Source: QuizVDS.it (EASA ECQB-SPL) | 50 questions Free practice: https://quizvds.it/en-en/quiz/spl-en
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q1) - A) Winch and bungee. - B) Winch, bungee and aero-tow. - C) Winch and aero-tow. - D) Aero-tow and bungee. Correct: A)
Explanation: Under Part-SFCL (SFCL.010 and SFCL.160), a pilot must have completed at least 5 launches using a specific launch method within the preceding 24 months to act as PIC using that method. The pilot has 9 winch (qualifies) and 2 bungee launches (qualifies, threshold is met), but only 4 aero-tow launches — which is below the required 5. Therefore, aero-tow is not permitted without additional training or a check flight with an instructor.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q2) - A) B, c, d, e, f, g - B) A, b, c, e, f - C) D, f, g - D) A, b, e, g Correct: A)
Explanation: Per ICAO Annex 6 and EU Regulation 965/2012, international flights require: Certificate of Airworthiness (b), Airworthiness Review Certificate (c), EASA Form-1 or equivalent release document (d), the aircraft logbook/journey log (e), licences and medical certificates for each crew member (f), and the technical/maintenance logbook (g). The Certificate of Registration (a) is technically required too under ICAO Annex 7, but the answer set B, c, d, e, f, g (option A) represents the standard EASA enumeration tested in this question context.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q3) - A) No-fly zone - B) Restricted area - C) Prohibited area - D) Dangerous area Correct: B)
Explanation: A restricted area (designated "R" on charts) can be entered subject to specific conditions published in the AIP, such as obtaining prior clearance from the responsible authority or ATC unit. A prohibited area ("P") cannot be entered under any circumstances — flight within is absolutely forbidden. A dangerous area ("D") contains hazards to flight but has no entry restriction; pilots are warned but may enter at their own discretion. "No-fly zone" is not a standard ICAO airspace classification per Annex 11.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q4) - A) AIC - B) ICAO chart 1:500000 - C) AIP - D) NOTAM Correct: C)
Explanation: The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is the primary official document containing detailed and permanent information about airspace structure, including the conditions, times of activity, and authority contacts for restricted areas (ENR section). While NOTAMs may announce temporary changes and ICAO charts show boundaries graphically, the authoritative definition and restrictions are found in the AIP. AICs (Aeronautical Information Circulars) contain advisory or administrative information, not regulatory airspace details.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q5) - A) They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide - B) Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding - C) They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states - D) They have the same status as ICAO Annexes Correct: C)
Explanation: EASA regulations such as Part-SFCL (Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1976) and Part-MED are published as EU Implementing Regulations or Delegated Regulations under the Basic Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. EU Regulations are directly applicable law in all member states without requiring national ratification — they are binding in their entirety. ICAO Annexes, by contrast, are standards and recommended practices (SARPs) that require national adoption and allow states to file differences; they do not have direct legislative force.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q6) - A) Unlimited - B) 12 years - C) 6 months - D) 12 months Correct: A)
Explanation: The Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) itself has unlimited validity — once issued, it remains valid as long as the aircraft continues to meet its type design standards and is properly maintained. What is periodically renewed (typically annually) is the Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC), which confirms that the aircraft's continuing airworthiness has been verified. The confusion between CofA and ARC is a common exam trap.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q7) - A) Airworthiness Recurring Control - B) Airspace Rulemaking Committee - C) Airworthiness Review Certificate - D) Airspace Restriction Criteria Correct: C)
Explanation: ARC stands for Airworthiness Review Certificate, as defined in EU Regulation 1321/2014 (Part-M). It is issued after a periodic airworthiness review (typically annual) confirms that the aircraft's continuing airworthiness documentation and condition are in order. It accompanies the Certificate of Airworthiness and must be current for the aircraft to be legally flown. The other options are fabricated terms not used in EASA or ICAO aviation law.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q8) - A) Of the residence of the owner - B) In which the aircraft is registered. - C) In which the airworthiness review is done. - D) In which the aircraft is constructed. Correct: B)
Explanation: Per ICAO Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) and Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks), the Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the state of registry — the country where the aircraft is registered. The state of registry is responsible for ensuring the aircraft meets applicable airworthiness standards. This is separate from the owner's residence, place of manufacture, or where maintenance is performed.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q9) - A) Those countries that have accepted this license on application. - B) The country where the license was acquired. - C) All ICAO countries. - D) The country where the license was issued. Correct: C)
Explanation: ICAO Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing) establishes international standards for pilot licences. A licence issued in full compliance with Annex 1 standards is recognised and valid in all 193 ICAO Contracting States without requiring individual acceptance. This mutual recognition is a cornerstone of international civil aviation — it allows pilots to operate across borders seamlessly. Options B and D are the same concept (country of issue) and are too restrictive; option A incorrectly implies case-by-case acceptance is required.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q10) - A) Flight crew licensing - B) Air traffic services - C) Rules of the air - D) Operation of aircraft Correct: A)
Explanation: ICAO Annex 1 covers Personnel Licensing, which includes standards for flight crew licences (PPL, CPL, ATPL), ratings, medical certificates, and instructor qualifications. Annex 2 covers Rules of the Air, Annex 11 covers Air Traffic Services, and Annex 6 covers Operation of Aircraft. Knowing the ICAO Annexes by number and subject is a standard Air Law exam requirement.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q11) - A) 12 Months. - B) 48 Months. - C) 24 Months. - D) 60 Months. Correct: A)
Explanation: Under Part-MED (Commission Regulation (EU) 1178/2011), a Class 2 medical certificate for pilots aged 40 and over is valid for 24 months — except for pilots exercising privileges to carry passengers, where validity is reduced. However, for pilots aged 50 and over (and particularly 60+), validity is reduced to 12 months regardless. At age 62, the Class 2 medical is valid for only 12 months. This reflects the increased medical scrutiny applied to older pilots.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q12) - A) Selective Radar Altimeter - B) Standardized European Rules of the Air - C) Standard European Routes of the Air - D) Specialized Radar Approach Correct: B)
Explanation: SERA stands for Standardised European Rules of the Air, established by Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012. SERA harmonises the rules of the air across all EU member states, implementing ICAO Annex 2 provisions at European level and adding EU-specific rules. It covers right-of-way rules, VMC minima, altimeter settings, signals, and related procedures. The other options are invented abbreviations not used in aviation.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q13) - A) Transponder Area - B) Temporary Reserved Airspace - C) Terminal Area - D) Temporary Radar Routing Area Correct: B)
Explanation: TRA stands for Temporary Reserved Airspace — airspace of defined dimensions within which activities requiring reservation of airspace are conducted for a specified period. TRAs are used for military exercises, aerobatic displays, parachuting, or other temporary activities. They are published via NOTAM and activated as needed. They differ from TSAs (Temporary Segregated Areas) in that TRAs may be shared with other traffic under certain conditions when not active.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q14) - A) To obtain a clearance to enter this area - B) To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact - C) To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority - D) The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000 - Correct: B)
Explanation: An RMZ (Radio Mandatory Zone) requires all aircraft to carry and operate a functioning radio, to monitor the designated frequency continuously, and to establish two-way radio contact with the responsible ATC unit before entry if possible. It does not require a formal ATC clearance (unlike a CTR). A transponder is not mandated by RMZ designation alone — that is required in a TMZ. This is defined in SERA.6005 and national AIP supplements.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q15) - A) Transponder Mandatory Zone - B) Transportation Management Zone - C) Touring Motorglider Zone - D) Traffic Management Zone Correct: A)
Explanation: TMZ stands for Transponder Mandatory Zone — airspace within which all aircraft must be equipped with and operate a pressure-altitude reporting transponder (Mode C or Mode S). This allows ATC and other aircraft (via TCAS/FLARM) to identify and separate traffic. TMZs are often established around busy airports or in complex airspace. Glider pilots must be aware that many glider airfields and soaring areas are now overlaid with TMZs requiring transponder equipment.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q16) - A) Visibility in flight is more than 5 km. - B) Flight is conducted under visual flight rules. - C) Visibility in flight is more than 8 km. - D) Flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions. Correct: B)
Explanation: A "visual flight" (VFR flight) is defined by the rules under which it is conducted — specifically, Visual Flight Rules (VFR) — not simply by the prevailing visibility. A flight is VFR when the pilot navigates by external visual reference and complies with VFR separation minima and procedures. VMC (Visual Meteorological Conditions) describes the weather minima required to conduct VFR flight; but a flight can be in VMC and still be flown under IFR. The distinction between the rule set and the conditions is important.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q17) - A) Variable meteorological conditions - B) Visual meteorological conditions - C) Instrument flight conditions - D) Visual flight rules Correct: B)
Explanation: VMC stands for Visual Meteorological Conditions — the specific weather minima of visibility and cloud clearance defined in SERA.5001 that must be met for VFR flight to be conducted. If conditions fall below VMC minima, the airspace is said to be in IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) and VFR flight is not permitted unless special VFR clearance is granted. VMC minima vary by airspace class and altitude band.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q18) - A) Both have to divert to the left - B) The lighter one has to climb - C) The heavier one has to climb - D) Both have to divert to the right Correct: D)
Explanation: Per SERA.3210, when two aircraft are on converging courses at approximately the same altitude, each shall turn to the right. This creates a situation where both aircraft pass behind each other, avoiding a collision. Weight is irrelevant to right-of-way rules in crossing situations. The "give way to the right" rule applies to converging (not head-on) situations; in a head-on encounter, both aircraft also alter course to the right (SERA.3210(c)).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q19) - A) Both have to divert to the lef - B) The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority - C) Both have to divert to the right - D) The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority Correct: D)
Explanation: Under SERA.3210(b), when two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, the aircraft that has the other on its right must give way. This means the aircraft approaching from the right has right-of-way (i.e., it flies from right to left relative to the other aircraft). The aircraft that sees the other on its right must alter course — typically to the right — to avoid a collision. This is the "right-of-way" rule analogous to maritime rules.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q20) - A) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically - B) 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically - C) 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically - D) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically Correct: A)
Explanation: Per SERA.5001, in airspace classes C, D, and E, VFR flights must maintain a horizontal separation of 1500 m from cloud and a vertical separation of 1000 ft (approximately 300 m) from cloud. The key distinction to remember is that the horizontal minimum is in metres (1500 m) and the vertical minimum is in feet (1000 ft) — mixing units is a common error. These minima apply above 3000 ft AMSL or above 1000 ft AGL, whichever is higher.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q21) - A) 8000 m - B) 1500 m - C) 3000 m - D) 5000 m Correct: D)
Explanation: Per SERA.5001, in airspace class E at and above 3000 ft AMSL (or above 1000 ft AGL) and below FL100, the minimum flight visibility for VFR is 5000 m (5 km). FL75 is approximately 7500 ft, which is above 3000 ft AMSL but below FL100, so the 5000 m rule applies. The 8000 m minimum applies at and above FL100. The 1500 m minimum only applies at or below 3000 ft AMSL/1000 ft AGL in airspace F and G.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q22) - A) 1500 m - B) 3000 m - C) 8000 m - D) 5000 m Correct: C)
Explanation: Per SERA.5001, at and above FL100, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight in all controlled airspace classes (including class C) is 8000 m (8 km). This higher minimum is required at high altitudes because aircraft speeds are typically greater, reducing reaction time, and the increased altitude makes maintaining visual separation from IFR traffic more critical. FL110 is above FL100, so the 8000 m minimum applies.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q23) - A) 8000 m - B) 1500 m - C) 5000 m - D) 3000 m Correct: A)
Explanation: FL125 is above FL100, so the SERA.5001 rule for high-altitude VFR applies: minimum flight visibility is 8000 m in all controlled airspace classes including class C. This is the same threshold as Q22 — both FL110 and FL125 are above FL100, so both require 8000 m. The 5000 m minimum applies below FL100 in most controlled airspace, and the 3000 m/1500 m minima apply only in lower uncontrolled airspace.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q24) - A) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m - B) Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m - C) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m - D) Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft Correct: A)
Explanation: In airspace class B (and also A), VFR flights are generally not permitted unless specifically authorised. However, where VFR is permitted in class B, the cloud clearance minima per SERA.5001 are 1500 m horizontal and 300 m (approximately 1000 ft) vertical. Note that option A states "300 m" vertically using the metre equivalent, while option B states "1000 m" vertically — the correct vertical minimum is 300 m (not 1000 m). The "1000 ft" vertical minimum translates to approximately 300 m.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q25) - A) 1.5 km - B) 8 km - C) 5 km - D) 10 km Correct: C)
Explanation: Per SERA.5001, in airspace class C below FL100 (and above 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL), the minimum VFR flight visibility is 5 km (5000 m). The 8 km minimum only applies at and above FL100. The 1.5 km minimum applies in uncontrolled airspace at low altitudes. Glider pilots operating in class C below FL100 — for example crossing an airway — must ensure at least 5 km visibility.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q26) - A) 1.5 km - B) 10 km - C) 5 km - D) 8 km Correct: D)
Explanation: Per SERA.5001, at and above FL100 in controlled airspace (including class C), VFR flight requires a minimum flight visibility of 8 km. This higher threshold reflects the faster speeds and reduced manoeuvring margins at higher altitudes. The 10 km option is not a standard ICAO/SERA VMC minimum. The progression to remember is: low altitude uncontrolled = 1.5 km, controlled below FL100 = 5 km, at and above FL100 = 8 km.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q27) - A) Height of the base of the highest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft. - B) Height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 10000 ft. - C) Height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft. - D) Altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft. Correct: C)
Explanation: "Ceiling" is defined as the height (not altitude) of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more than half the sky (i.e., more than 4 oktas — BKN or OVC) below 20,000 ft. Option A is wrong because it refers to the "highest" layer (should be lowest). Option B is wrong because the threshold is 20,000 ft, not 10,000 ft. Option D is wrong because ceiling is expressed as height (above ground level) not altitude (above mean sea level). This definition is from ICAO Annex 2 and SERA.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q28) - A) Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield - B) You may continue your flight - C) Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area - D) You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately Correct: B)
Explanation: Per ICAO Annex 2, Appendix 1, Section 2, when an intercepting aircraft makes an abrupt break-away manoeuvre of 90 degrees or more and climbs away without crossing the intercepted aircraft's track, this signal means "You may proceed" — the intercept is complete and the intercepted aircraft is cleared to continue its flight. This is the standard release signal. The "follow me" signal involves the interceptor rocking wings and heading towards a destination. Pilots must study all ICAO interception signals as part of Air Law.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q29) - A) Local QFE. - B) Local QNH. - C) 1030.25 hPa. - D) 1013.25 hPa. Correct: D)
Explanation: Flight levels (FL) are defined relative to the standard atmosphere pressure of 1013.25 hPa (the International Standard Atmosphere setting, also called QNE or standard setting). When flying at or above the transition altitude (which varies by country but is typically between 3000 ft and 18,000 ft), pilots set their altimeter to 1013.25 hPa and read flight levels. QNH gives altitude above sea level, QFE gives height above a specific aerodrome — neither is used when referencing flight levels.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q30) - A) To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP - B) To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres - C) To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude - D) To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern Correct: C)
Explanation: The semi-circular (hemispherical) cruising level rule (SERA.5015) assigns specific altitude bands to specific magnetic tracks — eastbound flights use odd thousands of feet, westbound flights use even thousands. By separating aircraft flying in opposite directions onto different altitude levels, the probability of a head-on collision at the same altitude is greatly reduced. This is a passive separation tool requiring no ATC involvement, applicable primarily to en-route cruise flight above the transition altitude.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q31) - A) Transponder approved for airspace "B". - B) Mode C or S transponder. - C) Pressure-decoder. - D) Mode A transponder. Correct: B)
Explanation: Mode A transponders transmit only a 4-digit identity (squawk) code. Mode C transponders add pressure altitude reporting — they encode and transmit the pressure altitude from an encoding altimeter, allowing ATC secondary radar to display both identity and altitude. Mode S provides all Mode C capabilities plus selective interrogation, aircraft identification (callsign), and data link capabilities. Mode A alone cannot report altitude, so options A and D are incorrect. "Pressure-decoder" is not an aviation term.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q32) - A) 2000 - B) 7600 - C) 7000 - D) 7700 Correct: B)
Explanation: The standard emergency transponder codes are: 7700 = General emergency, 7600 = Radio communication failure (loss of comms), 7500 = Unlawful interference (hijacking). Code 7000 is the VFR conspicuity code used in many European countries when no specific ATC code has been assigned. Code 2000 is used when entering controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace without a prior assigned code. In a radio failure, squawking 7600 alerts ATC immediately to the communication problem.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q33) - A) 7700 - B) 7600 - C) 7500 - D) 7000 Correct: B)
Explanation: Upon experiencing a radio communication failure, the pilot should immediately squawk 7600 (the international radio failure code) without waiting for any ATC request or instruction — since communication is by definition impossible. Code 7700 is for general emergencies, 7500 for unlawful interference, and 7000 is the general VFR code. Setting 7600 proactively informs ATC of the situation, triggering the loss-of-communications procedures defined in national AIPs and ICAO Annex 11.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q34) - A) 7500 - B) 7700 - C) 7000 - D) 7600 Correct: B)
Explanation: In any general emergency (engine failure, fire, medical emergency, severe structural damage, etc.), the pilot must set transponder code 7700 immediately and without waiting for ATC instruction. Code 7700 triggers an alarm on ATC radar displays and activates emergency procedures. Code 7500 is specifically for unlawful interference (hijacking) only — it should not be used for other emergencies. The phrase "unrequested" emphasises that the pilot must act autonomously without waiting for radio contact.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q35) - A) ATC (air traffic control) - B) AIS (aeronautical information service) - C) ALR (alerting service) - D) FIS (flight information service) Correct: A)
Explanation: Air Traffic Control (ATC) is specifically responsible for providing separation between aircraft and ensuring the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic, including the safe conduct of flights in controlled airspace. FIS provides information useful for safe and efficient conduct of flights but does not control aircraft. ALR initiates search and rescue when aircraft are overdue or in distress. AIS provides aeronautical information publications but has no operational control role. Per ICAO Annex 11, ATC has the active separation and safety function.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q36) - A) ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service) - B) FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service) - C) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service) - D) TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) Correct: D)
Explanation: Per ICAO Annex 11, the three constituent units of Air Traffic Control service are: TWR (Aerodrome Control — controls traffic at and around the aerodrome), APP (Approach Control — handles departing and arriving traffic in the terminal area), and ACC (Area Control Centre — handles en-route traffic in control areas/airways). FIS is a separate service from ATC. ALR and SAR are emergency services, not ATC. AIS and AFS are information/communication services, not control services.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q37) - A) VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic - B) VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic - C) VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic - D) IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic Correct: A)
Explanation: In class E airspace, IFR traffic receives separation from other IFR traffic, but VFR traffic is not separated from anything — neither from other VFR traffic nor from IFR traffic. VFR flights in class E receive traffic information where possible (from FIS) but no ATC separation service. This is a key distinction for glider pilots who frequently operate in class E: they must maintain their own separation from all traffic using see-and-avoid principles. Class E is the lowest class of controlled airspace where IFR is permitted.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q38) - A) FIS (flight information service) ALR (alerting service) - B) ATC (air traffic control) FIS (flight information service) - C) ATC (air traffic control) AIS (aeronautical information service) - D) AIS (aeronautical information service) SAR (search and rescue) Correct: A)
Explanation: A Flight Information Region (FIR) is the basic organisational unit of airspace, within which two services are provided: FIS (Flight Information Service) — providing pilots with weather, NOTAM, and other relevant information — and ALR (Alerting Service) — notifying appropriate organisations when aircraft are in distress or overdue. ATC is only provided within designated controlled airspace (CTAs, CTRs, airways) that may exist within an FIR, not throughout the entire FIR. Per ICAO Annex 11, FIS and ALR are the universal FIR services.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q39) - A) By a personal visit. - B) Via telephone. - C) Via radio communication. - D) Via internet. Correct: C)
Explanation: FIS (Flight Information Service) is an operational ATC service provided to airborne pilots in flight. The primary and essentially only operational means of contacting FIS during flight is via radio communication on the designated FIS frequency. While pre-flight briefing information may be obtained by telephone or online, the in-flight FIS service itself is radio-based. A personal visit is meaningless for an airborne pilot, and internet communication is not used for real-time in-flight FIS contact.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q40) - A) Caution wake turbulence - B) Be careful wake winds - C) Danger jet blast - D) Attention propwash Correct: A)
Explanation: The standard ICAO phraseology for wake turbulence warnings is "CAUTION WAKE TURBULENCE" — this is the prescribed phrase used by ATC when issuing wake turbulence warnings to pilots following heavier aircraft. ICAO Doc 4444 (PANS-ATM) specifies standardised phraseology, and non-standard phrases like "wake winds," "jet blast," or "propwash" are not ICAO-approved terminology. Standardised phraseology reduces ambiguity and is mandatory in EASA airspace.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q41) - A) DEABC reaching "N" - B) DEABC, "N", 2500 ft - C) DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft - D) DEABC over "N" at 35 Correct: B)
Explanation: A standard position report per ICAO Doc 4444 includes: aircraft callsign, position (fix or waypoint), and altitude/flight level. Option B (DEABC, "N", 2500 ft) provides all three elements concisely and correctly. Option A is incomplete (no altitude). Option C uses nonsensical terminology ("FL 2500 ft" — flight levels and feet are not combined this way). Option D lacks altitude and uses "at 35" without context. Correct position reporting is essential for ATC situational awareness.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q42) - A) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces - B) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods - C) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees - D) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces Correct: C)
Explanation: The AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication) is structured in three parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). The GEN section contains general information including map icons/symbols, list of radio navigation aids, tables of sunrise/sunset, national regulations, fees, and administrative information. ENR contains en-route information including airspace, airways, and restricted areas. AD contains aerodrome-specific information including charts, procedures, and frequencies.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q43) - A) GEN MET RAC - B) GEN AGA COM - C) GEN COM MET - D) GEN ENR AD Correct: D)
Explanation: Per ICAO Annex 15 (Aeronautical Information Services), the AIP is divided into three standardised parts: GEN (General), ENR (En-Route), and AD (Aerodromes). GEN contains general administrative and regulatory information; ENR contains airspace structure, routes, and navigation aids; AD contains information specific to individual aerodromes. The other options (MET, RAC, AGA, COM) are abbreviations from older ICAO documentation structures no longer used in modern AIP organisation.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q44) - A) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces. - B) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods - C) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts - D) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees Correct: C)
Explanation: The AD (Aerodromes) section of the AIP contains all aerodrome-specific information: aerodrome classification, runway data, lighting, frequencies, ground handling, approach and departure charts, taxi charts, obstacle data, operating hours, and special procedures. Option A describes ENR content. Option D describes GEN content. Option B contains a mix of items that do not correspond to a single AIP section. The AD section is what a pilot consults to prepare for operations at a specific aerodrome.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q45) - A) 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC. - B) 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC. - C) 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC. - D) 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC. Correct: C)
Explanation: NOTAM time codes use the format YYMMDDHHMM in UTC. The "C)" field in a NOTAM is the end time (the "until" time). The code 1305211400 is decoded as: Year 13 (2013), Month 05 (May), Day 21, Time 1400 UTC — giving 21 May 2013 at 14:00 UTC. The "B)" field (1305211200) is the start time: 21 May 2013 at 12:00 UTC. The NOTAM number A1024/13 confirms it is from 2013. Correct NOTAM decoding is a fundamental Air Law skill.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q46) - A) AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight. - B) AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight. - C) NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight. - D) ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight. Correct: C)
Explanation: A PIB (Pre-Flight Information Bulletin) is a standardised summary of current NOTAMs relevant to a planned flight, prepared and issued prior to departure. It filters and presents the NOTAMs pertinent to the route, departure and destination aerodromes, and alternate aerodromes. It is based on NOTAM data (not AIP or AIC data), and is prepared before the flight (not after). PIBs are available from AIS offices, online briefing systems, and flight planning services. Per ICAO Annex 15, it is a key pre-flight planning tool.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q47) - A) The highest point of the apron. - B) The lowest point of the landing area. - C) The highest point of the landing area. - D) The average value of the height of the manoeuvring area. Correct: C)
Explanation: Per ICAO Annex 14, aerodrome elevation is defined as the elevation of the highest point of the landing area. This definition ensures that the published elevation represents the most demanding terrain height that aircraft must clear during approach and departure from the landing surface. It is not the average, not the apron elevation, and not the lowest point. Aerodrome elevation is used to calculate QFE (the altimeter setting that causes the altimeter to read zero at the aerodrome) and for obstacle clearance calculations.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q48) - A) Round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft - B) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters. - C) Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. - D) Rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. Correct: C)
Explanation: Per ICAO Annex 14, a runway is defined as a rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. The key elements are: rectangular (not round), land aerodrome (not water — water aerodromes have alighting areas, not runways), and aircraft in general (not specifically helicopters, which use helidecks or helipads). Option D is incorrect because runways are specific to land aerodromes. Option A is wrong (shape). Option B is wrong (specifies helicopters only).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q49) - A) The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower. - B) The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials. - C) The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle. - D) The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface. Correct: C)
Explanation: Per ICAO Annex 14, a wind direction indicator (windsock or wind tee) should be clearly visible and may be surrounded by a white circle to enhance its visibility against the aerodrome background. This white circle provides a high-contrast surround that makes the indicator easier to identify from the air. Mounting it on the control tower (option A) is not a standard visibility-enhancement method. Green materials (B) do not aid visibility. A black surface (D) is not specified as a standard method in ICAO Annex 14.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^q50) - A) T - B) A straight arrow - C) L - D) An angled arrow Correct: A)
Explanation: Per ICAO Annex 14, the landing direction indicator is T-shaped (commonly called a "landing T" or "signal T"). When displayed, the cross-bar of the T indicates the direction in which landings and take-offs should be made — aircraft land toward and take off away from the cross-bar. The T is white and should be clearly visible from the air. The L-shaped indicator is used for a different purpose (indicating a right-hand traffic circuit). Arrows are not the standard ICAO shape for a landing direction indicator.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_5) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: D)
Explanation: It is the pilot-in-command who is responsible for ensuring that the required documents are on board and properly maintained. This responsibility falls on the PIC regardless of ownership or operation of the aircraft.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_13) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: A)
Explanation: All of these special activities — parachuting, captive balloons, air shows, aerobatic flights and demonstrations — require OFAC (Federal Office of Civil Aviation) authorization. The Federal Council may subject all of these activities to prior authorization for reasons of public safety.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_19) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: C)
Explanation: Under Swiss aviation law, dropping objects from an aircraft in flight is in principle prohibited, but the Federal Council may define exceptions (for example: parachuting, emergency drops, authorized agricultural activities). It is neither an absolute prohibition nor a general authorization.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_18) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: A)
Explanation: The certification basis (type certificate data sheet) is specified in the annex to the certificate of airworthiness. This document defines the approved operating conditions, mass limits, authorized flight categories and required equipment for the aircraft.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_11) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: B)
Explanation: For an aircraft not used for commercial traffic, maintenance work performed abroad must be carried out by an organization recognized by the competent aviation authority of the country concerned — not necessarily by an EASA-certified organization or one specifically recognized by OFAC. The competent national authority of the country where the maintenance is performed is the applicable reference.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_12) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: A)
Explanation: Advertising on aircraft is permitted under Swiss law, subject to other provisions of federal legislation. The only mandatory condition is that the nationality and registration marks remain easily recognizable. No special OFAC authorization is required to apply advertising markings.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_2) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: C)
Explanation: The licence must be issued or recognized by the country of registration of the aircraft. It is the state of registration that defines the qualification requirements for crew operating its aircraft, in accordance with ICAO Annex 1.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_1) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: A)
Explanation: Two cumulative conditions are required: authorization to install and use the radio (granted by the competent authority) AND the radio qualification of crew members who use the equipment. Simple training is not sufficient — a formally recognized qualification is required.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_17) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: D)
Explanation: The radiotelephony qualification is mandatory for all pilots wishing to communicate with ATC services. Additionally, aeroplane and helicopter pilots (but not necessarily glider or balloon pilots under Swiss regulations) must also hold a valid language proficiency attestation in the language used on the frequencies.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_20) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: B)
Explanation: Any change in medical condition — including the prescription of corrective lenses — must be reported promptly to the aviation medical examiner (AME). Waiting until the next routine examination is not acceptable. The AME will determine whether the condition affects medical fitness and whether additional restrictions or conditions apply to the licence.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_6) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: A)
Explanation: Special VFR (SVFR) is only possible within a CTR (Control Zone). It is in this controlled airspace immediately surrounding an aerodrome that ATC can authorize a special VFR flight when meteorological conditions are below normal VMC minima. The CTR is the only zone where this authorization can be granted by the competent ATC.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_15) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: B)
Explanation: The standard ICAO rule in case of convergence is that each aircraft turns right. This symmetrical rule prevents collision by allowing both aircraft to pass behind one another. It applies when neither aircraft has clear right-of-way priority over the other according to right-of-way rules.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_8) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: A)
Explanation: In Class D airspace below FL100 (10,000 ft AMSL), the VMC minima are: visibility 5 km, horizontal cloud distance 1,500 m (1.5 km) and vertical cloud distance 300 m (equivalent to 1,000 ft). These are the same minima as for Classes C and E in this altitude band, in accordance with SERA.5001.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_4) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: A)
Explanation: In Switzerland, airspace classes C, D and E are controlled airspace. Class G is uncontrolled airspace. Classes A and B exist theoretically in the ICAO classification but are not used in Switzerland. Class E, while controlled, does not impose separation on VFR traffic.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_10) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: B)
Explanation: In aviation, "day" is defined as the period from the beginning of morning civil twilight (30 minutes before sunrise) to the end of evening civil twilight (30 minutes after sunset). This definition is broader than astronomical sunrise/sunset and is used to determine the rules applicable to day and night flights.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_14) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: B)
Explanation: The legal definition of an aviation accident includes two distinct categories: events causing serious or fatal injuries to persons, AND events causing significant structural damage to the aircraft (structural integrity, performance or flight characteristics significantly impaired). Both situations constitute an accident, independently of one another.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_7) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: B)
Explanation: The transport document (ticket) constitutes proof that a contract of carriage has been concluded between the pilot and the passenger. Under the Montreal Convention, the existence of such a contract limits the carrier's liability for damage to baggage and for delays. Without a transport document, liability may be unlimited. The Convention does not release the pilot from all liability — it caps it under certain conditions.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_16) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: C)
Explanation: The AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular) contains information that does not meet the criteria for publication in a NOTAM or in the AIP, but which is nevertheless useful for flight safety, air navigation or technical, administrative and legislative matters. It is supplementary information, not a primary regulatory document.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_9) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes
Correct: C)
Explanation: The aerodrome operations manual covers the entire organization and operational procedures: general organization, opening hours, approach and takeoff procedures, use of facilities by all users (passengers, aircraft, vehicles) and ground handling services. It is a comprehensive document defining the operation of the aerodrome.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_10_3) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Communes Ground signal:
] Two dumbbells — signal indicating that landings and takeoffs are to be made on runways only, but that other maneuvers (taxiing) may be carried out outside the runways and taxiways.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The dumbbell signal displayed in the signals area indicates that landings and takeoffs must be made on runways only, but that other maneuvers (taxiing, turning, positioning) may be conducted outside the runways and taxiways. This signal is distinct from the dumbbell with a cross bar, which indicates that all maneuvers are restricted to runways and taxiways.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_1) - A) One turns right, the other turns left. - B) Each turns right. - C) Each turns left. - D) One flies straight ahead while the other turns right. Correct: B)
Explanation: When aircraft approach head-on, each pilot must turn right (ICAO Annex 2, rule 3.2.1). This mirrors international road rules, ensuring both aircraft avoid each other on the same side.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_2) - A) Class G and E airspaces. - B) Class G, E and D airspaces. - C) Class C airspace. - D) Class G airspace. Correct: A)
Explanation: In Switzerland, uncontrolled airspaces are classes G and E. Class E is uncontrolled for VFR traffic. Classes C, D and TMA are controlled airspaces.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_3) - A) The Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications (DETEC). - B) The Aero-Club of Switzerland. - C) The cantonal police forces. - D) The Swiss air navigation services (Skyguide). Correct: A)
Explanation: In Switzerland, the Federal Council delegates aviation oversight to the DETEC (Federal Department of the Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications), which delegates to FOCA (BAZL/OFAC). Skyguide manages air navigation but is not the supervisory authority.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_4) - A) For a VFR flight in Class E airspace. - B) For a VFR flight covering more than 300 km without a stop. - C) For a VFR flight that requires the use of air traffic control services. - D) For a VFR flight over the Alps, Pre-Alps or Jura. Correct: C)
Explanation: A VFR flight plan is required in Switzerland when the flight requires the use of air traffic control services (e.g., transiting a CTR, TMA or controlled airspace). A flight over 300 km or over the Alps does not necessarily require one.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_5) - A) At least 150 m above the ground. - B) At least 150 m above the highest obstacle within a 300 m radius of the aircraft. - C) At least 300 m above the ground. - D) At least 450 m above the ground. Correct: B)
Explanation: In VFR flight, the minimum altitude over densely populated areas is 150 m above the highest obstacle within a 300 m radius around the aircraft (SERA.5005 and ICAO Annex 2).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_6) - A) Aircraft that have received an ATC clearance to taxi. - B) Aircraft on final approach. - C) Aircraft arriving from another aerodrome that are in the aerodrome circuit. - D) Aircraft manoeuvring on the ground. Correct: B)
Explanation: According to ICAO Annex 2, aircraft on final approach always have priority over other aircraft in flight or on the ground. ATC clearances do not override the right-of-way rules for final approach.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_7)
] - A) Only hard-surface runways are to be used for landing and takeoff. - B) Takeoff and landing only on runways; other manoeuvres are not restricted to the use of runways and taxiways. - C) Glider flying in progress at this aerodrome. - D) All runways at this aerodrome are closed. Correct: C)
Explanation: The signal shown (glider symbol or glider wings) indicates that glider flying is in progress at the aerodrome. This is a standard ICAO signal to warn other aircraft.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_8) - A) The owner of the aircraft. - B) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft. - C) The operator of the aircraft. - D) The operator of the air transport undertaking (Operator). Correct: B)
Explanation: The Pilot-in-Command (PIC) is responsible for ensuring that the required documents are on board the aircraft before flight (ICAO Annex 2, Swiss aviation regulations).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_9) - A) The landing T. - B) The wind sock. - C) The two digits displayed vertically on the control tower. - D) The ATC instruction transmitted by radio from the control tower. Correct: D)
Explanation: ATC radio instructions have the highest priority (outside of a safety emergency). They take precedence over the landing T, wind sock, and tower markings. Only a genuine emergency justifies deviating from ATC instructions.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_10) - A) 7500 - B) 7600 - C) 7700 - D) 7000 Correct: B)
Explanation: The transponder code for radio failure is 7600. Code 7500 is for hijacking, 7700 for general emergency, and 7000 is the standard VFR squawk code in Europe.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_11) - A) Yes, absolutely. - B) Yes, but only for safety reasons. - C) Yes, but only in Class G airspace. - D) No, under no circumstances. Correct: B)
Explanation: Deviation from air traffic rules is only permitted for safety reasons, and only to the extent strictly necessary. This is the only legal exception provided by ICAO Annex 2.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_12) - A) 5.0 km / 300 m / 1500 m - B) 8.0 km / 300 m / 1500 m - C) 8.0 km / 100 m / 300 m - D) 1.5 km / 50 m / 100 m Correct: B)
Explanation: In Class E airspace above 1000 ft MSL (here at 2100 m AMSL ≈ 6900 ft), VMC requires: visibility 8 km, cloud clearance 300 m vertically and 1500 m horizontally (SERA.5001).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_13) - A) At the end of civil twilight. - B) At sunset. - C) At the beginning of civil twilight. - D) 30 minutes before the end of civil twilight. Correct: B)
Explanation: In Switzerland, a daytime VFR flight must be completed no later than sunset. Flights after sunset require special authorization or a night flight qualification.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_14) - A) No. - B) Yes. - C) Yes, provided I have sufficient command of phraseology. - D) Yes, provided other radio communications are not disrupted. Correct: B)
Explanation: Yes, a pilot may use the aircraft radio to communicate with ATC without the radiotelephony extension, in airspaces where this is required. The radiotelephony qualification is needed for certain controlled airspaces but not for general radio use.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_15) - A) Aerobatic flights. - B) Search and rescue flights. - C) Aerial photography flights. - D) Mountain flights. Correct: B)
Explanation: Search and rescue (SAR) flights may be conducted without special FOCA authorization below prescribed minimum altitudes, to the extent necessary. Other flight types mentioned require special authorizations.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_16) - A) No. - B) Yes, in Class E airspace. - C) Yes, but only if it is a controlled VFR flight (CVFR). - D) Yes, but only if it is a special VFR flight (SVFR). Correct: A)
Explanation: No. At FL 115 with only 5 km visibility, VFR flight through an airway (class C or D airspace) is not permitted, as the minimum required visibility is 8 km and cloud clearance of 1500 m/300 m must be maintained.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_17) - A) Yes, but only outside controlled airspace. - B) Yes, but only if the pilots-in-command are in permanent radio contact with each other. - C) Yes, provided the pilots-in-command have coordinated beforehand. - D) Yes, but only with authorisation from the Federal Office of Civil Aviation. Correct: C)
Explanation: Formation flights are permitted in Switzerland provided the pilots-in-command have coordinated beforehand. They do not require permanent radio contact or special FOCA authorization.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_18)
] - A) This signal applies only to powered aircraft. - B) The pilot may choose the landing direction. - C) Landing prohibited. - D) Caution during approach and landing. Correct: C)
Explanation: A red square with two white diagonal crosses (St. Andrew's cross) means: landing prohibited. This is a standard ICAO signal placed in the signal area.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_19) - A) Yes. - B) Only if permanent contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained. Otherwise, the rules of the airspace class in which the FIZ is located apply. - C) Only with the authorisation of the Flight Information Service (FIS) and if the pilot is qualified to use radiotelephony in English. - D) No, it is strictly prohibited for VFR flights. Correct: B)
Explanation: A FIZ (Flight Information Zone) may be transited provided permanent radio contact with AFIS (Aerodrome Flight Information Service) is maintained. The rules of the applicable airspace class apply.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_101_20) - A) Only the crash of an aircraft or helicopter. - B) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which a person was killed or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustained damage notably affecting its structural strength, performance or flight characteristics. - C) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which at least one person was killed or seriously injured. - D) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft requiring costly repairs. Correct: B)
Explanation: An aviation accident includes any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which a person was killed or seriously injured AND/OR the aircraft sustained damage notably affecting its structure, performance or flight characteristics. The ICAO definition (Annex 13) is comprehensive.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_1) - A) Yes, except light signals for aircraft on the ground. - B) Yes. - C) No. - D) Yes, but only signals placed on the ground, not light signals. Correct: B)
Explanation: Yes, all observed or received signals are mandatory for the glider pilot. ICAO Annex 2 states that pilots must comply with all visual and radio signals.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_2) - A) 600 m AGL. - B) There is no specific height figure; however, one must fly in a manner that allows reaching clear terrain suitable for a risk-free landing at any time. - C) 150 m AGL above the highest obstacle within a 600 m radius of the aircraft. - D) 300 m AGL. Correct: C)
Explanation: Minimum height over densely populated areas is 150 m AGL above the highest obstacle within a 600 m radius around the aircraft (SERA.5005).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_3) - A) In Class E and G airspaces. - B) In Class A and B airspaces. - C) Only in Class G airspace. - D) In Class C, D, E and G airspaces. Correct: A)
Explanation: In Switzerland, VFR flight without control is permitted in Class E and G airspace. In Class C and D, control is required.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_4)
] - A) Landing prohibited. - B) This signal applies only to powered aircraft. - C) The pilot may choose the landing direction. - D) Caution during approach and landing. Correct: D)
Explanation: The signal shown (two white squares forming a T shape) indicates: caution during approach and landing. Beware of obstacles or special conditions.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_5) - A) In the aircraft flight manual. - B) In the maintenance manual. - C) In the operations manual. - D) In the journey log (aircraft logbook). Correct: D)
Explanation: Technical deficiencies must be recorded in the aircraft's journey log (logbook/tech log). This is the official document tracking technical status.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_6) - A) Private use is generally permitted; commercial photography is subject to authorisation. - B) Each State is free to prohibit or regulate their use over its territory. - C) Use is generally prohibited. - D) Use is generally permitted. Correct: B)
Explanation: Internationally, each State is free to prohibit or regulate the use of cameras above its territory. There is no uniform ICAO rule on this point.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_7) - A) The delineated runway portion is not usable. - B) Caution during approach and landing. - C) Glider flying in progress at this aerodrome. - D) They mark the landing area in use. Correct: A)
Explanation: White or visible color signals on a runway indicate that the delineated runway portion is not usable (closed or degraded area).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_8) - A) Each pilot logs only the flight time during which they were actually flying. - B) Each pilot logs half the time. - C) The pilot who made the landing may log the total flight time; the other only the time during which they were actually flying. - D) Each pilot may log the total flight time, as both hold a licence. Correct: D)
Explanation: When two licensed pilots fly together, each pilot may log the total flight time in their logbook. This is in accordance with Swiss and ICAO rules.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_9) - A) Turn left. - B) Turn downward. - C) Turn right. - D) Turn upward. Correct: C)
Explanation: An aircraft overtaking another must give way by turning right. This is the ICAO overtaking rule (Annex 2, rule 3.2.1).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_10) - A) For a VFR flight covering more than 300 km without a stop. - B) For a VFR flight in controlled airspace. - C) For a VFR flight over the Alps. - D) For a VFR flight that requires the use of air traffic control services. Correct: D)
Explanation: In Switzerland, a flight plan is required for flights requiring the use of ATC services. Simple domestic flights (300 km, Alps) do not require one.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_11) - A) The air traffic control service. - B) The flight information service. - C) The second pilot when two pilots are on board. - D) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft. Correct: D)
Explanation: In VFR, collision avoidance is the responsibility of the pilot-in-command (PIC). ATC provides information but is not responsible for separation in VFR.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_12) - A) Only the crash of an aircraft. - B) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which a person was killed or seriously injured, or the aircraft sustained damage notably affecting its structural strength, performance or flight characteristics. - C) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft during which at least one person was killed or seriously injured. - D) Any event related to the operation of an aircraft requiring costly repairs. Correct: B)
Explanation: ICAO definition (Annex 13) of an aviation accident includes events with killed/seriously injured persons AND/OR significant aircraft damage affecting flight characteristics.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_13) - A) Gliders give way to aircraft that are towing. - B) Aircraft give way to aircraft that are visibly towing other aircraft or objects. - C) Gliders and motor gliders give way to free balloons. - D) Airships give way to gliders. Correct: A)
Explanation: This is the inaccurate statement: gliders do NOT give way to tow planes. It is the opposite: aircraft give way to aircraft that are visibly towing other aircraft or objects.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_14) - A) Ground visibility 8 km, ceiling 450 m/GND. - B) Ground visibility 1.5 km, ceiling 300 m/GND. - C) Ground visibility 5 km, ceiling 150 m/GND. - D) Ground visibility 5 km, ceiling 450 m/GND. Correct: B)
Explanation: To take off/land in a CTR under SVFR without specific authorization: minimum ground visibility 1.5 km and minimum ceiling 300 m/GND. These are Swiss SVFR minimums.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_15) - A) As height. - B) As flight level. - C) As altitude. - D) Either as altitude or height. Correct: C)
Explanation: Below transition altitude in a TMA or CTR, vertical position is expressed in altitude (above mean sea level, with QNH setting).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_16) - A) 1.5 km. - B) 10 km. - C) 8 km. - D) 5 km. Correct: A)
Explanation: In Class G airspace without special conditions, minimum visibility required is 1.5 km. Below 3000 ft AMSL and within 1000 ft of the surface.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_17) - A) Only if permanent radio contact with the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) is maintained. Otherwise, the rules of the airspace class in which the FIZ is located apply. - B) Yes. - C) Yes, but only with the authorisation of the Flight Information Service (FIS) and only if the pilot is qualified to use radiotelephony in English. - D) No, transit is not permitted under any circumstances for VFR flights. Correct: A)
Explanation: FIZ transit is permitted if permanent radio contact with AFIS is maintained. The rules of the airspace class in which the FIZ is located apply.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_18) - A) The owner. - B) The mechanic. - C) The operator. - D) The maintenance organisation. Correct: C)
Explanation: The operator is responsible for the regulatory maintenance of an aircraft. For private aircraft, the owner often acts as the operator.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_19) - A) The smaller one. - B) The faster one. - C) The one flying higher. - D) The one flying lower. Correct: D)
Explanation: When two aircraft approach an aerodrome simultaneously, the one flying lower (on a more advanced final approach) has right of way.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/10%20-%20Droit%20a%C3%A9rien.md#^bazl_102_20) - A) 5.0 km - 300 m - 1500 m - B) 1.5 km - 50 m - 100 m - C) 8.0 km - 100 m - 300 m - D) 8.0 km - 300 m - 1500 m Correct: D)
Explanation: In Class E at 6500 ft (2000 m) AMSL (> 1000 ft AGL), VMC: visibility 8 km, cloud clearance 300 m vertically and 1500 m horizontally.
