Source: exam.quizvds.it (EASA ECQB-SPL) | 34 questions
Correct: D)
Explanation: The maximum allowable mass (MTOM) is a structural and aerodynamic certification limit, not a guideline. Exceeding it increases wing loading, raises the stall speed, degrades climb performance, and overstresses the airframe — potentially beyond its certified load factors. No pilot input can compensate for a structurally compromised aircraft. There is no regulatory or safety margin that permits any excess, even temporarily.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The approved C.G. envelope defines the range within which the aircraft's stability and controllability have been certified. If the C.G. moves forward of the front limit, elevator authority may be insufficient to rotate at takeoff or flare on landing. If it moves aft of the rear limit, the aircraft becomes statically unstable and pitch oscillations can become uncontrollable. The C.G. must remain between both limits throughout the entire flight.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The C.G. position relative to the aerodynamic neutral point determines longitudinal static stability. A C.G. forward of the neutral point produces a restoring pitching moment (stability), while control authority provides maneuverability (controllability). If the C.G. is outside limits, one of these two properties is compromised — either the pilot cannot correct a pitch upset, or the aircraft does not naturally resist one. Stall speed and Vne are influenced by other parameters and are not the primary reasons for the C.G. requirement.
Correct: A)
Explanation: Each individual aircraft is physically weighed — typically on three-point scales — to determine its actual empty mass and C.G. position. Manufacturing tolerances, repairs, and installed equipment vary between serial numbers of the same type, so manufacturer tables alone are insufficient. The results are recorded in the aircraft's weight and balance report and must be updated after any modification that changes mass or mass distribution.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In turbulence or during aerobatics, unsecured cargo can shift suddenly and move the C.G. outside limits instantaneously — faster than a pilot can react. A sudden aft C.G. shift can cause an unrecoverable pitch-up; items becoming projectiles can injure occupants or jam controls. The structural risk arises from asymmetric loading exceeding design limits. No prior stability analysis can make unsecured cargo acceptable.
Correct: D)
Explanation: By definition, the center of gravity (C.G.) is the single point through which the resultant gravitational force (weight vector) acts on the entire aircraft. The center of pressure is where the resultant aerodynamic force acts, the neutral point is the aerodynamic reference for stability analysis, and the stagnation point is where airflow velocity is zero on the leading edge — none of these is where gravity acts.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The center of gravity is the point through which the total weight force of the aircraft acts. It is the mass-weighted average position of all individual mass elements of the aircraft. It is not the physically heaviest point, and it is distinct from the neutral point (an aerodynamic concept). All mass and balance calculations reference moments about the datum to locate this point.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The C.G. is the point through which gravity (weight) is considered to act on the entire aircraft as if all mass were concentrated there. This definition is fundamental to mass and balance calculations: moments of all individual masses are summed and divided by total mass to locate this point. The datum is a fixed reference point, not the C.G. itself, and moment is the product of mass times arm.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In mass and balance, moment = mass × balance arm (M = m × d), expressed in kg·m or lb·in. This follows the physical definition of a torque or moment of force. The total C.G. position is then found by: C.G. = (sum of all moments) ÷ (total mass). Using a sum, difference, or quotient instead of a product would yield a dimensionally and physically incorrect result.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The balance arm (or moment arm) is the horizontal distance measured from the aircraft's datum line to the center of gravity of a particular mass item (e.g., pilot, ballast, equipment). It determines the leverage that mass exerts about the datum. Distances from the C.G. itself are not balance arms — the datum is always the reference point. The datum is defined in the aircraft's flight manual and is fixed for that aircraft type.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In mass and balance terminology, the balance arm (also called moment arm) is specifically the horizontal distance from the aircraft datum to any given point of interest — including the overall C.G. once calculated. Torque/moment is the product of mass and arm, not the distance itself. Span width is a geometric wing parameter unrelated to longitudinal mass and balance.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The datum is an arbitrary but fixed reference plane (often the firewall, wing leading edge, or nose) defined in the aircraft's flight manual. The balance arm of any mass is measured as the horizontal distance from this datum to the center of gravity of that specific mass. All moment calculations use this datum as the common reference, allowing moments to be summed algebraically to find the total C.G. position.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH) or Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) contains a dedicated mass and balance section with the aircraft's empty mass, empty C.G. position, datum reference, C.G. limits, and approved loading configurations. The certificate of airworthiness merely certifies the aircraft type is approved; the annual inspection records maintenance history. Performance data (speeds, glide ratios) is in a different POH section.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The Weight and Balance section (Section 6 in EASA-standardized AFM/POH structure) contains the aircraft's basic empty mass, empty C.G. location, allowable C.G. range, and loading instructions. The Limitations section covers maximum speeds, load factors, and operating envelope. Normal Procedures covers checklists. Performance covers speeds, climb rates, and glide distances. Each section has a specific regulatory and operational purpose.
Correct: D)
Explanation: A headwind reduces groundspeed at touchdown for a given airspeed, so the aircraft arrives over the threshold with less kinetic energy to dissipate — shortening the ground roll. As a rule of thumb, a headwind component equal to 10% of approach speed reduces landing distance by approximately 19%. Conversely, high pressure altitude and high density altitude increase true airspeed at a given IAS, increasing groundspeed and lengthening landing distance. Heavy rain can reduce braking effectiveness, further increasing landing distance.
Correct: C)
Explanation: For aircraft not certified for flight into known icing (FIKI), operating in known or forecast icing conditions is a regulatory prohibition, not merely a performance consideration. Ice accretion on a glider's wings dramatically increases weight (shifting the C.G.), increases drag, reduces the maximum lift coefficient, and raises the stall speed — all simultaneously. If inadvertently encountered, the pilot must exit the icing environment immediately by changing altitude or heading, regardless of visual conditions.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The angle of descent (or glide angle) is geometrically defined as the angle between the horizontal and the actual flight path vector, measured in degrees. It is related to — but not the same as — the glide ratio: glide ratio = horizontal distance / height lost = 1/tan(glide angle). A glide ratio of 1:30 corresponds to a glide angle of approximately 1.9°. Expressing it as a percentage would make it a gradient, not an angle.
Correct: A)
Explanation: Interception lines are prominent, linear geographic features — rivers, coastlines, railways, motorways — selected during pre-flight planning that run roughly perpendicular to the planned route. If a pilot becomes disoriented, flying toward the nearest interception line will produce an unmistakable landmark that allows position recovery. They do not extend permissions below VFR minima and are not range indicators; they are specifically a lost-procedure planning tool.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Restricted airspace areas (LO R) in Austrian and German aeronautical charts specify their upper and lower limits using standard altitude references. The designation '1 500 ft MSL' (Mean Sea Level) means the restriction extends up to that altitude above sea level, not above ground level. 1,500 ft GND (A) would be above ground level and could vary with terrain. 1,500 m MSL (C) confuses feet with metres. FL150 (D) is far higher and is not a typical LO R ceiling.
Correct: C)
Explanation: In Austrian sectional chart notation, restricted area LO R 4 has its upper limit at 4,500 ft MSL (Mean Sea Level). This means all flights must remain below this altitude to avoid the restricted area. 1,500 ft AGL (A) and 1,500 ft MSL (D) are both too low. 4,500 ft AGL (B) references above ground rather than MSL, which would be incorrect for a fixed regulatory limit.
Correct: A)
Explanation: NOTAM altitude limits are expressed in feet MSL (Mean Sea Level) unless explicitly stated otherwise. The figure PFP-024 shows an upper limit of 9,500 ft MSL, meaning overflight is prohibited up to that altitude above mean sea level. FL95 (B) is a flight level (pressure altitude referenced to 1013.25 hPa) and differs from an MSL altitude. 9,500 m (C) confuses metres with feet, which would be approximately 31,000 ft. Height (D) implies above ground level, which is not specified in this NOTAM.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Under ICAO Annex 2 and national regulations, flight plans are mandatory for international flights crossing state borders, even for VFR glider flights. The flight plan is required for border control coordination, search and rescue alerting, and compliance with customs/immigration procedures. A filed and activated flight plan ensures that the relevant Air Traffic Services units and SAR services are aware of the flight. Hazard reports and location messages are separate AIREP/PIREP procedures.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The Flight Information Service (FIS), reached on the published FIS frequency in each FIR, can accept an airborne flight plan (AFIL) during flight. This is the standard procedure when a flight plan was not filed before departure or when an extension is needed. SAR is a response service, not a flight planning authority. AIS distributes aeronautical information but does not accept real-time flight plans. Airport operators handle local arrivals and departures, not en-route plan filing.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Thermal convection depends on differential ground heating. Moist ground, water bodies, and marshes have high thermal inertia and specific heat capacity — they absorb solar radiation without heating up as quickly as dry land, suppressing thermal development above them. Flying over large water areas or wetlands thus means less lift and potentially a forced landing in unsuitable terrain. Conversely, dry fields, rocky areas, and built-up areas with dark surfaces (asphalt, concrete) generate strong thermals.
Correct: C)
Explanation: At a downwind turning point, the glider must turn and fly back into the wind (or at an angle into it), immediately losing tailwind assistance and gaining a headwind component. Arriving high provides the maximum altitude reserve for the subsequent upwind leg, where groundspeed is reduced and glide distance over ground is shortened. Arriving low with a turn ahead is tactically dangerous — any failure to find lift on the upwind leg leaves no margin for landing field selection.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When a glider turns through 90° or 180° at a waypoint, the pilot's perspective of the sky changes dramatically — the sun appears to have "moved" relative to the aircraft heading, and cumulus clouds that were previously in the pilot's peripheral vision or behind may now appear in front, and vice versa. This perceptual shift can make the sky look completely different even if objectively unchanged. Pilots must re-orient their thermal assessment relative to the new heading rather than relying on their previous mental picture.
Correct: D)
Explanation: ICAO aeronautical chart symbology distinguishes between single obstacles and groups of obstacles, and between lighted and unlighted ones. The symbol for a group of unlighted obstacles uses a specific ICAO-standard depiction. Based on the PFP-061 annex, symbol 'C' corresponds to the ICAO symbol for a group of unlighted obstacles. The other symbols (A, B, D) represent single obstacles, lighted groups, or other obstacle types per ICAO Annex 4 chart standards.
Correct: C)
Explanation: ICAO aeronautical chart symbology uses specific symbols for different aerodrome types. A civil airport (not international) with a paved runway is shown by symbol 'A' in the PFP-062 annex. International airports, military aerodromes, and unpaved-runway airports have different symbols per ICAO Annex 4. Selecting symbol 'A' (answer C) correctly identifies the civil airport with paved runway.
Correct: B)
Explanation: On ICAO aeronautical charts, a general spot elevation (a known terrain height point not associated with an obstacle) is indicated by a specific dot-and-number symbol. Based on the PFP-063 annex, symbol 'B' (answer C) represents a general spot elevation. The other symbols (A, C, D) correspond to maximum elevation figures, obstruction elevation markers, or other elevation-related symbols defined in ICAO Annex 4.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Glide distance = glide ratio × height available. With a glide ratio of 1:30 (30 metres forward for every 1 metre of height lost) and 1,500 m of height: distance = 30 × 1,500 m = 45,000 m = 45 km. Note: 45 NM would be approximately 83 km, which would require a glide ratio of roughly 1:55 — far above this aircraft's performance. The calculation is straightforward in metric: ratio × altitude in metres gives distance in metres. Always verify units — mixing NM and metres is a common error.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The centre of gravity (CG) is the single point through which the resultant of all gravitational forces on an aircraft acts — it is the point where the total weight is considered to act. It is not synonymous with the neutral point (A), which is an aerodynamic stability reference. It is not the 'heaviest point' (B), as mass is distributed. Options C and D as stated in the question both describe a geometrical midpoint formula, which is not the correct definition of CG.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In mass and balance calculations, a moment is the product of a mass and its balance arm (distance from the datum): Moment = Mass × Arm. This fundamental relationship allows CG to be found by summing all moments and dividing by total mass. A sum (A), difference (B), or quotient (C) of mass and arm does not produce a moment in the physical sense.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The balance arm (also called the moment arm or lever arm) is the horizontal distance from the datum reference point to the centre of gravity of a particular mass item. It is not the distance from the CG of the aircraft (A), not the datum point itself (B), and not the point through which gravity acts (D — that is the definition of the centre of gravity of the item).
Correct: A)
Explanation: Interception lines (also called line features or catching lines) in visual navigation are prominent linear features on the ground — such as motorways, rivers, coastlines, or railway lines — that a pilot intentionally navigates toward and follows if orientation is lost. By flying toward a known interception line, the pilot can reestablish position. They are not used to continue flight below VFR minima (B), mark en-route airports (C), or show range from departure (D).
