10 - Air Law

Total questions: 64

Q1: The holder of an SPL license or LAPL(S) license completed a total of 9 winch launches, 4 launches in aero-tow and 2 bungee launches during the last 24 months. What launch methods may the pilot conduct as PIC today? ^q1

A) Winch and bungee.
B) Winch, bungee and aero-tow.
C) Winch and aero-tow.
D) Aero-tow and bungee. Correct: A)

Q2: Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight? a) Certificate of aircraft registration b) Certificate of airworthiness c) Airworthiness review certificate d) EASA Form-1 e) Airplane logbook f) Appropriate papers for every crew member g) Technical logbook ^q2

A) B, c, d, e, f, g
B) A, b, c, e, f
C) D, f, g
D) A, b, e, g Correct: A)

Q3: Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions? ^q3

A) No-fly zone
B) Restricted area
C) Prohibited area
D) Dangerous area Correct: B)

Q4: Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found? ^q4

A) AIC
B) ICAO chart 1:500000
C) AIP
D) NOTAM Correct: C)

Q5: What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA? (e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED) ^q5

A) They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide
B) Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding
C) They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states
D) They have the same status as ICAO Annexes Correct: C)

Q6: Which validity does the Certificate of Airworthiness have? ^q6

A) Unlimited
B) 12 years
C) 6 months
D) 12 months Correct: A)

Q7: What is the meaning of the abbreviation ARC? ^q7

A) Airworthiness Recurring Control
B) Airspace Rulemaking Committee
C) Airworthiness Review Certificate
D) Airspace Restriction Criteria Correct: C)

Q8: The Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the state... ^q8

A) Of the residence of the owner
B) In which the aircraft is registered.
C) In which the airworthiness review is done.
D) In which the aircraft is constructed. Correct: B)

Q9: A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in... ^q9

A) Those countries that have accepted this license on application.
B) The country where the license was acquired.
C) All ICAO countries.
D) The country where the license was issued. Correct: C)

Q10: What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1? ^q10

A) Flight crew licensing
B) Air traffic services
C) Rules of the air
D) Operation of aircraft Correct: A)

Q11: The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is... ^q11

A) 12 Months.
B) 48 Months.
C) 24 Months.
D) 60 Months. Correct: A)

Q12: What is the meaning of the abbreviation SERA? ^q12

A) Selective Radar Altimeter
B) Standardized European Rules of the Air
C) Standard European Routes of the Air
D) Specialized Radar Approach Correct: B)

Q13: What is the meaning of the abbreviation TRA? ^q13

A) Transponder Area
B) Temporary Reserved Airspace
C) Terminal Area
D) Temporary Radar Routing Area Correct: B)

Q14: What has to be considered when entering an RMZ? ^q14

A) To obtain a clearance to enter this area
B) To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact
C) To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority
D) The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000 Correct: B)

Q15: What is the meaning of an area marked as TMZ? ^q15

A) Transponder Mandatory Zone
B) Transportation Management Zone
C) Touring Motorglider Zone
D) Traffic Management Zone Correct: A)

Q16: A flight is called a visual flight, if the... ^q16

A) Visibility in flight is more than 5 km.
B) Flight is conducted under visual flight rules.
C) Visibility in flight is more than 8 km.
D) Flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions. Correct: B)

Q17: What is the meaning of the abbreviation VMC? ^q17

A) Variable meteorological conditions
B) Visual meteorological conditions
C) Instrument flight conditions
D) Visual flight rules Correct: B)

Q18: Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude. Which one has to divert? ^q18

A) Both have to divert to the left
B) The lighter one has to climb
C) The heavier one has to climb
D) Both have to divert to the right Correct: D)

Q19: Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks. Which one has to divert? ^q19

A) Both have to divert to the lef
B) The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority
C) Both have to divert to the right
D) The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority Correct: D)

Q20: Which distances to clouds have to be maintained during a VFR flight in airpaces C, D and E? ^q20

A) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
B) 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically
C) 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically
D) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically Correct: A)

Q21: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace E for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL75? ^q21

A) 8000 m
B) 1500 m
C) 3000 m
D) 5000 m Correct: D)

Q22: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace C for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL110? ^q22

A) 1500 m
B) 3000 m
C) 8000 m
D) 5000 m Correct: C)

Q23: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace C for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL125? ^q23

A) 8000 m
B) 1500 m
C) 5000 m
D) 3000 m Correct: A)

Q24: What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace B? ^q24

A) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m
B) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m
C) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m
D) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft Correct: A)

Q25: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace C below FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR? ^q25

A) 1.5 km
B) 8 km
C) 5 km
D) 10 km Correct: C)

Q26: What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace C at and above FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR? ^q26

A) 1.5 km
B) 10 km
C) 5 km
D) 8 km Correct: D)

Q27: The term ceiling is defined as the... ^q27

A) Height of the base of the highest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
B) Height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 10000 ft.
C) Height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
D) Altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft. Correct: C)

Q28: Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft? ^q28

A) Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield
B) You may continue your flight
C) Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
D) You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately Correct: B)

Q29: During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be... ^q29

A) Local QFE.
B) Local QNH.
C) 1030.25 hPa.
D) 1013.25 hPa. Correct: D)

Q30: What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule? ^q30

A) To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP
B) To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres
C) To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude
D) To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern Correct: C)

Q31: A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a... ^q31

A) Transponder approved for airspace "B".
B) Mode C or S transponder.
C) Pressure-decoder.
D) Mode A transponder. Correct: B)

Q32: Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication? ^q32

A) 2000
B) 7600
C) 7000
D) 7700 Correct: B)

Q33: Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request? ^q33

A) 7700
B) 7600
C) 7500
D) 7000 Correct: B)

Q34: Which transponder code has to be set unrequested during an emergency? ^q34

A) 7500
B) 7700
C) 7000
D) 7600 Correct: B)

Q35: Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights? ^q35

A) ATC (air traffic control)
B) AIS (aeronautical information service)
C) ALR (alerting service)
D) FIS (flight information service) Correct: A)

Q36: Air traffic control service is conducted by which services? ^q36

A) ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service)
B) FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service)
C) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service)
D) TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) Correct: D)

Q37: Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace E? ^q37

A) VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic
B) VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic
C) VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic
D) IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic Correct: A)

Q38: Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)? ^q38

A) FIS (flight information service) ALR (alerting service)
B) ATC (air traffic control) FIS (flight information service)
C) ATC (air traffic control) AIS (aeronautical information service)
D) AIS (aeronautical information service) SAR (search and rescue) Correct: A)

Q39: A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)... ^q39

A) By a personal visit.
B) Via telephone.
C) Via radio communication.
D) Via internet. Correct: C)

Q40: What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light aircraft is following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category? ^q40

A) Caution wake turbulence
B) Be careful wake winds
C) Danger jet blast
D) Attention propwash Correct: A)

Q41: Which of the following options states a correct position report? ^q41

A) DEABC reaching "N"
B) DEABC, "N", 2500 ft
C) DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft
D) DEABC over "N" at 35 Correct: B)

Q42: What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? ^q42

A) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces
B) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods
C) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
D) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces Correct: C)

Q43: Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)? ^q43

A) GEN MET RAC
B) GEN AGA COM
C) GEN COM MET
D) GEN ENR AD Correct: D)

Q44: What information is provided in the part AD of the AIP? ^q44

A) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces.
B) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods
C) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts
D) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees Correct: C)

Q45: The shown NOTAM is valid until... A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400 E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE. ^q45

A) 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC.
B) 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC.
C) 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.
D) 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC. Correct: C)

Q46: A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current... ^q46

A) AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
B) AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
C) NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
D) ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight. Correct: C)

Q47: The term aerodrome elevation is defined as... ^q47

A) The highest point of the apron.
B) The lowest point of the landing area.
C) The highest point of the landing area.
D) The average value of the height of the manoeuvring area. Correct: C)

Q48: The term runway is defined as a... ^q48

A) Round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft
B) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters.
C) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
D) Rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. Correct: C)

Q49: How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility? ^q49

A) The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower.
B) The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials.
C) The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle.
D) The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface. Correct: C)

Q50: Of what shape is a landing direction indicator? ^q50

A) T
B) A straight arrow
C) L
D) An angled arrow Correct: A)

Q51: What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome? ^q51

A) It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed
B) It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying aircraft
C) Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance
D) It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects Correct: B)

Q52: How are two parallel runways designated? ^q52

A) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway remains unchanged
B) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R"
C) The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1
D) The left runway gets the suffix "-1", the right runway "-2" Correct: B)

Q53: What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the centerline of a runway? ^q53

A) At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway
B) Do not touch down before them
C) Do not touch down behind them
D) A ground roll could be started from this position Correct: B)

Q54: Which runway designators are correct for 2 parallel runways? ^q54

A) "26" and "26R"
B) "06L" and "06R"
C) "18" and "18-2"
D) "24" and "25" Correct: B)

Q55: An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a... ^q55

A) Fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air
B) Rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
C) Rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
D) Rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the ground. Correct: C)

Q56: What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome? See figure (ALW-011) Siehe Anlage 1 ^q56

A) After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
B) Caution, manoeuvring area is poor
C) Glider flying is in progress
D) Landing prohibited for a longer period Correct: C)

Q57: What is the meaning of DETRESFA? ^q57

A) Distress phase
B) Alerting phase
C) Uncertainty phase
D) Rescue phase Correct: A)

Q58: Who provides search and rescue service? ^q58

A) Only civil organisations
B) Both military and civil organisations
C) Only military organisations
D) International approved organisations Correct: B)

Q59: How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight? ^q59

A) Push the rudder in both directions multiple times
B) Fly in a parabolic flight path multiple times
C) Rock the wings
D) Deploy and retract the landing flaps multiple times Correct: C)

Q60: With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three categories regarding aircraft occurrences? ^q60

A) Event Crash Disaster
B) Event Serious event Accident
C) Happening Event Serious event
D) Incident Serious incident Accident Correct: D)

Q61: What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation? ^q61

A) To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations
B) To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers
C) To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents
D) To Determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences Correct: A)

Q62: During slope soaring you have the hill to your left side, another glider is approaching from the opposite side at the same altitude. How do you react? ^q62

A) You divert to the right
B) You expect the opposite glider to divert
C) You divert to the right and expect the opposite glider to do the same
D) You pull on the elevator and divert upward Correct: A)

Q63: Along with other gliders, you are circling in a thermal updraft. Who determines the direction of circling? ^q63

A) Circling is general to the left
B) The glider who entered the updraft at first
C) The glider with greatest bank angle
D) The glider at highest altitude Correct: B)

Q64: Is it possible to enter airspace C with a glider plane? ^q64

A) Yes, but only with transponder activated
B) No
C) With restrictions, in case of less air traffic
D) Yes, but only with approval of the respective ATC unit Correct: D)