68 questions
Correct: C)
Explanation: Near the stall, the primary recovery action is to push the elevator to reduce the angle of attack and prevent the full stall from developing. Using coordinated rudder and aileron inputs keeps the wings level without inducing adverse yaw, which near the stall could trigger a spin. Using ailerons alone in an asymmetric near-stall condition risks dropping the lower wing further and entering a spin.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Under EASA regulations, flight time for gliders is defined as the total time from when the aircraft first moves for the purpose of flight until it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. This includes taxiing and ground movement, not just airborne time. This definition is important for logging purposes and compliance with duty time regulations.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Wind shear is defined as a variation in wind velocity (either speed or direction, or both) over a short distance, which can be either vertical or horizontal. It is not limited to any particular speed threshold. Wind shear is hazardous because it can cause sudden changes in lift, requiring immediate corrective action, and is particularly dangerous during takeoff and landing phases.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Thunderstorms produce the most severe wind shear due to their strong updrafts, downdrafts, and outflow winds (microbursts). The gust front ahead of a thunderstorm can produce sudden wind direction reversals and speed changes of 50 knots or more in seconds. For glider pilots, thunderstorms represent an extreme hazard both for wind shear and for the risk of being drawn into the cloud.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A temperature inversion creates a stable layer that acts as a boundary between two air masses moving at different speeds or directions, producing wind shear at the inversion level. Inversions are common in the early morning before thermals break through and can significantly affect glider operations near the ground. Wind shear at low altitude during approach is particularly dangerous as recovery options are limited.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When headwind decreases during approach, the aircraft's groundspeed increases but the airflow over the wings drops, causing IAS to decrease and lift to reduce. With less lift, the aircraft descends below the intended glidepath. This is a critical scenario for gliders on final approach, as the combination of low altitude, reduced airspeed, and a low path leaves very little margin for recovery.
Correct: C)
Explanation: An increasing headwind temporarily increases the airflow over the wings, causing both IAS and lift to increase, which pushes the aircraft above the intended glidepath. Although this initially appears benign, the pilot must be alert because when the headwind component stops increasing or decreases again, IAS will drop and the aircraft may sink rapidly below the desired path.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When a tailwind component decreases during approach, the aircraft's momentum carries it forward while relative headwind effectively increases, causing IAS to rise and lift to increase. This pushes the aircraft above the glidepath. While temporarily safer than a decreasing headwind scenario, the pilot must respond promptly with spoilers/airbrakes to avoid overshooting the landing area — particularly important in off-field landings.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The most effective avoidance strategy is to defer takeoff or landing whenever heavy showers or thunderstorms are in the vicinity of the airfield, as these produce the most severe and unpredictable wind shear. Heavy precipitation is a visual cue for nearby microbursts and gust fronts. Glider pilots should wait until convective weather has passed the airfield before operating, as they have no go-around power to escape a shear encounter.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When VMC conditions deteriorate ahead, the correct decision is to turn back toward the area where acceptable visibility was confirmed. Glider pilots are not instrument rated and may not continue flight into IMC conditions. Continuing forward based on forecasts, using radio navigation, or relying on ATC guidance are all inappropriate responses for a VFR-only glider pilot facing deteriorating weather.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Wake turbulence (wingtip vortices) intensity is determined by the lift being generated, which is proportional to the angle of attack. A slower aircraft requires a higher angle of attack to maintain level flight, generating stronger vortices. This is why wake turbulence is most severe during slow flight — at rotation on takeoff and during the landing flare — which are critical moments when following heavier aircraft.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In light crosswind conditions, wake turbulence vortices are not effectively displaced sideways and can settle onto the runway surface or linger near the runway centreline. With a stronger crosswind, one vortex would be blown clear while the other might remain, but a slight crosswind provides insufficient clearing effect. Gliders, being very light, are especially vulnerable to wake turbulence and require appropriate separation after heavy aircraft departures.
Correct: D)
Explanation: A harvested cornfield offers a firm, relatively flat, and obstacle-free surface with short stubble that provides reasonable ground roll conditions. Plowed fields have deep furrows that can cause nose-over accidents. Long dry grass conceals surface irregularities and can hide ditches or holes. A sports area in a village introduces the risk of obstacles, fences, and people, making it unsuitable for an emergency landing.
Correct: C)
Explanation: A precautionary landing is a deliberate decision by the pilot to land before conditions force an emergency landing — it is proactive rather than reactive. The pilot chooses to land while still having options and altitude to select a suitable field and conduct a proper circuit. In gliding, the precautionary landing is a key safety concept: landing with margin is always better than pressing on until an emergency situation develops.
Correct: A)
Explanation: A light brown field with short crops (typically a recently harvested or low-growth grain field) provides a firm surface and clear visual indication of the terrain. Ripe waving crops indicate tall plants hiding surface irregularities and can cause the glider to nose over. A meadow without livestock may have hidden ditches, molehills, and soft ground. A lake surface is dangerous as the glider would sink immediately upon water contact.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Wet grass increases rolling resistance during the takeoff run, slowing acceleration and extending the distance needed to reach flying speed. During landing, wet grass dramatically reduces braking friction, extending the ground roll significantly. Both effects are compounded for gliders because they are not powered and cannot accelerate out of trouble, making wet grass conditions a serious operational consideration especially for off-field landings.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Industrial facilities emit pollutants, smoke, and particulates that can reduce visibility and create thermal turbulence from heat sources. Direct exposure to industrial emissions at low altitude presents genuine health hazards through inhalation. Glider pilots sometimes use the thermal updrafts above factories and industrial buildings but should be aware of the reduced visibility, unpleasant air quality, and irregular turbulence these sources produce.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Late decision-making is the primary cause of off-field landing accidents. When the decision is delayed, the pilot arrives too low over the intended field with insufficient height to conduct a proper circuit, assess the surface, check the wind, and set up a safe approach. Rushed approaches made in desperation often lead to misjudged landings, collisions with obstacles, or landing with too much speed. The golden rule is to commit to an off-field landing while still having adequate altitude.
Correct: C)
Explanation: When multiple gliders share a thermal, the internationally agreed convention is that all aircraft circle in the same direction as the first glider already established in the thermal. This coordination eliminates head-on conflict. Pilots should visually acquire all other aircraft before entering the thermal and maintain safe separation by adjusting their circle radius and altitude. Circling in opposite directions at different heights is prohibited as it creates crossing conflicts.
Correct: C)
Explanation: When altitude approaches circuit height and no reliable thermal is immediately available beneath the glider, the correct decision is to commit to an off-field landing rather than gambling on reaching distant thermals. Attempting to glide to a far-off cumulus cloud risks running out of altitude entirely, removing all landing options. Landing deliberately while height and options remain is always safer than pressing on and being forced into an emergency.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Steep turns increase the load factor and raise the effective stall speed significantly — at 60 degrees of bank, stall speed increases by 41%. The pilot must enter a steep turn with sufficient airspeed to maintain safe margin above this elevated stall speed. For gliders with no engine, entering a steep turn too slowly risks a stall from which recovery requires losing altitude, which may not be available near the circuit.
Correct: D)
Explanation: At the point of stall with a wing low, the correct recovery is to simultaneously release back pressure on the elevator (to reduce angle of attack and unstall the wings) and apply rudder opposite to the direction of the lowering wing (to prevent autorotation into a spin). Using ailerons to lift the low wing at the stall is dangerous because the down-going aileron on the low wing increases its angle of attack further, potentially deepening the stall on that wing and triggering a spin.
Correct: C)
Explanation: When the tow cable is attached to a side-mounted release hook rather than the central nose hook, the cable pull has an off-centre line of action that creates a moment arm relative to the glider's centre of gravity. This produces a pitch-up tendency as the cable pulls the nose upward and sideways. The pilot must be aware of this and apply appropriate forward pressure to maintain the correct tow position behind the tug.
Correct: C)
Explanation: When the glider climbs excessively high in aerotow, gently extending the spoilers/airbrakes increases drag and reduces lift, helping to bring the glider back down to the normal tow position. Pushing strongly risks overshooting below the tug's slipstream into the dangerous low position, and could cause the cable to droop and tangle. The spoilers allow a controlled, smooth descent back to the correct position without violent pitch changes.
Correct: B)
Explanation: In a winch launch cable break, the immediate priority is to lower the nose to prevent a stall, as the glider is at a high pitch attitude with rapidly decaying airspeed. Once the nose is down and speed is recovered, the cable is released if not already automatically released, and the pilot then decides based on altitude whether to land straight ahead (below approximately 150m) or attempt a circuit. A 180-degree turn at low altitude after a cable break is extremely dangerous and has caused many fatal accidents.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If a wing touches the ground during the winch launch roll, the immediate and only correct response is to release the cable immediately. The launch must be aborted because a wing-down attitude on a winch launch can cause the aircraft to veer off the runway, ground loop, or cartwheel if the winch cable continues to pull. There is no safe way to continue the launch with a wing already dragging, and attempting corrections while still under cable tension risks making the situation catastrophically worse.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If VNE (never exceed speed) is exceeded during aerotow, the glider pilot must release the tow cable immediately. Exceeding VNE risks structural failure of the glider. Extending spoilers might worsen the structural loading. Pulling the elevator while connected could pitch the glider up violently or cause further control problems. Releasing the cable allows the glider pilot to independently manage the speed and return to safe flying conditions without being dragged faster by the tug.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A long cable trailing from the glider is extremely hazardous — it could snag obstacles, people, or aircraft on the ground, and alters the glider's flight characteristics and centre of gravity. The correct procedure is to gain safe altitude and then release the cable over empty terrain or the airfield where ground crews can retrieve it safely. A low approach to check the cable length is unnecessary and dangerous; the overriding priority is to jettison the cable as soon as it is safe to do so.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If the tug aircraft is lost from sight during aerotow, the glider pilot must release the cable immediately. Without visual contact with the tug, the glider pilot cannot anticipate turns or attitude changes, creating an extreme risk of a collision with the tug aircraft or of being pulled into an uncontrolled attitude. After release, the glider pilot should manoeuvre to the right to clear the tug's flight path, then establish normal gliding flight.
Correct: A)
Explanation: When the glider drifts to the outside of a turn in aerotow, the correct technique is to match the tug's bank angle and then gently use rudder (with coordinated aileron) to reduce the radius and return to the position directly behind the tug. Using a smaller radius alone risks swinging the glider through the correct position and into an inside offset. Spoilers or sideslip would change the speed relationship and make position control harder.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A sudden loss of cable tension during the steep climb phase of a winch launch is treated identically to a cable break — it may be a winch malfunction, engine failure, or cable break. The glider is at a high nose-up attitude with potentially critically low airspeed. The immediate response is to push the nose down firmly to recover flying speed and simultaneously release the cable. Waiting for cable tension to resume or pulling further on the elevator risks a stall at low altitude from which recovery is impossible.
Correct: C)
Explanation: A loose second cable near the glider before launch presents a severe entanglement hazard. If the second cable wraps around the glider or its own cable during the launch, it could cause loss of directional control, structural damage, or a catastrophic accident. The only safe action is to abort the launch immediately and inform ground controllers so the hazard can be cleared before any launch proceeds. This is a strict no-go situation.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Winch cables incorporate a weak link or breaking point designed to fail at a specific load, protecting the glider's airframe from being overstressed by excessive cable tension. If the winch driver applies too much power or the glider's nose pitches up steeply, the cable tension rises rapidly. The breaking point fails before the structural limits of the glider are reached, preventing in-flight structural damage. It is a passive safety device built into every winch launch cable.
Correct: B)
Explanation: If the pilot holds back pressure at the moment the cable releases — whether manually or via the automatic weak link — the sudden removal of cable tension while the elevator is still deflected can cause a violent pitch-up moment, creating extreme structural loads on the airframe. The correct technique is to progressively relax back pressure as the launch reaches its peak and the cable begins to go slack, allowing a smooth transition to free flight without dangerous load spikes.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Landing on a steeply inclined slope requires increased approach speed to provide a safety margin and improve control authority on the uneven terrain. A quick, decisive flare is needed to match the glider's attitude to the slope gradient at touchdown, preventing the nose from striking the uphill slope first. Approaching at minimum speed on a slope leaves insufficient margin for the turbulence and wind gradients common in mountainous terrain and increases the risk of a stall during the flare.
Correct: B)
Explanation: At 6000m MSL, hypoxia becomes rapidly incapacitating — a pilot may have only a few minutes of useful consciousness without supplemental oxygen. The immediate priority is to descend as rapidly as possible to a breathable altitude (below approximately 3000m). Using spoilers and maximum permissible speed achieves the fastest descent rate. Waiting for hypoxia symptoms before acting is dangerous because hypoxia impairs judgment, and the pilot may not recognize their own deteriorating condition until incapacitated.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Emergency release handles in aircraft are universally colour-coded red to ensure immediate identification in an emergency, even under stress or in poor lighting conditions. The red colour follows international aviation convention for emergency and danger-related controls. Glider cockpit canopy emergency releases must be instantly locatable for rapid egress in the event of a fire or post-crash situation where the normal canopy opening mechanism may be inoperative.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Ballast weights and trim masses placed in gliders to adjust the centre of gravity must be rigidly secured because any movement in flight can cause sudden shifts in the CG, altering the handling characteristics unexpectedly and potentially making the aircraft uncontrollable. Additionally, if a weight works loose and slides into the tail, it could jam the control linkages, preventing rudder or elevator movement. Proper securing with approved fastening systems is an airworthiness requirement before every flight.
Correct: C)
Explanation: An ASI failure during a winch launch does not require immediate cable release if the launch is otherwise proceeding normally. The pilot can use visual reference to the horizon for pitch attitude and auditory cues (airstream noise) to estimate speed. The correct response is to complete the launch to normal altitude and then land immediately, using the same visual and audio cues for the approach and landing rather than attempting further cross-country flight without a functioning airspeed indicator.
Correct: C)
Explanation: When the centre of gravity is at or beyond the aft limit, the elevator becomes progressively less effective at controlling pitch because the moment arm from the elevator to the CG is reduced. In extreme cases, the pilot may not be able to push the nose down to recover from a pitch-up or stall, making the aircraft effectively uncontrollable in pitch. This is particularly dangerous during winch launch where pitch attitudes change rapidly and full elevator authority is essential.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Ice accretion on wings disrupts the smooth airfoil shape, increases weight, and drastically reduces the lift coefficient of the wing. This means the wing must fly at a higher angle of attack to generate the same lift, which means it will stall at a higher airspeed than normal. Additionally, ice increases drag significantly. For gliders, even small amounts of ice can cause dramatic performance degradation and render the aircraft dangerous to fly, as the increased stall speed may approach normal flying speeds.
Correct: B)
Explanation: An unlocked undercarriage that collapses on touchdown can cause the aircraft to veer violently, potentially causing a ground loop or nose-over injury. A controlled belly landing on a retracted gear at minimum speed is safer because it provides a predictable, stable deceleration on the fuselage belly. Minimum speed is used to reduce the impact forces and sliding distance. The pilot should select a smooth surface and prepare for the landing as normal, minus the gear extension.
Correct: B)
Explanation: In heavy snowfall, the most immediate and dangerous effect is the sudden and dramatic reduction in visibility, which can reduce from adequate VMC to near-zero in seconds. A glider pilot who suddenly cannot see terrain, obstacles, or other aircraft is in immediate danger, particularly at low altitude during approach or cross-country flight. While icing and pitot blockage are also concerns, loss of visual reference is the most acutely life-threatening effect for a VFR-only glider pilot.
Correct: D)
Explanation: A tailwind landing significantly increases groundspeed for the same airspeed, requiring a much longer ground roll to decelerate. The approach should be flown at normal indicated airspeed (not groundspeed), but the pilot must plan for an extended flare and ground roll and ensure the field is long enough to accommodate this. Using spoilers is important to steepen the approach angle and increase drag during the ground roll. Under no circumstances should speed be reduced below normal approach speed — the airspeed margin above stall must be maintained regardless of groundspeed.
Correct: C)
Explanation: In a tailwind landing, the pilot maintains normal indicated approach speed (the stall margin must be preserved) but recognises that the groundspeed will be higher, resulting in a longer, shallower approach trajectory relative to the ground. The approach path will appear flatter because the aircraft is moving faster over the ground. Increasing airspeed further would worsen the landing distance problem, and sideslip does not compensate for tailwind ground speed.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In gusty conditions, the pilot should add a gust allowance to the normal approach speed — typically half the gust excess (in this case, half of 10 knots = 5 knots) above normal approach speed. The increased speed provides a better margin above stall when the gust drops out and airspeed temporarily decreases. Firm, prompt rudder and aileron inputs are needed to correct rapid attitude changes caused by gusts. Spoilers remain available and should be used normally for glidepath control.
Correct: C)
Explanation: In mountain flying, the lee-side downwind (rotor) zone is extremely dangerous — descending air can exceed the glider's best glide rate, meaning the aircraft loses altitude faster than it can glide away from terrain. The immediate response is to increase airspeed to best penetration speed and turn away from the ridge, heading toward the valley or upwind side where lifting conditions and terrain clearance can be regained. Getting closer to the ridge or circling in the rotor zone dramatically increases the collision risk.
Correct: C)
Explanation: When a cumulus cloud develops into a cumulonimbus (thunderstorm), the updrafts beneath and inside it can reach extreme values — far exceeding the glider's ability to descend out of it — risking involuntary cloud entry, loss of control, structural failure from turbulence, and lightning strike. The pilot must immediately open spoilers and accelerate to maximum permitted speed to maximise the descent rate and penetrate away from the lifting area as quickly as possible. Entering a thunderstorm cloud in a glider is potentially fatal.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Any loose object in the cockpit is a potential flight safety hazard. A pen or other object rolling under a rudder pedal or into the control column well could jam the controls, preventing full deflection of critical flight controls at a critical moment. Before the next flight, the cockpit must be thoroughly searched and the object retrieved. This is an airworthiness issue — the aircraft should not fly until all loose objects have been found and secured or removed.
Correct: C)
Explanation: When facing strong sink at low altitude and returning to the airfield, the pilot must fly best glide speed as the baseline to maximise the distance covered per unit of altitude lost. However, in strong sink or turbulent conditions, an additional speed increment is added above best glide to compensate for the reduced lift in the sinking air mass and to maintain control authority in turbulence. Flying minimum sink speed would result in covering less ground per unit altitude, which is exactly the wrong outcome when trying to reach a specific landing point.
Correct: C)
Explanation: EASA regulation (FCL.135.S) requires that before carrying passengers with a LAPL(S), the holder must have completed, after the issue of the licence, at least 10 hours of flight time or 30 flights as pilot-in-command on gliders. This practical consolidation requirement aims to ensure sufficient experience before taking responsibility for a passenger.
Correct: D)
Explanation: On final approach to an out-landing field, an unexpected strong thermal may carry the glider above the intended touchdown point. The correct response is to fully extend the airbrakes to increase the sink rate and regain control of the approach path. If necessary, an overshoot correction (extending the approach path) can be made. Retracting the airbrakes or circling on final is dangerous at low altitude; continuing without correction risks overshooting the field.
Correct: C)
Explanation: On a wet grass runway, the coefficient of friction between the wheel and the ground is considerably reduced, making braking less effective and extending the ground roll distance after touchdown. The pilot must take this into account when selecting the field and managing the approach, ensuring that the available length is sufficient. A wet runway does not cause faster braking or spontaneous stopping — the effect is the opposite.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Late in the day, shaded slopes present a strong luminosity contrast with areas still in sunlight. In shaded areas, it is much more difficult to visually detect other aircraft, which increases the collision risk, especially when flying in a valley. Anti-collision vigilance must be heightened during sun/shade transitions.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Swiss regulations (BAZL) set minimum decision heights for out-landings: for a pure glider, the field selection must be finalised no later than 300 m above the ground, leaving sufficient margin to fly a suitable circuit. For a motor glider, this limit is 400 m due to the option of using the engine, as well as the added complexity of managing the power unit. Deciding later compromises the safety of the circuit and approach.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In the absence of other gliders in the thermal, there is no regulation imposing a particular direction of turn. The direction of circling is free; the pilot chooses whichever seems most effective for working the core of the thermal. The rule to turn in the same direction applies only when another aircraft is already established in the thermal — in that case, the new arrival must adopt the direction of the first.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In the event of a towrope break during aerotow before reaching safety height with no wind, the procedure is: immediately adopt a gliding attitude to maintain speed, activate the release (twice to ensure separation), then land straight ahead if possible. Landing in the opposite direction requires sufficient height for the turn; with no wind and insufficient altitude, landing straight ahead is the safest option.
Correct: A)
Explanation: With a strong crosswind from the right, the right (upwind) wing tends to rise due to differential lift. The ground helper must hold the right wing slightly lower at the start of the takeoff roll to compensate for this effect and prevent the glider from weathercocking. This technique maintains the direction of travel and allows a controlled takeoff until the control surfaces become effective.
Correct: B)
Explanation: If during an aerotow the tug-and-glider combination is not accelerating sufficiently and the takeoff abort point (point of no return) is reached without adequate speed, the only correct action is to immediately release the towrope. Continuing the takeoff with insufficient speed risks an uncontrolled lift-off or a collision at the end of the runway. The glider will brake on its own over the remaining distance.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Swiss regulations for ridge soaring impose a minimum lateral clearance of 60 metres from the slope. This safety margin allows reaction time in the event of a sudden loss of lift or turbulence, and avoids any collision with the terrain. This is a minimum regulatory value, not a general recommendation — in adverse conditions, a greater clearance may be necessary.
Correct: B)
Explanation: In high mountains, weather conditions can deteriorate extremely rapidly — thunderstorms can develop within tens of minutes, lenticular clouds can form, severe wind shear or violent downdrafts can appear. The pilot must continuously monitor the sky and have an exit strategy prepared. The other answers describe real but secondary risks compared to the weather threat, which is the primary cause of accidents in mountain flying.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Pure oxygen in the presence of fatty substances (oil, grease, lubricants) forms a highly flammable or even explosive mixture. Every connector, seal or component of an oxygen system must be scrupulously free of any trace of grease or oil. Greasing an oxygen cylinder connector is a serious fault that can cause a fire or explosion when the valve is opened. Oxygen equipment must be maintained using only compatible special products.
Correct: C)
Explanation: At a height of approximately 400 m, the available time is very limited. The parachute must be opened immediately after leaving the glider, without delay or freefall phase. Freefall is reserved for high-altitude jumps where there is sufficient time and height. At low altitude, a delayed parachute opening may not leave enough height for a complete and safe descent. The rule: below approximately 600 m, open immediately.
Correct: D)
Explanation: On short final for a field that is too short, it is too late to look for another option — turning at low altitude is extremely dangerous. The only correct response is to use all available means to minimise the landing distance: full airbrakes, minimum safe approach speed, maximum wheel braking. The pilot must prepare for an emergency stop and accept a short-field landing. This situation underlines the importance of selecting the field and committing to the decision early enough to retain options.
Correct: C)
Explanation: FLARM is a traffic alerting system that detects the presence of other aircraft equipped with the same system and assesses potential collision risks. It alerts to threats but does not provide prescribed avoidance manoeuvres (unlike the TCAS fitted to airliners) and does not indicate an exact position but an approximate direction and distance. It only detects FLARM-equipped aircraft — not all aircraft, nor those fitted only with a conventional Mode C transponder.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The approach to a high-altitude aerodrome is flown at the same indicated airspeed (IAS) as at sea level. IAS is what matters for stall margins — lift depends on the dynamic pressure measured by the airspeed indicator, not on air density. At altitude, the true airspeed (TAS) will be higher for the same IAS, which will extend the landing distance, but the indicated approach speed remains the same. It is the longer ground roll that must be accounted for when selecting the field.
Correct: C)
Explanation: When entering a downdraft (descending air mass), the air mass pushes the glider downward, momentarily reducing the effective lift. The pilot feels a brief decrease in g-load (a sensation of lightness or floating in the seat), and the indicated airspeed may drop slightly as the relative airflow changes. This is the opposite effect of entering a thermal (updraft), where an increase in g-load is felt (a sensation of increased weight).
Correct: C)
Explanation: Cirrus to the west generally signal the approach of a warm front or a depression. The progressive thickening of the cloud veil reduces the solar radiation reaching the ground, which weakens surface heating and therefore thermal activity. The cross-country pilot must anticipate a deterioration in soaring conditions: fewer thermals, less powerful, and potentially a general weather deterioration in the hours ahead.
