5 km, ceiling 450 m/GND.
• B) Ground visibility 8 km, ceiling 450 m/GND.
• C) Ground visibility 1.5 km, ceiling 300 m/GND.
• D) Ground visibility 5 km, ceiling 150 m/GND.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under Swiss regulations, the minimum meteorological conditions for take-off or landing at an aerodrome within a CTR without requiring Special VFR authorisation are: ground visibility of 1.5 km and a ceiling of 300 m above ground level. These are the basic SVFR minima in Switzerland.

• Option A and Option B use higher visibility values than required.
• Option D uses an insufficient ceiling of 150 m.
• These values are specific to Swiss operations within CTRs.

Key Terms

CTR = Control Zone; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q105: For VFR flights in a terminal control area or control zone, how is the vertical position of an aircraft expressed below the transition altitude? ^t10q105

DE · FR

• A) As flight level.
• B) Either as altitude or height.
• C) As height.
• D) As altitude.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Below the transition altitude in a TMA or CTR, the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as altitude (height above mean sea level using the QNH altimeter setting). Flight levels are only used at or above the transition altitude.

• Option A (flight level) applies above the transition altitude, not below it.
• Option B (either altitude or height) is incorrect because the standard expression below transition altitude in controlled airspace is specifically altitude.
• Option C (height) is used for specific purposes like circuit height but is not the standard expression in TMAs/CTRs.

Key Terms

CTR = Control Zone; QNH = Pressure adjusted to mean sea level; TMA = Terminal Manoeuvring Area; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q106: In Switzerland, what is the minimum visibility required for VFR flight in Class G airspace without special conditions? ^t10q106

DE · FR

• A) 5 km.
• B) 8 km.
• C) 10 km.
• D) 1.5 km.

Answer

D)

Explanation

In Class G airspace in Switzerland, without special conditions and at low altitudes (below 3000 ft AMSL or within 1000 ft of the surface), the minimum VFR visibility is 1.5 km. This is the lowest visibility minimum in the SERA VMC table.

• Option A (5 km) applies in controlled airspace below FL100.
• Option B (8 km) applies at and above FL100.
• Option C (10 km) is not a standard SERA VFR visibility minimum.

Key Terms

AMSL = Above Mean Sea Level; FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q107: May a Flight Information Zone (FIZ) be transited without any additional formality? ^t10q107

DE · FR

• A) No, transit is not permitted under any circumstances for VFR flights.
• B) Yes.
• C) Yes, but only with the authorisation of the Flight Information Service (FIS) and only if the pilot is qualified to use radiotelephony in English.
• D) Only if permanent radio contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained. Otherwise, the rules of the airspace class in which the FIZ is located apply.

Answer

D)

Explanation

A FIZ may be transited by VFR flights, provided permanent radio contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained throughout the transit. If radio contact cannot be established, the pilot must follow the rules of the airspace class in which the FIZ is located.

• Option A is wrong because transit is not prohibited.
• Option B is wrong because transit is not unconditional -- AFIS contact is required.
• Option C incorrectly requires English-language radiotelephony qualification, which is not a specific FIZ transit requirement.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q108: Who is responsible for the regulatory maintenance of an aircraft? ^t10q108

DE · FR

• A) The maintenance organisation.
• B) The mechanic.
• C) The operator.
• D) The owner.

Answer

C)

Explanation

The operator is legally responsible for ensuring that regulatory maintenance of the aircraft is carried out in accordance with approved maintenance programmes. While the maintenance organisation (Option A) and mechanic (Option B) perform the physical work, the legal responsibility for ensuring maintenance compliance rests with the operator.

• Option D (owner) is not necessarily the operator -- for private aircraft the owner often acts as operator, but the regulatory responsibility is tied to the operator role specifically.

Q109: When two aircraft approach an aerodrome at the same time to land, which one has the right of way? ^t10q109

DE · FR

• A) The one flying higher.
• B) The faster one.
• C) The smaller one.
• D) The one flying lower.

Answer

D)

Explanation

When two aircraft approach an aerodrome simultaneously to land, the aircraft flying lower has right of way because it is in a more advanced and committed phase of the approach. The higher aircraft must give way by extending its circuit or going around.

• Option A (flying higher) is the opposite of the correct rule.
• Option B (faster) and Option C (smaller) are not criteria used in ICAO right-of-way rules for landing priority.
• Speed and size are irrelevant to this determination.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q110: What are the minimum VMC values in Class E airspace at 6500 ft (2000 m) AMSL? Visibility - Cloud clearance: vertically - horizontally ^t10q110

DE · FR

• A) 8.0 km - 300 m - 1500 m
• B) 1.5 km - 50 m - 100 m
• C) 5.0 km - 300 m - 1500 m
• D) 8.0 km - 100 m - 300 m

Answer

A)

Explanation

At 6500 ft (2000 m) AMSL in Class E airspace, which is above 3000 ft AMSL and above 1000 ft AGL, the SERA.5001 VMC minima are: 8 km visibility, 300 m vertical cloud clearance, and 1500 m horizontal cloud clearance.

• Option B describes values for very low-altitude uncontrolled airspace, far too low for this altitude.
• Option C uses 5 km visibility, which is insufficient for Class E at this altitude.
• Option D has the correct visibility but incorrect cloud clearance values (100 m and 300 m are too small).

Key Terms

AGL = Above Ground Level; AMSL = Above Mean Sea Level; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q111: What is the function of the signal square at an aerodrome? ^t10q111

DE · FR

• A) It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects
• B) Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance
• C) It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying aircraft
• D) It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed

Answer

C)

Explanation

The signal square (also called the signals area) is a designated area at an aerodrome where ground signals are displayed using symbols, panels, and markings to visually communicate aerodrome conditions to pilots flying overhead. This is particularly important for pilots who cannot receive radio communication.

• Option A (tow object area) describes a completely different facility.

• Option B is wrong because aircraft do not taxi to the signal square for light signals -- those come from the control tower.

• Option D describes an emergency vehicle staging area, not the signal square.

Q112: How are two parallel runways designated? ^t10q112

DE · FR

• A) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway remains unchanged
• B) The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1
• C) The left runway gets the suffix "-1", the right runway "-2"
• D) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R"

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, when two parallel runways exist, they are distinguished by adding suffixes: "L" (Left) for the left runway and "R" (Right) for the right runway, as seen from a pilot on final approach. Both runways must receive a suffix to avoid ambiguity.

• Option A is wrong because the right runway also needs a suffix ("R").
• Option B uses a non-standard method of incrementing the designator number.
• Option C uses dash-number notation that is not part of ICAO runway designation standards.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q113: Which runway designators are correct for two parallel runways? ^t10q113

DE · FR

• A) "24" and "25"
• B) "18" and "18-2"
• C) "26" and "26R"
• D) "06L" and "06R"

Answer

D)

Explanation

For two parallel runways, ICAO requires both to carry the L/R suffix with the same number, such as "06L" and "06R." This clearly identifies them as parallel runways on the same magnetic heading.

• Option A ("24" and "25") indicates two non-parallel runways on slightly different headings, not parallel runways.
• Option B ("18" and "18-2") uses non-standard dash notation.
• Option C ("26" and "26R") is incorrect because only one runway has a suffix -- both must have one (should be "26L" and "26R").

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q114: What does this sign at an aerodrome indicate? ^t10q114

DE · FR


• A) Landing prohibited for a longer period
• B) After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
• C) Glider flying is in progress
• D) Caution, manoeuvring area is poor

Answer

C)

Explanation

The figure shows the international ground signal for glider operations in progress at the aerodrome. This warns pilots overflying the aerodrome that gliders may be operating in the vicinity, including tow-launching and soaring.

• Option A (landing prohibited for a longer period) uses a different signal (typically a red cross).
• Option B (right-hand turns) would be indicated by a different signal in the signals area.
• Option D (poor manoeuvring area) is also communicated through a different ground marking.

Q115: What does "DETRESFA" signify? ^t10q115

DE · FR

• A) Rescue phase
• B) Alerting phase
• C) Distress phase
• D) Uncertainty phase

Answer

C)

Explanation

DETRESFA is the ICAO codeword for the distress phase, the most serious of the three emergency phases defined in ICAO Annex 12 and Annex 11. It is declared when an aircraft is believed to be in grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

• Option B (alerting phase) corresponds to the codeword ALERFA.
• Option D (uncertainty phase) corresponds to INCERFA.
• Option A (rescue phase) is not a defined ICAO emergency phase designation.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q116: Who provides the search and rescue service? ^t10q116

DE · FR

• A) Only civil organisations
• B) International approved organisations
• C) Both military and civil organisations
• D) Only military organisations

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 12, Search and Rescue (SAR) services are provided by both military and civil organisations, depending on national arrangements. Many countries combine military assets (helicopters, aircraft, ships) with civil emergency services for effective SAR coverage.

• Option A is wrong because military organisations play a major role in SAR operations worldwide.
• Option B incorrectly requires international approval, which is not how SAR is organised.
• Option D is wrong because civil organisations are also involved in SAR.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q117: In the context of aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three categories of aircraft occurrences? ^t10q117

DE · FR

• A) Event Serious event Accident
• B) Incident Serious incident Accident
• C) Happening Event Serious event
• D) Event Crash Disaster

Answer

B)

Explanation

Under ICAO Annex 13 and EU Regulation 996/2010, aircraft occurrences are classified into three categories: incident (an occurrence that affects or could affect flight safety), serious incident (an incident where there was a high probability of an accident), and accident (an occurrence resulting in fatal/serious injury or substantial aircraft damage).

• Option A, Option C, and Option D all use non-standard terminology ("event," "happening," "crash," "disaster") not found in ICAO definitions.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q118: While slope soaring with the hill on your left, another glider approaches from the opposite direction at the same altitude. What should you do? ^t10q118

DE · FR

• A) Pull on the elevator and divert upward
• B) Divert to the right and expect the opposite glider to do the same
• C) Divert to the right
• D) Expect the opposite glider to divert

Answer

C)

Explanation

When slope soaring and encountering an oncoming glider, the pilot with the hill on their left must give way by turning right (away from the hill). In this scenario, the hill is on your left, so the approaching glider has the hill on their right, giving them right-of-way. You must divert to the right.

• Option A (pull up) is impractical and dangerous in slope soaring conditions.

• Option B is partially correct in the action but wrong to expect the other glider to also turn -- they have right-of-way.

• Option D is wrong because you are the one who must give way.

Q119: When circling in a thermal with other gliders, who determines the direction of turn? ^t10q119

DE · FR

• A) The glider at the highest altitude
• B) The glider with the greatest bank angle
• C) Circling is always to the left
• D) The glider that entered the thermal first

Answer

D)

Explanation

When joining a thermal already occupied by other gliders, the newly arriving pilot must circle in the same direction as the glider that first established the turn in that thermal. This convention ensures all gliders orbit in the same direction, preventing dangerous head-on conflicts within the thermal.

• Option A (highest glider) is wrong because altitude does not determine turn direction.

• Option B (greatest bank angle) is irrelevant to the rule.

• Option C is wrong because there is no fixed left-turn rule -- the first glider's choice establishes the direction.

Q120: Is it possible for a glider to enter airspace C? ^t10q120

DE · FR

• A) No
• B) Yes, but only with the transponder activated
• C) With restrictions, in case of reduced air traffic
• D) Yes, but only with approval of the respective ATC unit

Answer

D)

Explanation

Airspace Class C is controlled airspace where ATC clearance is mandatory for all flights, including VFR and gliders. A glider may enter Class C airspace only after obtaining an explicit clearance from the responsible ATC unit.

• Option A is wrong because entry is possible with proper ATC clearance.
• Option B is wrong because while a transponder may be required, it alone is not sufficient -- ATC clearance is the fundamental requirement.
• Option C is wrong because there is no rule allowing entry based on traffic density without clearance.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q121: What do longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions arranged symmetrically about the centreline of a runway indicate? ^t10q121

DE · FR

• A) A ground roll could be started from this position
• B) At this point the glide path of an ILS meets the runway
• C) Do not touch down behind them
• D) Do not touch down before them

Answer

D)

Explanation

Longitudinal stripes arranged symmetrically about the runway centreline are the threshold markings, indicating the beginning of the runway available for landing. Pilots must not touch down before these markings.

• Option A (ground roll start) confuses threshold markings with a different function.
• Option B (ILS glide path intersection) describes the touchdown zone, not the threshold.
• Option C (do not touch down behind) reverses the rule -- the restriction is about landing before them, not after.

Q122: How can a pilot in flight acknowledge a search and rescue signal on the ground? ^t10q122

DE · FR

• A) Deploy and retract the landing flaps multiple times
• B) Fly in a parabolic flight path multiple times
• C) Push the rudder in both directions multiple times
• D) Rock the wings

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 12, a pilot acknowledges a ground SAR signal by rocking the wings (waggling the wings laterally). This is an internationally recognised visual signal visible from the ground.

• Option A (flap cycling) is not a standard SAR acknowledgement signal.
• Option B (parabolic flight path) is not a defined signal.
• Option C (rudder inputs) would produce yawing motions that are difficult to see from the ground.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q123: An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a ^t10q123

DE · FR

• A) Rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
• B) Fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
• C) Rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the ground.
• D) Rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.

Answer

D)

Explanation

An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a rotating beacon installed at or near an airport to help pilots locate the aerodrome from the air, particularly at night or in reduced visibility.

• Option A incorrectly places it at the beginning of final approach rather than at the aerodrome itself.
• Option B states it is a fixed beacon, but ABNs rotate to increase visibility.
• Option C states it is visible from the ground, but its purpose is to be seen by pilots from the air.

Q124: What is the primary objective of an aircraft accident investigation? ^t10q124

DE · FR

• A) To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents
• B) To determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences
• C) To identify the causes and develop safety recommendations
• D) To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 13 and EU Regulation 996/2010, the sole objective of an aircraft accident investigation is to prevent future accidents by identifying causal and contributing factors and issuing safety recommendations. It is explicitly not a judicial or liability process.

• Option A (assisting prosecutors) is outside the investigation's mandate.
• Option B (determining guilt) contradicts the non-punitive nature of safety investigations.
• Option D (establishing liability for compensation) is a civil legal matter handled separately.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q125: What is the validity period of the Certificate of Airworthiness? ^t10q125

DE · FR

• A) 6 months
• B) 12 months
• C) 12 years
• D) Unlimited

Answer

D)

Explanation

A Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) issued under ICAO Annex 8 and EASA regulations has unlimited validity, provided the aircraft is maintained in accordance with approved programmes and the Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) is kept current. The CofA itself has no fixed expiry date.

• Option A (6 months) and Option B (12 months) may confuse the CofA with the ARC renewal period.
• Option C (12 years) is not a standard aviation validity period.

Key Terms

ARC = Airworthiness Review Certificate; EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q126: What does the abbreviation ARC stand for? ^t10q126

DE · FR

• A) Airspace Rulemaking Committee
• B) Airspace Restriction Criteria
• C) Airworthiness Recurring Control
• D) Airworthiness Review Certificate

Answer

D)

Explanation

ARC stands for Airworthiness Review Certificate, the document issued following a successful airworthiness review confirming that an aircraft meets applicable airworthiness requirements. It is valid for one year and must be renewed for continued operation.

• Option A (Airspace Rulemaking Committee), Option B (Airspace Restriction Criteria), and Option C (Airworthiness Recurring Control) are not recognised EASA or ICAO abbreviations.

Key Terms

ARC = Airworthiness Review Certificate; EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q127: The Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the state ^t10q127

DE · FR

• A) In which the aircraft is constructed.
• B) Of the residence of the owner.
• C) In which the aircraft is registered.
• D) In which the airworthiness review is done.

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under the Chicago Convention (ICAO Annex 7) and EASA regulations, the Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the State of Registry -- the country in which the aircraft is registered.

• Option A (country of construction) is the state of manufacture, not necessarily the registry.
• Option B (owner's residence) has no bearing on CofA issuance.
• Option D (where the review is done) may differ from the state of registry, as reviews can be performed abroad.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q128: What does the abbreviation SERA stand for? ^t10q128

DE · FR

• A) Standard European Routes of the Air
• B) Standardized European Rules of the Air
• C) Specialized Radar Approach
• D) Selective Radar Altimeter

Answer

B)

Explanation

SERA stands for Standardised European Rules of the Air, the EU regulation (Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012) that harmonises rules of the air across EASA member states. It covers right-of-way, VMC minima, altimeter settings, signals, and related procedures.

• Option A (routes), Option C (radar approach), and Option D (radar altimeter) are invented terms not used in aviation regulation.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q129: What does the abbreviation TRA stand for? ^t10q129

DE · FR

• A) Temporary Radar Routing Area
• B) Terminal Area
• C) Transponder Area
• D) Temporary Reserved Airspace

Answer

D)

Explanation

TRA stands for Temporary Reserved Airspace, an airspace of defined dimensions temporarily reserved for specific uses such as military exercises or parachute operations. Other aircraft may not enter without permission during activation.

• Option A (Temporary Radar Routing Area), Option B (Terminal Area), and Option C (Transponder Area) are not standard ICAO or EASA designations for this abbreviation.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q130: What does an area marked as TMZ signify? ^t10q130

DE · FR

• A) Traffic Management Zone
• B) Transportation Management Zone
• C) Touring Motorglider Zone
• D) Transponder Mandatory Zone

Answer

D)

Explanation

TMZ stands for Transponder Mandatory Zone, an airspace designation requiring all aircraft to be equipped with and operate a functioning transponder when flying within the zone. This enables radar identification and collision avoidance systems to track traffic.

• Option A (Traffic Management Zone), Option B (Transportation Management Zone), and Option C (Touring Motorglider Zone) are not recognised aviation terms.

Q131: A flight is categorised as a visual flight when the ^t10q131

DE · FR

• A) Visibility in flight exceeds 8 km.
• B) Flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions.
• C) Flight is conducted under visual flight rules.
• D) Visibility in flight exceeds 5 km.

Answer

C)

Explanation

A visual flight (VFR flight) is defined as a flight conducted in accordance with Visual Flight Rules as specified in ICAO Annex 2 and SERA. The classification is regulatory, not meteorological.

• Option A (8 km visibility) and Option D (5 km visibility) cite specific VMC minimums but do not define VFR flight.
• Option B (flight in VMC) describes the weather conditions required for VFR but is not itself the definition -- a flight in VMC could still be conducted under IFR.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; IFR = Instrument Flight Rules; VFR = Visual Flight Rules; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q132: What does the abbreviation VMC stand for? ^t10q132

DE · FR

• A) Visual flight rules
• B) Visual meteorological conditions
• C) Instrument flight conditions
• D) Variable meteorological conditions

Answer

B)

Explanation

VMC stands for Visual Meteorological Conditions -- the minimum visibility and cloud clearance values that must be met for VFR flight to be conducted. VMC minima vary by airspace class and altitude.

• Option A (Visual Flight Rules) is VFR, a different abbreviation.
• Option C (Instrument Flight Conditions) effectively describes IMC.
• Option D (Variable Meteorological Conditions) is not a recognised aviation term.

Key Terms

IMC = Instrument Meteorological Conditions; VFR = Visual Flight Rules; VMC = Visual Meteorological Conditions

Q133: In airspace E, what is the minimum flight visibility for a VFR aircraft at FL75? ^t10q133

DE · FR

• A) 3000 m
• B) 8000 m
• C) 1500 m
• D) 5000 m

Answer

D)

Explanation

In Class E airspace below FL100, VFR flights require a minimum visibility of 5000 m (5 km) per SERA.5001. FL75 is below FL100, so the 5 km rule applies.

• Option A (3000 m) is not a standard VFR minimum at this altitude.
• Option B (8000 m) applies at and above FL100.
• Option C (1500 m) applies only in low-altitude uncontrolled airspace.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q134: In airspace C, what is the minimum flight visibility for a VFR aircraft at FL110? ^t10q134

DE · FR

• A) 5000 m
• B) 1500 m
• C) 3000 m
• D) 8000 m

Answer

D)

Explanation

In controlled airspace Class C at and above FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8000 m (8 km) per SERA. FL110 is above FL100, so the 8 km minimum applies.

• Option A (5000 m) applies below FL100.
• Option B (1500 m) applies in low-altitude uncontrolled airspace.
• Option C (3000 m) is not a standard SERA minimum at this altitude.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q135: In airspace C, what is the minimum flight visibility for a VFR aircraft at FL125? ^t10q135

DE · FR

• A) 1500 m
• B) 3000 m
• C) 5000 m
• D) 8000 m

Answer

D)

Explanation

In airspace Class C at and above FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8000 m (8 km). FL125 is well above FL100, confirming the 8 km minimum applies.

• Option A (1500 m) applies to low-altitude uncontrolled airspace.
• Option B (3000 m) is not a standard SERA VFR minimum.
• Option C (5000 m) applies below FL100 in controlled airspace.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q136: What are the minimum cloud clearance requirements for a VFR flight in airspace B? ^t10q136

DE · FR

• A) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft
• B) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m
• C) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m
• D) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m

Answer

D)

Explanation

In ICAO airspace Class B, the cloud separation minima for VFR flights are 1500 m horizontally and 300 m (approximately 1000 ft) vertically from cloud.

• Option A uses only 1000 m horizontal distance (insufficient).

• Option B also uses only 1000 m horizontal.

• Option C uses 1000 m vertical, which is far too large -- the correct vertical minimum is 300 m.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q137: In airspace C below FL 100, what is the minimum flight visibility for VFR operations? ^t10q137

DE · FR

• A) 10 km
• B) 8 km
• C) 5 km
• D) 1.5 km

Answer

C)

Explanation

In airspace Class C below FL100, the SERA-prescribed minimum VFR flight visibility is 5 km (5000 m).

• Option A (10 km) is not a standard SERA minimum.
• Option B (8 km) applies at and above FL100 in Class C.
• Option D (1.5 km) applies only in low-altitude uncontrolled airspace or special VFR situations.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q138: In airspace C at and above FL 100, what is the minimum flight visibility for VFR operations? ^t10q138

DE · FR

• A) 5 km
• B) 1.5 km
• C) 8 km
• D) 10 km

Answer

C)

Explanation

In airspace Class C at and above FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility required by SERA is 8 km (8000 m). This higher minimum reflects the faster closing speeds at higher altitudes.

• Option A (5 km) is the below-FL100 Class C minimum.
• Option B (1.5 km) applies only in low-altitude uncontrolled airspace.
• Option D (10 km) is not a standard SERA VFR minimum.

Key Terms

FL = Flight Level; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q139: How is the term "ceiling" defined? ^t10q139

DE · FR

• A) Altitude of the base of the lowest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.
• B) Height of the base of the lowest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.
• C) Height of the base of the highest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.
• D) Height of the base of the lowest cloud layer covering more than half the sky below 10000 ft.

Answer

B)

Explanation

Ceiling is the height (referenced to the surface, not MSL) of the base of the lowest layer of cloud or obscuring phenomena covering more than half the sky (BKN or OVC, more than 4 oktas) below 20,000 ft.

• Option A uses "altitude" (MSL reference) instead of "height" (surface reference).
• Option C refers to the "highest" rather than "lowest" cloud layer.
• Option D limits the threshold to 10,000 ft instead of the correct 20,000 ft.

Key Terms

MSL = Mean Sea Level

Q140: Regarding separation in airspace E, which statement is accurate? ^t10q140

DE · FR

• A) VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic
• B) VFR traffic receives no separation from any traffic
• C) IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic
• D) VFR traffic is separated from both VFR and IFR traffic

Answer

B)

Explanation

In airspace Class E, ATC provides separation only between IFR flights. VFR flights receive no separation service whatsoever -- neither from IFR traffic nor from other VFR traffic. VFR pilots rely entirely on see-and-avoid.

• Option A incorrectly states VFR receives separation from IFR.
• Option C reverses the actual separation provision.
• Option D incorrectly claims full separation for VFR traffic.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control; IFR = Instrument Flight Rules; VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Q141: What kind of information is contained in the AD section of the AIP? ^t10q141

DE · FR

• A) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
• B) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts
• C) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces.
• D) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods

Answer

B)

Explanation

The AD (Aerodromes) section of the AIP contains information about individual aerodromes: their classification, aerodrome charts, approach charts, taxi charts, runway data, and operating information.

• Option A describes GEN content (map symbols, nav aids, fees).
• Option C describes ENR content (airspace warnings, routes, restricted areas).
• Option D contains a mix of items from different sections that do not correspond to the AD section.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication

Q142: How is "aerodrome elevation" defined? ^t10q142

DE · FR

• A) The lowest point of the landing area.
• B) The average value of the height of the manoeuvring area.
• C) The highest point of the apron.
• D) The highest point of the landing area.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, aerodrome elevation is the elevation of the highest point of the landing area. This is the critical reference point for QFE calculations and obstacle clearance.

• Option A (lowest point) would understate the elevation relevant to safe operations.
• Option B (average of manoeuvring area) does not reflect the critical highest-point definition.
• Option C (highest point of the apron) refers to the wrong area -- the apron is used for parking, not landing.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; QFE = Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation

Q143: How is the term "runway" defined? ^t10q143

DE · FR

• A) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters.
• B) Rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
• C) Round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
• D) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, a runway is a rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

• Option A specifies helicopters only (helicopter landing areas are called helipads or FATO).

• Option B includes water aerodromes, but runways are specific to land aerodromes.

• Option C describes a round shape, which is incorrect -- runways are rectangular by definition.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q144: What does DETRESFA mean? ^t10q144

DE · FR

• A) Uncertainty phase
• B) Rescue phase
• C) Alerting phase
• D) Distress phase

Answer

D)

Explanation

DETRESFA is the ICAO codeword for the distress phase, the highest of three emergency phases indicating an aircraft is believed to be in grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. The three ICAO emergency phases are: INCERFA (uncertainty), ALERFA (alerting), and DETRESFA (distress).

• Option A is INCERFA.
• Option B ("rescue phase") is not a defined ICAO emergency phase.
• Option C is ALERFA.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization