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Air Law

Q1: An SPL or LAPL(S) licence holder has logged 9 winch launches, 4 aero-tow launches and 2 bungee launches over the past 24 months. Which launch methods is the pilot permitted to use as PIC today? ^t10q1

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under Part-SFCL, a pilot must have completed at least 5 launches using a given method within the preceding 24 months to act as PIC with that method. Here the pilot has 9 winch launches (meets the threshold) and 2 bungee launches (also meets the threshold, as the minimum for bungee is lower). However, with only 4 aero-tow launches the pilot falls short of the required 5, so aero-tow is not permitted.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 6 and EU Regulation 965/2012, international flights require the Certificate of Airworthiness (b), Airworthiness Review Certificate (c), EASA Form-1 release document (d), the journey log (e), crew licences and medical certificates (f), and the technical logbook (g).

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

A restricted area (designated "R" on charts) may be entered subject to conditions published in the AIP, such as obtaining prior clearance from the responsible authority.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is the primary authoritative document containing permanent information about airspace structure, including the detailed conditions, activation times, and authority contacts for restricted areas in the ENR section.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

EASA regulations such as Part-SFCL and Part-MED are published as EU Implementing or Delegated Regulations under the Basic Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. EU Regulations are directly applicable law in all member states without requiring national ratification, making them immediately binding.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) has unlimited validity -- once issued, it remains valid as long as the aircraft meets its type design standards and is properly maintained. What requires periodic renewal (typically annually) is the Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC), which confirms continuing airworthiness has been verified.

Key Terms

ARC = Airworthiness Review Certificate ### Q7: What does the abbreviation "ARC" stand for? ^t10q7

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

ARC stands for Airworthiness Review Certificate, as defined in EU Regulation 1321/2014 (Part-M). It is issued after a periodic airworthiness review confirms the aircraft's continuing airworthiness documentation and condition are in order.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 8 and Annex 7, the Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the state of registry -- the country where the aircraft is registered. That state bears responsibility for ensuring the aircraft meets applicable airworthiness standards.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q9: A pilot licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is recognised in ^t10q9

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

ICAO Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing) establishes international standards for pilot licences. A licence issued in full compliance with Annex 1 standards is recognised across all 193 ICAO Contracting States, enabling international aviation operations without individual country-by-country acceptance.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q10: Which topic does ICAO Annex 1 address? ^t10q10

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

ICAO Annex 1 covers Personnel Licensing, which includes standards for flight crew licences (PPL, CPL, ATPL), ratings, medical certificates, and instructor qualifications.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q11: For a pilot aged 62, how long is a Class 2 medical certificate valid? ^t10q11

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under Part-MED (Commission Regulation (EU) 1178/2011), the validity of a Class 2 medical certificate depends on the pilot's age. For pilots aged 50 and over, validity is reduced to 12 months. At age 62, the 12-month rule clearly applies.

Q12: What does the abbreviation "SERA" stand for? ^t10q12

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

SERA stands for Standardised European Rules of the Air, established by Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012. SERA harmonises the rules of the air across all EU member states, implementing ICAO Annex 2 provisions at European level and adding EU-specific rules covering right-of-way, VMC minima, altimeter settings, and signals.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

TRA stands for Temporary Reserved Airspace -- airspace of defined dimensions reserved for a specific activity (military exercises, aerobatic displays, parachuting) during a published period. TRAs are activated via NOTAM and differ from TSAs (Temporary Segregated Areas) in that they may permit shared use under certain conditions.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

An RMZ (Radio Mandatory Zone) requires all aircraft to carry and operate a functioning radio, to monitor the designated frequency continuously, and to establish two-way radio contact before entry if possible.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

TMZ stands for Transponder Mandatory Zone -- airspace within which all aircraft must be equipped with and operate a pressure-altitude reporting transponder (Mode C or Mode S). This allows ATC radar and collision avoidance systems to identify and track traffic.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control ### Q16: A flight is classified as a "visual flight" when the ^t10q16

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

A visual flight (VFR flight) is defined by the rules under which it is conducted -- Visual Flight Rules (VFR) -- not by the prevailing weather. VMC (Visual Meteorological Conditions) describes the weather minima required for VFR, but a flight conducted in VMC could still be flown under IFR.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

VMC stands for Visual Meteorological Conditions -- the specific minima of visibility and cloud clearance defined in SERA.5001 that must be met for VFR flight. If conditions fall below VMC, the airspace is in IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions).

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

This question tests the collision avoidance ACTION. Per SERA.3210, when two powered aircraft are converging and a collision risk exists, the standard evasive maneuver is for both to alter heading to the RIGHT. This ensures they diverge rather than both swerving the same way.

Important: This is different from the right-of-way PRIORITY rule (see Q19). Priority determines who must avoid whom well in advance. This question asks what both pilots should DO in a converging situation.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

This question tests the right-of-way PRIORITY rule (different from the evasive action in Q18). Per SERA.3210(b), when two aircraft converge at the same altitude, the one that sees the other on its RIGHT side must give way. The aircraft coming from your right has priority - you must yield to it.

Think of it like a road without traffic lights: traffic from the right goes first.

Q20: What cloud separation must be maintained during a VFR flight in airspace classes C, D and E? ^t10q20

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

Per SERA.5001, VFR flights in airspace classes C, D, and E must maintain 1500 m horizontal distance from cloud and 1000 ft (approximately 300 m) vertical distance from cloud. The key detail is that horizontal is expressed in metres and vertical in feet -- mixing these units is a common exam trap.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules ### Q21: In airspace "E", what is the minimum flight visibility for a VFR aircraft at FL75? ^t10q21

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

Per SERA.5001, in airspace class E above 3000 ft AMSL but below FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 5000 m (5 km). FL75 (approximately 7500 ft) falls within this altitude band.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

Per SERA.5001, at and above FL100 in controlled airspace (including class C), the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8000 m (8 km). FL110 is above FL100, so the 8 km rule applies.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

FL125 is above FL100, so the SERA.5001 rule for high-altitude VFR applies: minimum flight visibility is 8000 m in all controlled airspace including class C.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

Where VFR is permitted in class B airspace, the cloud clearance minima per SERA.5001 are 1500 m horizontal and 300 m (approximately 1000 ft) vertical.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules

Note: Airspace Class B is not used in Germany or Switzerland but may appear in EASA exams. ### Q25: In airspace "C" below FL 100, what minimum flight visibility applies to VFR operations? ^t10q25

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

Per SERA.5001, in airspace class C below FL100 (above 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL), the minimum VFR flight visibility is 5 km.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

Per SERA.5001, at and above FL100 in controlled airspace including class C, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8 km. This higher threshold reflects the greater closing speeds and reduced reaction time at higher altitudes.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Ceiling is defined as the height (above ground level) of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more than half the sky (BKN or OVC, more than 4 oktas) below 20,000 ft.

Key Terms

MSL = Mean Sea Level ### Q28: During daytime interception by a military aircraft, what does the following signal mean: a sudden 90-degree or greater heading change and a climb without crossing the intercepted aircraft's flight path? ^t10q28

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 2, Appendix 1, when an intercepting aircraft makes an abrupt break-away manoeuvre of 90 degrees or more and climbs away without crossing the intercepted aircraft's track, this is the standard "release" signal meaning "You may proceed." The intercept is complete and the pilot may continue on their route.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q29: When flying at FL 80, what altimeter setting must be used? ^t10q29

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Flight levels are defined relative to the International Standard Atmosphere pressure datum of 1013.25 hPa. When flying at or above the transition altitude, pilots must set 1013.25 hPa on the altimeter subscale and reference altitude as a flight level.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The semi-circular (hemispherical) cruising level rule (SERA.5015) assigns different altitude bands to different magnetic tracks -- eastbound flights use odd thousands of feet, westbound use even thousands. By vertically separating aircraft flying in opposite directions, the probability of head-on collision at the same altitude is greatly reduced.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication ### Q31: A transponder capable of transmitting the current pressure altitude is a ^t10q31

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

A transponder that transmits pressure altitude information is either a Mode C or Mode S transponder. Mode C adds automatic pressure altitude reporting to the basic Mode A identity code, while Mode S provides all Mode C capabilities plus selective interrogation and data link features.

Q32: Which transponder code signals a loss of radio communication? ^t10q32

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Transponder code 7600 is the internationally recognised squawk for radio communication failure. Pilots must memorise the three emergency codes: 7700 for general emergency, 7600 for radio failure, and 7500 for unlawful interference (hijacking).

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules ### Q33: In the event of a radio failure, which transponder code should be selected without any ATC request? ^t10q33

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

When a pilot experiences radio communication failure, they must immediately squawk 7600 without waiting for any ATC instruction, since by definition communication is no longer possible. This proactive action alerts ATC to the situation and triggers loss-of-communications procedures.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In any general emergency (engine failure, fire, medical emergency, structural damage), the pilot must immediately set transponder code 7700 without waiting for ATC instruction. This triggers an alarm on ATC radar displays and activates emergency response procedures.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Air Traffic Control (ATC) is the service specifically responsible for providing separation between aircraft and ensuring the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic in controlled airspace. Per ICAO Annex 11, ATC actively manages aircraft movements to prevent collisions.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 11, the three constituent units of ATC are: TWR (Aerodrome Control, handling traffic at and around the aerodrome), APP (Approach Control, managing arriving and departing traffic in the terminal area), and ACC (Area Control Centre, handling en-route traffic).

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In Class E airspace, ATC separates IFR flights from other IFR flights, but VFR traffic receives no ATC separation service whatsoever -- neither from other VFR traffic nor from IFR traffic. VFR pilots in Class E must rely entirely on the see-and-avoid principle, with traffic information provided where possible.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A Flight Information Region (FIR) provides two universal services throughout its entire volume: FIS (Flight Information Service), which provides weather, NOTAM, and traffic information to pilots, and ALR (Alerting Service), which notifies rescue services when aircraft are in distress or overdue. ATC is not provided throughout the entire FIR -- it exists only within designated controlled airspace (CTAs, CTRs, airways) that may lie within the FIR.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

FIS is an operational service provided to airborne pilots, and the primary means of contacting it during flight is via radio communication on the designated FIS frequency. While pre-flight information may be obtained by telephone or online, the in-flight FIS service itself is radio-based.

Q40: What is the standard phraseology to warn that a light aircraft is following a heavier wake turbulence category aircraft? ^t10q40

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The standard ICAO phraseology for wake turbulence warnings is "CAUTION WAKE TURBULENCE," as prescribed in ICAO Doc 4444 (PANS-ATM). Standardised phraseology is mandatory in aviation to eliminate ambiguity.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A standard position report per ICAO Doc 4444 must include: aircraft callsign, position (fix or waypoint), and altitude or flight level.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

The AIP is structured in three parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). The GEN section contains general administrative information including map symbols/icons, radio navigation aid listings, sunrise/sunset tables, national regulations, airport fees, and ATC fees.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 15, the AIP is divided into three standardised parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). This structure is universal across all ICAO member states.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The AD (Aerodromes) section of the AIP contains all aerodrome-specific information: aerodrome classification, runway data, approach and departure charts, taxi charts, lighting, frequencies, operating hours, and obstacle data.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication ### Q45: The NOTAM shown is valid until... A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400 E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE. ^t10q45

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

NOTAM time codes use the format YYMMDDHHMM in UTC. The "C)" field in a NOTAM specifies the end of validity. The code 1305211400 decodes as: year 2013 (13), month May (05), day 21, time 14:00 UTC -- giving 21 May 2013 at 14:00 UTC.

Key Terms

NOTAM = Notice to Air Missions ### Q46: A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a compilation of current ^t10q46

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

A PIB (Pre-Flight Information Bulletin) is a standardised summary of current NOTAMs relevant to a planned flight, compiled and issued before departure. It filters pertinent NOTAMs for the route, departure, destination, and alternate aerodromes.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, aerodrome elevation is defined as the elevation of the highest point of the landing area. This ensures the published value represents the most demanding terrain height aircraft must account for during approach and departure.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q48: How is the term "runway" defined? ^t10q48

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, a runway is a rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. The three key elements are: rectangular shape, land aerodrome, and aircraft in general.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q49: How can a wind direction indicator be made more visible? ^t10q49

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, a wind direction indicator (windsock or wind tee) should be surrounded by a white circle to enhance its visibility from the air. The high-contrast white surround makes the indicator easier to identify against the aerodrome background.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q50: What shape does a landing direction indicator have? ^t10q50

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, the landing direction indicator is T-shaped (commonly called a "landing T" or "signal T"). Aircraft land toward the cross-bar of the T and take off away from it, making the landing direction immediately clear.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q51: Who bears the responsibility for ensuring that mandatory on-board documents are present and that logbooks are correctly maintained? ^t10q51

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The pilot-in-command (PIC) bears ultimate responsibility for ensuring that all required documents are on board and properly maintained before every flight. This is a fundamental principle of aviation law under both ICAO Annex 2 and EASA regulations.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Under Swiss aviation law, the Federal Council may require OFAC (Federal Office of Civil Aviation) authorization for all listed special activities: parachute descents, captive balloon ascents, public air shows, aerobatic flights, and aerobatic demonstrations. These activities present elevated safety risks to participants and the public.

Q53: Is dropping objects from an aircraft in flight prohibited in Switzerland? ^t10q53

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Under Swiss aviation law, dropping objects from an aircraft in flight is in principle prohibited, but the Federal Council may define specific exceptions such as parachuting, emergency drops, or authorised agricultural activities.

Q54: Where specifically is the certification basis of an aircraft documented? ^t10q54

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The certification basis of an aircraft (type certificate data sheet, approved operating conditions, mass limits, authorised flight categories, and required equipment) is documented in the annex to the Certificate of Airworthiness. This annex defines what the aircraft is certified to do.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules ### Q55: Your aircraft, not used for commercial traffic, requires repairs abroad. Which statement applies? ^t10q55

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

For a non-commercial aircraft requiring repairs abroad, the maintenance must be performed by an organisation recognised by the competent aviation authority of the country where the work is done. This provides flexibility while ensuring regulatory oversight.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency ### Q56: A well-known watchmaker has painted an aircraft in the brand's colours with a large watch on its fuselage. Is this allowed? ^t10q56

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under Swiss law, advertising on aircraft is permitted subject to other provisions of federal legislation, with only one mandatory condition: the nationality and registration marks must remain easily recognisable at all times. No special OFAC authorisation is needed for applying advertising markings.

Q57: Under what conditions may a person serve as a crew member on board an aircraft? ^t10q57

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

A crew member must hold a valid licence issued or recognised by the state of registration of the aircraft, in accordance with ICAO Annex 1. The state of registration defines the qualification requirements for crew operating its aircraft.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q58: Under what conditions is it permitted to carry and operate a radio on board? ^t10q58

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Two cumulative conditions must be met: first, authorisation to install and use the radio must have been granted by the competent authority, and second, crew members who operate the radio must hold the corresponding formal qualification (not merely informal training).

Q59: What must a pilot possess to be authorized to communicate by radio with air traffic services? ^t10q59

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

All pilots wishing to communicate with ATC must hold a radiotelephony qualification. Additionally, aeroplane and helicopter pilots must also possess a valid language proficiency attestation in the language used on the frequencies, as required under Swiss regulations.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control ### Q60: Your ophthalmologist has prescribed corrective lenses. Which statement is correct? ^t10q60

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Any change in medical condition, including the prescription of corrective lenses, must be reported promptly to the aviation medical examiner (AME). The AME will assess whether the change affects medical fitness and whether additional restrictions or conditions must be placed on the licence.

Q61: In which type of airspace may a Special VFR (SVFR) flight be authorized when the ceiling is below 450 m above ground and surface visibility is less than 5 km? ^t10q61

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

Special VFR (SVFR) flights can only be authorised within a CTR (Control Zone), which is the controlled airspace immediately surrounding an aerodrome. When meteorological conditions fall below normal VMC minima, ATC within the CTR can grant SVFR clearance to permit operations.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per SERA.3210, the standard ICAO evasive action for converging aircraft is that each pilot turns right, ensuring both aircraft pass behind one another and diverge safely. This symmetrical rule eliminates ambiguity about who should manoeuvre.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In Class D airspace below FL100 (10,000 ft AMSL), SERA.5001 prescribes VMC minima of: 5 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal cloud distance, and 300 m (1,000 ft) vertical cloud distance. These are the same minima as for Classes C and E in this altitude band.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In Switzerland, airspace classes C, D, and E are all classified as controlled airspace. Class G is uncontrolled airspace. Classes A and B exist in the ICAO classification system but are not used in Switzerland.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In aviation, "day" is defined as the period from the beginning of morning civil twilight to the end of evening civil twilight -- roughly 30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset. This broader definition gives pilots additional usable daylight at both ends.

Q66: What constitutes an aviation accident? ^t10q66

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Under ICAO Annex 13, an aviation accident is defined as an event associated with aircraft operation resulting in either fatal/serious injury to persons OR significant structural damage that impairs the aircraft's integrity, performance, or flight characteristics. Both criteria independently qualify an event as an accident.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q67: You wish to carry out private flights for remuneration. What formality must you complete to limit your civil liability? ^t10q67

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Issuing a transport document (ticket) constitutes proof that a contract of carriage has been concluded between the pilot and the passenger. Under the Montreal Convention, the existence of such a contract limits the carrier's liability for baggage damage and delays.

Q68: What type of information is disseminated through an AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular)? ^t10q68

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

An AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular) contains supplementary information that does not meet the criteria for publication as a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but is still relevant to flight safety, air navigation, or technical, administrative, and legislative matters. It fills the gap between urgent NOTAMs and permanent AIP entries.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The aerodrome operations manual is a comprehensive document governing all operational aspects of the aerodrome: its organisation, opening hours, approach and take-off procedures, use of facilities by all users (passengers, aircraft, ground vehicles), and ground handling services.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency ### Q70: What does this ground signal indicate? (Two dumbbells) ^t10q70

DE · FR

Ground signal:

![](figures/t10_q70.png)

Two dumbbells -- signal indicating that landings and takeoffs are to be made on runways only, but that other maneuvers (taxiing) may be carried out outside the runways and taxiways.

Answer

A)

Explanation

The dumbbell signal displayed in the signals area means that landings and take-offs must be made on runways only, but other manoeuvres such as taxiing, turning, and positioning may be conducted outside the runways and taxiways on the grass or other surfaces.

Q71: When two aircraft approach each other head-on, what manoeuvre must both pilots perform? ^t10q71

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per SERA.3210(c) and ICAO Annex 2, when two aircraft are on head-on or nearly head-on courses, both pilots must alter heading to the right, each passing the other on their left side. This mirrors road traffic conventions and eliminates ambiguity.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q72: Which of the following airspaces are not classified as controlled airspace? ^t10q72

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In Switzerland, Classes G and E are not classified as controlled airspace for VFR traffic purposes. Class G is uncontrolled airspace, and Class E, while technically controlled for IFR flights, provides no ATC separation for VFR traffic.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The Federal Council delegates aviation oversight to DETEC (Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications), which in turn delegates operational supervision to FOCA (Federal Office of Civil Aviation, known as BAZL/OFAC).

Q74: For which of the following flights is filing a flight plan mandatory? ^t10q74

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

In Switzerland, a VFR flight plan is mandatory when the flight requires the use of air traffic control services, such as transiting a CTR, TMA, or other controlled airspace where ATC interaction is needed.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per SERA.5005 and ICAO Annex 2, the minimum height over densely populated areas is 150 m (approximately 500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a 300 m radius of the aircraft. This obstacle-clearance-based rule ensures safe separation from structures and terrain.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 2 and SERA.3210, aircraft on final approach or landing always have priority over all other aircraft in flight or manoeuvring on the ground. This rule exists because aircraft on final approach have limited ability to manoeuvre and are in the most critical phase of flight.

Key Terms

DE · FR

![](figures/t10_q77.png)

Answer

B)

Explanation

The signal shown indicates that glider flying is in progress at the aerodrome. This is a standard ICAO ground signal placed in the signals area to warn arriving and overflying aircraft that gliders may be operating in the vicinity, including tow-launching and soaring.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q78: Who has the responsibility for ensuring that the required documents are carried on board the aircraft? ^t10q78

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The pilot-in-command (PIC) is responsible for ensuring that all required documents are carried on board the aircraft before flight. This is established in ICAO Annex 2 and EASA/Swiss aviation regulations. The PIC must personally verify document compliance as part of pre-flight preparation.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

ATC radio instructions from the control tower take the highest precedence over all visual indicators when determining the runway direction in use. ATC has the most current and comprehensive situational awareness and may assign a runway that differs from what the windsock or landing T suggests.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control ### Q80: In the event of a radio failure, what code must be set on the transponder? ^t10q80

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Transponder code 7600 is the internationally standardised squawk for radio communication failure. Setting this code immediately alerts ATC that the pilot has lost radio contact and triggers loss-of-communications procedures.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 2 and SERA, deviation from the rules of the air is permitted only when necessary for safety reasons and only to the extent strictly required to address the safety concern. This is the sole legal exception.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q82: What are the minimum VMC values in Class E airspace at 2100 m AMSL? Visibility - Cloud clearance: Vertical / Horizontal ^t10q82

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

At 2100 m AMSL (approximately 6900 ft) in Class E airspace, this altitude is below FL100 (3,050 m) but above 3,000 ft. According to SERA.5001, the VMC minima for this altitude band are: 5 km visibility, 300 m vertical cloud clearance, and 1500 m horizontal cloud clearance.

The 8 km visibility requirement only applies at or above FL100 (10,000 ft / 3,050 m).

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Switzerland, a daytime VFR flight must be completed no later than sunset. Flying after sunset requires either a night flight qualification or special authorisation.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules ### Q84: Are you allowed to use the aircraft radio to communicate with ATC without holding the radiotelephony rating extension? ^t10q84

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under Swiss regulations, a pilot may use the aircraft radio to communicate with ATC without holding the specific radiotelephony extension, in airspaces where radio communication is required. The radiotelephony qualification is needed for certain controlled airspaces but basic radio use for ATC communication is permitted.

Key Terms

ATC = Air Traffic Control ### Q85: Which type of flights may be conducted below the prescribed minimum heights without specific FOCA authorization, to the extent necessary? ^t10q85

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Search and rescue (SAR) flights are permitted below prescribed minimum heights without special FOCA authorisation, to the extent operationally necessary to accomplish the rescue mission. The urgency and life-saving nature of SAR operations justifies this exemption.

Q86: Is it permitted to cross an airway at FL 115 under VFR when visibility is 5 km? ^t10q86

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

At FL 115 (above FL 100), the minimum VFR visibility required is 8 km. With only 5 km visibility, the VMC minima are not met, and VFR flight through an airway is not permitted regardless of airspace class or flight type.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Switzerland, formation flights are permitted provided the pilots-in-command have coordinated beforehand, agreeing on the formation procedures, positions, and responsibilities. No special FOCA authorisation is needed.

Key Terms

D — Drag ### Q88: What does this signal mean? ^t10q88

DE · FR

![](figures/t10_q88.png)

Answer

D)

Explanation

A red square with two white diagonal crosses (St. Andrew's crosses) is the standard ICAO ground signal meaning "landing prohibited." It is placed in the signal square to warn all aircraft that the aerodrome is closed to landing operations.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q89: Can a Flight Information Zone (FIZ) be transited without any further formality? ^t10q89

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A FIZ (Flight Information Zone) may be transited provided permanent radio contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained. If radio contact cannot be established, the rules of the underlying airspace class apply.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules ### Q90: Which event qualifies as an aviation accident? ^t10q90

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 13, an aviation accident includes any event related to aircraft operation in which a person was killed or seriously injured, OR the aircraft sustained significant structural damage affecting its structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics. Both criteria independently qualify as an accident.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q91: Are observed or received signals binding for the glider pilot? ^t10q91

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

All observed or received signals -- whether ground signals, light signals, or radio signals -- are binding for the glider pilot. ICAO Annex 2 makes no distinction between signal types; compliance with all visual and radio signals is mandatory for all aircraft, including gliders.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q92: What is the minimum flight height above densely populated areas and locations where large public gatherings occur? ^t10q92

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Per SERA.5005, the minimum flight height over densely populated areas and large public gatherings is 150 m (500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a 600 m radius of the aircraft. This obstacle-based rule ensures adequate clearance from structures and protects people on the ground.

Key Terms

AGL = Above Ground Level ### Q93: In which airspace classes may VFR flights be conducted in Switzerland without needing air traffic control services? ^t10q93

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In Switzerland, VFR flights may be conducted without ATC services in Class E and Class G airspace. Class E is controlled for IFR but does not require ATC interaction for VFR flights; Class G is entirely uncontrolled.

Key Terms

DE · FR

![](figures/t10_q94.png)

Answer

B)

Explanation

The signal shown indicates caution during approach and landing, warning pilots to exercise extra care due to obstacles, poor surface conditions, or other hazards at the aerodrome. This is a standard ICAO ground signal placed in the signals area.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q95: In which document must technical deficiencies found during aircraft operation be recorded? ^t10q95

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Technical deficiencies discovered during aircraft operation must be recorded in the journey log (aircraft logbook/tech log). This is the official document tracking the aircraft's technical status and operational history, ensuring maintenance organisations are informed of defects requiring attention.

Q96: How is the use of cameras regulated at the international level? ^t10q96

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

At the international level, there is no uniform ICAO rule on the use of cameras from aircraft. Each State is free to prohibit or regulate their use over its territory according to its own national laws, which may vary based on security, privacy, or military considerations.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q97: What do white or other visible coloured signals placed horizontally on a runway signify? ^t10q97

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

White or other visible coloured signals placed horizontally on a runway indicate that the marked portion of the runway is not usable -- it may be closed, under construction, or degraded. Pilots must avoid landing on or rolling over these marked areas.

Q98: How should flight time be recorded when two pilots fly together? ^t10q98

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

When two licensed pilots fly together, each pilot may log the total flight time in their personal logbook, since both are qualified licence holders participating in the flight. This is in accordance with Swiss and ICAO logging rules.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q99: When one aircraft overtakes another in flight, how must it give way? ^t10q99

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per SERA.3210 and ICAO Annex 2, an overtaking aircraft must give way by altering course to the right, passing the slower aircraft on its right side. The overtaking aircraft bears full responsibility for maintaining safe separation throughout the manoeuvre.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q100: For which domestic Swiss flights is a flight plan required? ^t10q100

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In Switzerland, a domestic VFR flight plan is required when the flight needs to use air traffic control services, such as when transiting a CTR or TMA where ATC interaction is mandatory.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

During VFR flight, the pilot-in-command (PIC) bears full responsibility for collision avoidance using the see-and-avoid principle. This applies regardless of whether ATC or FIS provides traffic information.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under ICAO Annex 13, an aviation accident is an event related to aircraft operation where a person was killed or seriously injured, OR the aircraft sustained damage significantly affecting its structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics. Both conditions independently constitute an accident.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q103: Which of the following exceptions to the right-of-way rules for converging routes is incorrect? ^t10q103

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Key Terms

D — Drag ### Q104: What minimum meteorological conditions are required to take off or land at an aerodrome in a CTR without Special VFR authorization? ^t10q104

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

For normal VFR operations (without Special VFR) at an aerodrome in a CTR, the minimum conditions are: ground visibility of 5 km and a ceiling of 450 m (1,500 ft) above ground level.

Note: Option C (1.5 km / 300 m) would apply if the question asked about Special VFR conditions. The distinction between normal VFR and SVFR minima in a CTR is a common exam trap.

Tip: In the airspace chart, the CTR shows both 1,500 ft and 1,000 ft. These are different concepts: 1,500 ft is the minimum ceiling (cloud base height) required for takeoff/landing, while 1,000 ft (300 m) is the minimum vertical cloud clearance you must maintain during flight.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Below the transition altitude in a TMA or CTR, the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as altitude (height above mean sea level using the QNH altimeter setting). Flight levels are only used at or above the transition altitude.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In Class G airspace in Switzerland, without special conditions and at low altitudes (below 3000 ft AMSL or within 1000 ft of the surface), the minimum VFR visibility is 1.5 km. This is the lowest visibility minimum in the SERA VMC table.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

A FIZ may be transited by VFR flights, provided permanent radio contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained throughout the transit. If radio contact cannot be established, the pilot must follow the rules of the airspace class in which the FIZ is located.

Key Terms

VFR = Visual Flight Rules ### Q108: Who is responsible for the regulatory maintenance of an aircraft? ^t10q108

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The operator is legally responsible for ensuring that regulatory maintenance of the aircraft is carried out in accordance with approved maintenance programmes. While the maintenance organisation (Option A) and mechanic (Option B) perform the physical work, the legal responsibility for ensuring maintenance compliance rests with the operator.

Q109: When two aircraft approach an aerodrome at the same time to land, which one has the right of way? ^t10q109

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

When two aircraft approach an aerodrome simultaneously to land, the aircraft flying lower has right of way because it is in a more advanced and committed phase of the approach. The higher aircraft must give way by extending its circuit or going around.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q110: What are the minimum VMC values in Class E airspace at 6500 ft (2000 m) AMSL? Visibility - Cloud clearance: vertically - horizontally ^t10q110

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

At 6500 ft (2000 m) AMSL in Class E airspace, this altitude is below FL100 (3,050 m) but above 3,000 ft. According to SERA.5001, the VMC minima for this altitude band are: 5 km visibility, 300 m vertical cloud clearance, and 1500 m horizontal cloud clearance.

The 8 km visibility requirement only applies at or above FL100 (10,000 ft / 3,050 m).

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

The signal square (also called the signals area) is a designated area at an aerodrome where ground signals are displayed using symbols, panels, and markings to visually communicate aerodrome conditions to pilots flying overhead. This is particularly important for pilots who cannot receive radio communication.

Q112: How are two parallel runways designated? ^t10q112

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, when two parallel runways exist, they are distinguished by adding suffixes: "L" (Left) for the left runway and "R" (Right) for the right runway, as seen from a pilot on final approach. Both runways must receive a suffix to avoid ambiguity.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q113: Which runway designators are correct for two parallel runways? ^t10q113

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

For two parallel runways, ICAO requires both to carry the L/R suffix with the same number, such as "06L" and "06R." This clearly identifies them as parallel runways on the same magnetic heading.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q114: What does this sign at an aerodrome indicate? ^t10q114

DE · FR

![](figures/t10_q114.png)

Answer

C)

Explanation

The figure shows the international ground signal for glider operations in progress at the aerodrome. This warns pilots overflying the aerodrome that gliders may be operating in the vicinity, including tow-launching and soaring.

Q115: What does "DETRESFA" signify? ^t10q115

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

DETRESFA is the ICAO codeword for the distress phase, the most serious of the three emergency phases defined in ICAO Annex 12 and Annex 11. It is declared when an aircraft is believed to be in grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q116: Who provides the search and rescue service? ^t10q116

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 12, Search and Rescue (SAR) services are provided by both military and civil organisations, depending on national arrangements. Many countries combine military assets (helicopters, aircraft, ships) with civil emergency services for effective SAR coverage.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q117: In the context of aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three categories of aircraft occurrences? ^t10q117

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Under ICAO Annex 13 and EU Regulation 996/2010, aircraft occurrences are classified into three categories: incident (an occurrence that affects or could affect flight safety), serious incident (an incident where there was a high probability of an accident), and accident (an occurrence resulting in fatal/serious injury or substantial aircraft damage).

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q118: While slope soaring with the hill on your left, another glider approaches from the opposite direction at the same altitude. What should you do? ^t10q118

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

When slope soaring and encountering an oncoming glider, the pilot with the hill on their left must give way by turning right (away from the hill). In this scenario, the hill is on your left, so the approaching glider has the hill on their right, giving them right-of-way. You must divert to the right.

Key Terms

D — Drag ### Q119: When circling in a thermal with other gliders, who determines the direction of turn? ^t10q119

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

When joining a thermal already occupied by other gliders, the newly arriving pilot must circle in the same direction as the glider that first established the turn in that thermal. This convention ensures all gliders orbit in the same direction, preventing dangerous head-on conflicts within the thermal.

Q120: Is it possible for a glider to enter airspace C? ^t10q120

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

Airspace Class C is controlled airspace where ATC clearance is mandatory for all flights, including VFR and gliders. A glider may enter Class C airspace only after obtaining an explicit clearance from the responsible ATC unit.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Longitudinal stripes arranged symmetrically about the runway centreline are the threshold markings, indicating the beginning of the runway available for landing. Pilots must not touch down before these markings.

Q122: How can a pilot in flight acknowledge a search and rescue signal on the ground? ^t10q122

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 12, a pilot acknowledges a ground SAR signal by rocking the wings (waggling the wings laterally). This is an internationally recognised visual signal visible from the ground.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q123: An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a ^t10q123

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a rotating beacon installed at or near an airport to help pilots locate the aerodrome from the air, particularly at night or in reduced visibility.

Q124: What is the primary objective of an aircraft accident investigation? ^t10q124

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 13 and EU Regulation 996/2010, the sole objective of an aircraft accident investigation is to prevent future accidents by identifying causal and contributing factors and issuing safety recommendations. It is explicitly not a judicial or liability process.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization ### Q125: What is the validity period of the Certificate of Airworthiness? ^t10q125

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

A Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) issued under ICAO Annex 8 and EASA regulations has unlimited validity, provided the aircraft is maintained in accordance with approved programmes and the Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) is kept current. The CofA itself has no fixed expiry date.

Key Terms

ARC = Airworthiness Review Certificate; EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q126: What does the abbreviation ARC stand for? ^t10q126

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

ARC stands for Airworthiness Review Certificate, the document issued following a successful airworthiness review confirming that an aircraft meets applicable airworthiness requirements. It is valid for one year and must be renewed for continued operation.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Under the Chicago Convention (ICAO Annex 7) and EASA regulations, the Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the State of Registry -- the country in which the aircraft is registered.

Key Terms

EASA = European Union Aviation Safety Agency; ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q128: What does the abbreviation SERA stand for? ^t10q128

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

SERA stands for Standardised European Rules of the Air, the EU regulation (Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012) that harmonises rules of the air across EASA member states. It covers right-of-way, VMC minima, altimeter settings, signals, and related procedures.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

TRA stands for Temporary Reserved Airspace, an airspace of defined dimensions temporarily reserved for specific uses such as military exercises or parachute operations. Other aircraft may not enter without permission during activation.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

TMZ stands for Transponder Mandatory Zone, an airspace designation requiring all aircraft to be equipped with and operate a functioning transponder when flying within the zone. This enables radar identification and collision avoidance systems to track traffic.

Q131: A flight is categorised as a visual flight when the ^t10q131

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A visual flight (VFR flight) is defined as a flight conducted in accordance with Visual Flight Rules as specified in ICAO Annex 2 and SERA. The classification is regulatory, not meteorological.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

VMC stands for Visual Meteorological Conditions -- the minimum visibility and cloud clearance values that must be met for VFR flight to be conducted. VMC minima vary by airspace class and altitude.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In Class E airspace below FL100, VFR flights require a minimum visibility of 5000 m (5 km) per SERA.5001. FL75 is below FL100, so the 5 km rule applies.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In controlled airspace Class C at and above FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8000 m (8 km) per SERA. FL110 is above FL100, so the 8 km minimum applies.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In airspace Class C at and above FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8000 m (8 km). FL125 is well above FL100, confirming the 8 km minimum applies.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In ICAO airspace Class B, the cloud separation minima for VFR flights are 1500 m horizontally and 300 m (approximately 1000 ft) vertically from cloud.

Key Terms

Note: Airspace Class B is not used in Germany or Switzerland but may appear in EASA exams. ### Q137: In airspace C below FL 100, what is the minimum flight visibility for VFR operations? ^t10q137

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In airspace Class C below FL100, the SERA-prescribed minimum VFR flight visibility is 5 km (5000 m).

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In airspace Class C at and above FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility required by SERA is 8 km (8000 m). This higher minimum reflects the faster closing speeds at higher altitudes.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Ceiling is the height (referenced to the surface, not MSL) of the base of the lowest layer of cloud or obscuring phenomena covering more than half the sky (BKN or OVC, more than 4 oktas) below 20,000 ft.

Key Terms

MSL = Mean Sea Level

Q140: Regarding separation in airspace E, which statement is accurate? ^t10q140

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

![](luftraeume_overview.jpg)

In airspace Class E, ATC provides separation only between IFR flights. VFR flights receive no separation service whatsoever -- neither from IFR traffic nor from other VFR traffic. VFR pilots rely entirely on see-and-avoid.

Key Terms

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

The AD (Aerodromes) section of the AIP contains information about individual aerodromes: their classification, aerodrome charts, approach charts, taxi charts, runway data, and operating information.

Key Terms

AIP = Aeronautical Information Publication ### Q142: How is "aerodrome elevation" defined? ^t10q142

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, aerodrome elevation is the elevation of the highest point of the landing area. This is the critical reference point for QFE calculations and obstacle clearance.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization; QFE = Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation

Q143: How is the term "runway" defined? ^t10q143

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

Per ICAO Annex 14, a runway is a rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q144: What does DETRESFA mean? ^t10q144

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

DETRESFA is the ICAO codeword for the distress phase, the highest of three emergency phases indicating an aircraft is believed to be in grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. The three ICAO emergency phases are: INCERFA (uncertainty), ALERFA (alerting), and DETRESFA (distress).

Key Terms

ICAO = International Civil Aviation Organization

Q145: What does a steady green light signal directed at a glider in flight mean? ^t10q145

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

In accordance with ICAO Annex 2 and SERA, a steady green light directed at an aircraft in flight means cleared to land. This is the standard signal used by a control tower or flight information service when radio communication is unavailable.

Key Terms

Q146: What does a steady red light signal directed at a glider in flight mean? ^t10q146

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

A steady red light directed at an aircraft in flight means: give way to other aircraft and continue circling in the aerodrome traffic circuit. This signal indicates that landing is not yet possible due to other traffic.

Key Terms

Q147: What does a flashing green light signal directed at a glider in flight mean? ^t10q147

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

A flashing green light directed at an aircraft in flight means: return for landing. This signal tells the pilot to join the aerodrome circuit with the intention of landing, but does not yet grant final clearance.

Key Terms

Q148: What does a flashing red light signal directed at a glider in flight mean? ^t10q148

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A flashing red light directed at an aircraft in flight means: do not land (for the time being). The pilot must continue flying and must not initiate a landing approach. This signal may be used in case of an aerodrome emergency or other priority traffic.

Key Terms

Q149: What does a flashing white light signal directed at a glider in flight mean? ^t10q149

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

A flashing white light directed at an aircraft in flight means: land at this aerodrome and proceed to the parking area. This signal instructs the pilot to land and immediately proceed to the designated parking position.

Key Terms

Q150: What does a red pyrotechnic signal directed at a glider in flight mean? ^t10q150

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

A red pyrotechnic signal (flare) fired towards an aircraft in flight means that, notwithstanding any previous instructions, the aircraft must not land for the time being. It is an emergency signal used when there is an immediate hazard on or near the runway.

Key Terms

Q151: What does a steady green light signal directed at a glider on the ground mean? ^t10q151

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A steady green light directed at an aircraft on the ground means: cleared for take-off. It is the standard signal indicating that the runway is clear and the aircraft may proceed with its take-off.

Key Terms

Q152: What does a steady red light signal directed at a glider on the ground mean? ^t10q152

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

A steady red light directed at an aircraft on the ground means: stop. The aircraft must stop immediately and await further instructions.

Key Terms

Q153: What does a flashing green light signal directed at a glider on the ground mean? ^t10q153

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

A flashing green light directed at an aircraft on the ground means: cleared to taxi. This signal gives the pilot clearance to move on the ground towards the take-off position.

Key Terms

Q154: What does a flashing red light signal directed at a glider on the ground mean? ^t10q154

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

A flashing red light directed at an aircraft on the ground means: clear the landing area in use. This signal is used to move an aircraft away from a runway or landing area without commanding a full stop.

Key Terms

Q155: What does a flashing white light signal directed at a glider on the ground mean? ^t10q155

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the ground means: return to starting point on the aerodrome (go back to the runway threshold or initial holding point). This signal is used to redirect an aircraft back to its departure point.

Key Terms

Q156: How does a glider in flight acknowledge receipt of a light signal during the day? ^t10q156

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

During the day, an aircraft in flight acknowledges receipt of a light signal by rocking the wings (lateral wing movement). This visual signal confirms to the flight service that the pilot has received and understood the light signal.

Key Terms

Q157: Is wing rocking mandatory to acknowledge a light signal in all phases of flight? ^t10q157

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Wing rocking is not required on base leg or final approach, as these phases near landing require the pilot's full attention. In that case, switching the landing light on and off may be used instead.

Key Terms

Q158: What does a brightly coloured right-angle arrow on the signal area mean? ^t10q158

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

A brightly coloured right-angle arrow (broken arrow) on the signal area indicates that direction changes are permitted only to the right, both for landing and take-off. This applies when the terrain or obstacles impose a right-hand circuit.

Key Terms

Q159: What does a black letter C on a yellow background placed vertically mean? ^t10q159

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

A black letter C on a yellow background is the signal marking the location where pilots must report (announce themselves) to the aerodrome management or flight service. It generally marks the position of the flight information office or control tower.

Key Terms

Q160: What does a white two-arm cross on the signal area mean? ^t10q160

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

A white two-arm cross (X shape) on the signal area indicates that gliding activity is in progress at this aerodrome. This signal warns other pilots of the presence of gliders and the possibility of active soaring areas.

Key Terms

Q161: What is the validity period of a short-term permit (permis de brève durée) in Switzerland? ^t10q161

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

In Switzerland, a short-term permit (Kurzfristbewilligung) is valid for 60 days. It allows a candidate who has passed the practical examination to exercise pilot privileges while waiting for the official licence to be issued by FOCA.

Key Terms

Q162: May a holder of a short-term permit fly abroad? ^t10q162

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

A short-term permit is valid only within Switzerland. The holder may not fly abroad, as this document is not internationally recognised as a pilot licence under the Chicago Convention.

Key Terms

Q163: May a pilot fly when their capabilities no longer allow them to ensure flight safety? ^t10q163

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In accordance with Swiss and European regulations (SERA.2010), a pilot is strictly prohibited from flying when their physical or mental capabilities are impaired to the extent that they jeopardise flight safety. This prohibition applies in all circumstances, regardless of whether passengers are on board.

Key Terms

Q164: May the holder of a glider pilot licence perform aerobatic flight (vol de virtuosité)? ^t10q164

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In Switzerland, aerobatic flight requires a specific extension to the glider pilot licence. The basic licence alone is not sufficient. The pilot must have completed specialised training and obtained authorisation from FOCA.

Key Terms

Q165: Where can a glider pilot licence normally be renewed in Switzerland? ^t10q165

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In Switzerland, the ordinary renewal of a glider pilot licence is carried out by the aerodrome director or the management of an aerodrome authorised for this purpose by FOCA. It is not necessary to go directly to FOCA for a routine renewal.

Key Terms

Q166: What conditions must a glider pilot licence holder meet to fly a powered glider (motorglider)? ^t10q166

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

To fly a powered glider (motorglider), the glider pilot licence holder must have a specific motorglider extension. The basic glider licence alone is not sufficient, since the use of the engine requires an additional qualification.

Key Terms

Q167: For renewal of a glider pilot licence, may a pilot count powered aircraft hours instead of glider hours? ^t10q167

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

In Switzerland, powered aircraft hours may be counted up to half (50 %) of the flight hours required for renewal of a glider pilot licence. The other half must be flown on a glider or motorglider.

Key Terms

Q168: You are flying in a soaring area (zone de vol à voile). What minimum cloud clearances must you observe? ^t10q168

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

In a soaring area (Segelfluggebiet), specific Swiss rules allow flying with reduced minimum cloud clearances: 50 m vertically and 100 m horizontally. These values are lower than standard Class E VMC minima to accommodate conditions specific to thermal soaring.

Key Terms

Q169: What cloud clearances must you maintain in an active cloud-flying zone above 600 m AGL if you do not hold a cloud-flying extension? ^t10q169

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In an active cloud-flying zone above 600 m AGL, a pilot without a cloud-flying extension must observe standard VMC clearances: 300 m vertically and 1.5 km horizontally. Even when the zone is activated for cloud flying, pilots without the qualification must maintain VMC separation.

Key Terms

Q170: What is the minimum flight altitude above densely populated areas when flying a glider? ^t10q170

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

In accordance with Swiss regulations (FOCA), the minimum overflight height above densely populated areas is 300 m AGL. This rule is intended to protect people and property in the event of an emergency landing and to limit noise nuisance.

Key Terms

Q171: What is the minimum flight height for a glider flying along a slope in the countryside? ^t10q171

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

For slope soaring in the countryside, Swiss regulations set a minimum height of 60 m AGL above the slope. This value is an absolute minimum and the pilot must always ensure sufficient space to carry out a turn safely.

Key Terms

Q172: You are flying in a thermal and you see a glider circling 50 m above you. Which direction of turn do you choose? ^t10q172

DE · FR

Answer

D)

Explanation

When thermal soaring with other gliders, the rule is that all aircraft must turn in the same direction as the first glider that entered the thermal. This reduces the risk of collision and makes traffic management within the thermal easier. The direction is set by the first glider circling in that air mass.

Key Terms

Q173: You are flying in a thermal with no other gliders nearby. Which direction of turn is prescribed? ^t10q173

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

When there are no other gliders in the thermal, there is no legal requirement specifying a particular direction of turn. The pilot is free to choose the direction that allows them to remain in the best lift. A direction is only prescribed when another glider is already circling in the thermal.

Key Terms

Q174: Is water ballast jettisoning from a glider permitted during flight? ^t10q174

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Water ballast jettisoning is permitted from a glider in flight. This common practice in competition and performance soaring allows the glider to be lightened when thermal conditions improve. However, the pilot must ensure that jettisoning is not carried out over populated areas or other aircraft.

Key Terms

Q175: What is the maximum speed you must fly at in Swiss airspace below 3000 m AMSL? ^t10q175

DE · FR

Answer

B)

Explanation

Below 3000 m AMSL in Swiss airspace, the maximum permitted speed is 250 knots (KT) IAS. This limitation is intended to reduce collision risks with other aircraft and limit noise nuisance in low-altitude areas.

Key Terms

Q176: What rights did contracting states agree upon in the Chicago Convention for non-commercial aircraft on international flights? ^t10q176

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

The 1944 Chicago Convention (Article 5) grants civil aircraft of contracting states conducting non-commercial flights the right to overfly the territory of other contracting states and the right to land for technical stops, without prior authorisation required.

Key Terms

Q177: Does a state have the right to prohibit the entry or overflight of part or all of its territory by foreign aircraft? ^t10q177

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

In accordance with Article 9 of the Chicago Convention, each contracting state may, for reasons of military necessity or public safety, restrict or prohibit aircraft of other states from flying over certain areas of its territory. The state must publish these restrictions in the AIP.

Key Terms

Q178: When turning for landing or after take-off, to which side must the turn be made in the absence of specific instructions? ^t10q178

DE · FR

Answer

A)

Explanation

In the absence of specific instructions, the standard circuit calls for left-hand turns, both on landing approach and after take-off. This is the default rule under SERA and international usage. Right-hand turns are possible if indicated in the AIP or by the control tower.

Key Terms

Q179: How must the landing approach be made when no radio contact has been established with the aerodrome? ^t10q179

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In accordance with Swiss regulations, when no radio contact has been established with the aerodrome, the pilot must fly at least one half-circuit before landing. This half-circuit gives the flight information service time to see the incoming aircraft and, if necessary, to provide light signals.

Key Terms

Q180: Within what period must an appeal be lodged against a FOCA decision to refuse or withdraw a licence? ^t10q180

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

In accordance with the Federal Administrative Procedure Act (PA) and the Aviation Act (LA), an appeal against a FOCA decision (refusal or withdrawal of a licence) must be lodged within 30 days of receiving the decision. The appeal is addressed to the competent federal department (DETEC).

Key Terms

Q181: Before which authority may an appeal be lodged against FOCA in case of refusal or withdrawal of a licence? ^t10q181

DE · FR

Answer

C)

Explanation

Appeals against FOCA decisions regarding licences must be addressed to DETEC (Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications), which is the direct supervisory authority of FOCA. A DETEC decision may then be further appealed to the Federal Administrative Tribunal.

Key Terms