Source: EASA ECQB-SPL (new questions not in existing set) | 34 questions
Correct: B)
Explanation: The signal square (also called signals square or ground signals area) is a designated area at an aerodrome where ground signals are displayed using symbols, panels, or markings to communicate aerodrome conditions to pilots flying overhead who cannot receive radio communication. It is not a lighting area for emergency vehicles (A), not a location where aircraft receive light signals for taxi clearance (C) — that would be done by the control tower — and not a tow drop zone (D).
Correct: B)
Explanation: ICAO Annex 14 requires that when two parallel runways exist, both receive a suffix to distinguish them: 'L' for the left and 'R' for the right runway as seen from a pilot on final approach. Option A is wrong because the right runway also needs a suffix. Options C and D describe non-standard designations not used in ICAO procedures.
Correct: B)
Explanation: For two parallel runways, ICAO requires both runways to carry suffixes 'L' and 'R', resulting in designators like '06L' and '06R'. Option A is wrong because '26' has no suffix. Option C uses a non-standard dash notation. Option D shows different numbers (24 and 25), which would indicate two separate non-parallel runways on slightly different magnetic headings, not parallel runways.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The ALW-011 figure shows the international ground signal for glider operations in progress — a double-headed arrow or specific panel displayed in the signal square. This warns pilots overflying the aerodrome that gliders may be operating, including tow-launching and soaring in the vicinity. The other options describe unrelated signals: right-hand circuit (A), poor manoeuvring area (B), and landing prohibited (D).
Correct: A)
Explanation: DETRESFA is the ICAO codeword for the distress phase, the most serious of the three emergency phases, declared when an aircraft is in grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. ALERFA corresponds to the alerting phase (B), and INCERFA to the uncertainty phase (C). There is no phase called 'rescue phase' (D) as a formal ICAO designation.
Correct: B)
Explanation: ICAO Annex 12 defines Search and Rescue (SAR) as a service that may be provided by both military and civil organisations, depending on national arrangements. Many countries use military assets (aircraft, helicopters, ships) alongside civil emergency services. Limiting it to only civil (A) or only military (C) organisations, or requiring international approval (D), does not reflect the flexible, nationally-organised nature of SAR.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Under ICAO Annex 13 and EU Regulation 996/2010, aircraft occurrences are classified into three categories: incident (an occurrence other than an accident which affects or could affect safety), serious incident (an incident involving circumstances where there was a high probability of an accident), and accident (an occurrence resulting in fatal or serious injury, or substantial aircraft damage). The other options use non-standard terminology not found in ICAO definitions.
Correct: A)
Explanation: ICAO rules of the air and SERA regulations specify that during slope soaring, when two gliders approach each other head-on, the glider with the hill on its right must give way — but in this question the hill is on YOUR left, meaning the hill is on the other glider's right. Therefore YOU must give way by diverting to the right (turning away from the hill). Expecting the other glider to divert (B) is incorrect because the rule is based on which pilot has the hill on their right. Pulling upward (D) is impractical and dangerous.
Correct: B)
Explanation: SERA regulations state that when joining a thermal already occupied by other gliders, the newly joining pilot must circle in the same direction as the glider that first established the turn in that thermal. This ensures all pilots orbit in the same direction, preventing head-on conflicts. Circling is not fixed as left (A), the highest glider (D) or steepest bank (C) does not determine the direction.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Airspace C is controlled airspace where ATC clearance is mandatory for all flights including VFR. A glider may enter Class C airspace only with an explicit clearance from the responsible ATC unit. A transponder alone (A) is not sufficient — clearance is the fundamental requirement. Option B (no entry at all) is too restrictive; entry is possible with proper clearance. Option C implies a discretionary traffic-density rule which does not exist.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Longitudinal stripes arranged symmetrically about the runway centreline are the runway threshold markings (specifically the threshold stripe pattern), which indicate the beginning of the runway available for landing. Pilots must not touch down before them. They do not mark an ILS glide path touchdown point (A), do not prohibit touching down behind them (C), and are not a ground roll starting position marker (D).
Correct: C)
Explanation: ICAO Annex 12 prescribes that a pilot in flight confirms acknowledgement of a ground SAR signal by rocking the wings (waggling the wings laterally). This is an internationally recognised visual signal. Rudder inputs (A) are not visible from the ground, a parabolic flight path (B) is not a defined SAR signal, and repeated flap deployment (D) is not a standard acknowledgement signal.
Correct: C)
Explanation: An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is defined by ICAO as a ROTATING beacon (not fixed) installed at or near an airport to help pilots locate it from the air. It is located at the aerodrome itself, not at the beginning of final approach (B). It is intended to be seen from the air by pilots, not from the ground (D). Option A is wrong because the beacon rotates.
Correct: A)
Explanation: ICAO Annex 13 and EU Regulation 996/2010 are explicit: the sole objective of an aircraft accident investigation is to prevent future accidents and incidents by identifying causal factors and issuing safety recommendations. It is not a judicial or liability process. Determining liability (B), assisting prosecutors (C), or establishing guilt (D) is explicitly outside the scope of a safety investigation.
Correct: A)
Explanation: A Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) issued under ICAO Annex 8 and EASA regulations remains valid for an unlimited period as long as the aircraft is maintained in accordance with approved maintenance programmes and the Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) is kept current. The CofA itself has no fixed expiry date; it is the ARC (reviewed annually) that must be renewed periodically.
Correct: C)
Explanation: ARC stands for Airworthiness Review Certificate, the document issued following a successful airworthiness review confirming that an aircraft meets the applicable airworthiness requirements at the time of review. It is valid for one year and must be renewed to allow continued operation. The other options (Airworthiness Recurring Control, Airspace Rulemaking Committee, Airspace Restriction Criteria) are not recognised EASA or ICAO abbreviations in this context.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Under the Chicago Convention (ICAO Annex 7) and EASA regulations, the Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by the State of Registry — the country in which the aircraft is registered. The nationality of the owner (A), the country where the review was conducted (C), or the country of manufacture (D) are not the determining factors for issuing the CofA.
Correct: B)
Explanation: SERA stands for Standardised European Rules of the Air, the EU regulation (Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012) that harmonises rules of the air across EASA member states. It is not an acronym for a radar device (A), a routing document (C), or a radar approach (D).
Correct: B)
Explanation: TRA stands for Temporary Reserved Airspace, an airspace of defined dimensions temporarily reserved for specific uses (such as military exercises or parachute operations) and which other aircraft may not enter without permission. Transponder Area (A), Terminal Area (C), and Temporary Radar Routing Area (D) are not standard ICAO or EASA designations for this abbreviation.
Correct: A)
Explanation: TMZ stands for Transponder Mandatory Zone, an airspace designation indicating that aircraft must be equipped with and operate a functioning transponder when flying in that zone. Transportation Management Zone (B), Touring Motorglider Zone (C), and Traffic Management Zone (D) are not recognised aviation terms for this abbreviation.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A visual flight (VFR flight) is defined as a flight conducted in accordance with Visual Flight Rules, as specified in ICAO Annex 2 and SERA. The definition is regulatory, not purely meteorological. Stating specific visibility values such as 5 km (A) or 8 km (C) conflates VFR with VMC minima but does not define the term. Option D (flight in VMC) describes a condition under which VFR is possible, not the definition of a VFR flight itself.
Correct: B)
Explanation: VMC stands for Visual Meteorological Conditions, the meteorological visibility and cloud clearance conditions under which VFR flight can be conducted. It is not 'variable' conditions (A), instrument flight conditions (C), or Visual Flight Rules (D) — VFR is the set of rules followed in VMC, not the conditions themselves.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In ICAO airspace classification, airspace E is uncontrolled above Class G. VFR flights in Class E below FL100 require a minimum flight visibility of 5,000 m (5 km). FL75 is below FL100 so the 5 km rule applies. 8,000 m (A) applies at and above FL100, 1,500 m (B) is the minimum in some lower airspaces under certain conditions, and 3,000 m (C) does not correspond to any standard VFR minimum in this context.
Correct: C)
Explanation: In controlled airspace Class C at and above FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8,000 m (8 km) in accordance with SERA. FL110 is above FL100, so the 8 km minimum applies. 1,500 m (A) and 3,000 m (B) are minima for lower airspaces. 5,000 m (D) applies below FL100.
Correct: A)
Explanation: In airspace Class C at and above FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility is 8,000 m. FL125 is above FL100, confirming the 8 km (8,000 m) minimum applies. The answer 5,000 m (C) applies below FL100 in Class C. 1,500 m (B) and 3,000 m (D) correspond to other airspace or altitude bands.
Correct: A)
Explanation: In ICAO airspace Class B (and Classes C and D), the cloud separation minima for VFR flights are 1,500 m horizontally and 300 m (1,000 ft) vertically from cloud. Option B uses 1,000 m vertical separation which is too large. Option C uses 1,000 m horizontal which is insufficient. Option D mixes metres and feet incorrectly.
Correct: C)
Explanation: In airspace Class C below FL100, the SERA-prescribed minimum VFR flight visibility is 5 km (5,000 m). 1.5 km (A) is for special VFR or certain lower-altitude situations. 8 km (B) applies at and above FL100 in Class C. 10 km (D) is not a standard SERA minimum.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In airspace Class C at and above FL100, the minimum VFR flight visibility required by SERA is 8 km (8,000 m). Below FL100 in Class C the minimum is 5 km. 1.5 km (A) applies to special VFR scenarios. 5 km (C) is the below-FL100 Class C minimum. 10 km (B) is not a standard SERA VFR minimum.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The ICAO definition of ceiling is the height (not altitude) of the base of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena covering more than half the sky (BKN or OVC, i.e., more than 4 oktas), below 20,000 ft. Option A uses 'highest layer' which is incorrect. Option B limits it to below 10,000 ft which is too restrictive. Option D uses 'altitude' (referenced to MSL) rather than 'height' (referenced to the surface), which is technically incorrect per ICAO definition.
Correct: A)
Explanation: In airspace Class E, ATC provides separation only for IFR flights. VFR flights in Class E receive no separation service from ATC — they are not separated from IFR traffic or from other VFR traffic. Pilots operating VFR in Class E rely on the see-and-avoid principle. Options B, C, and D incorrectly imply some form of ATC-provided separation for VFR flights.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The AIP is divided into three main parts: GEN (General), ENR (En Route), and AD (Aerodromes). The AD part contains information about individual aerodromes including their classification, aerodrome charts, approach charts, and taxi charts. Warnings, airspace, and restrictions (A) are in ENR. License and regulatory info (B) is in GEN. Map icons and radio nav aids (D) are also primarily in GEN or ENR.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Aerodrome elevation is defined by ICAO as the elevation of the highest point of the landing area. This is the point referenced for QFE settings and various aerodrome obstacle clearance calculations. The apron (A) is not the landing area. The lowest point (B) would understate the elevation relevant to operations. An average value (D) does not reflect the critical highest-point definition.
Correct: C)
Explanation: ICAO Annex 14 defines a runway as a rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. It is specifically rectangular (not round), on land (not water — that would apply to seaplanes on water aerodromes), and for aircraft generally (not helicopters specifically — helicopter landing areas are called HELIPADs or FATO).
Correct: A)
Explanation: DETRESFA is the ICAO codeword for the distress phase, which is the highest of the three emergency phases and indicates that an aircraft is believed to be in grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. ALERFA (alerting phase) and INCERFA (uncertainty phase) are the other two phases. 'Rescue phase' (D) is not a defined ICAO emergency phase designation.
