=== EXISTING QUESTIONS (from SPL Exam Questions EN) ===
Source: QuizVDS.it (EASA ECQB-SPL) | 50 questions Free practice: https://quizvds.it/en-en/quiz/spl-en
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q1) - A) Push on the elevator, keep wings level with coordinated inputs on rudder and aileron - B) Aileron and rudder to the reight, gain some speed, push slightly on the elevator, all rudders neutral - C) Airleron to the right, push slighty on the elevator, gain some speed, all rudders neutral - D) Rudder left, push slightly on the elevator, gain some speed, all rudders neutral Correct: A)
Explanation: Near the stall, the primary recovery action is to push the elevator to reduce the angle of attack and prevent the full stall from developing. Using coordinated rudder and aileron inputs keeps the wings level without inducing adverse yaw, which near the stall could trigger a spin. Using ailerons alone in an asymmetric near-stall condition risks dropping the lower wing further and entering a spin.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q2) - A) The period from engine start for the purpose of taking off to leaving the aircraft after engine shutdown. - B) The period from the start of the take-off run to the final touchdown when landing. - C) The total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. - D) The total time from the first take-off until the last landing in conjunction with one or more consecutive flights. Correct: C)
Explanation: Under EASA regulations, flight time for gliders is defined as the total time from when the aircraft first moves for the purpose of flight until it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. This includes taxiing and ground movement, not just airborne time. This definition is important for logging purposes and compliance with duty time regulations.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q3) - A) A wind speed change of more than 15 kt. - B) A meteorological downslope wind phenomenon in the alps. - C) A vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction. - D) A slow increase of the wind speed in altitudes above 13000 ft. Correct: C)
Explanation: Wind shear is defined as a variation in wind velocity (either speed or direction, or both) over a short distance, which can be either vertical or horizontal. It is not limited to any particular speed threshold. Wind shear is hazardous because it can cause sudden changes in lift, requiring immediate corrective action, and is particularly dangerous during takeoff and landing phases.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q4) - A) Fog - B) Stable high pressure areas. - C) Invernal warm front. - D) Thunderstorms. Correct: D)
Explanation: Thunderstorms produce the most severe wind shear due to their strong updrafts, downdrafts, and outflow winds (microbursts). The gust front ahead of a thunderstorm can produce sudden wind direction reversals and speed changes of 50 knots or more in seconds. For glider pilots, thunderstorms represent an extreme hazard both for wind shear and for the risk of being drawn into the cloud.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q5) - A) During an inversion - B) When passing a warm front - C) During a summer day with calm winds - D) In calm wind in cold weather Correct: A)
Explanation: A temperature inversion creates a stable layer that acts as a boundary between two air masses moving at different speeds or directions, producing wind shear at the inversion level. Inversions are common in the early morning before thermals break through and can significantly affect glider operations near the ground. Wind shear at low altitude during approach is particularly dangerous as recovery options are limited.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q6) - A) Path is higher, IAS increases - B) Path is lower, IAS decreases - C) Path is lower, IAS increases - D) Path is higher, IAS decreases Correct: B)
Explanation: When headwind decreases during approach, the aircraft's groundspeed increases but the airflow over the wings drops, causing IAS to decrease and lift to reduce. With less lift, the aircraft descends below the intended glidepath. This is a critical scenario for gliders on final approach, as the combination of low altitude, reduced airspeed, and a low path leaves very little margin for recovery.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q7) - A) Path is lower, IAS increases - B) Path is higher, IAS decreases - C) Path is higher, IAS increases - D) Path is lower, IAS decreases Correct: C)
Explanation: An increasing headwind temporarily increases the airflow over the wings, causing both IAS and lift to increase, which pushes the aircraft above the intended glidepath. Although this initially appears benign, the pilot must be alert because when the headwind component stops increasing or decreases again, IAS will drop and the aircraft may sink rapidly below the desired path.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q8) - A) Path is higher, IAS decreases - B) Path is lower, IAS increases - C) Path is higher, IAS increases - D) Path is lower, IAS decreases Correct: C)
Explanation: When a tailwind component decreases during approach, the aircraft's momentum carries it forward while relative headwind effectively increases, causing IAS to rise and lift to increase. This pushes the aircraft above the glidepath. While temporarily safer than a decreasing headwind scenario, the pilot must respond promptly with spoilers/airbrakes to avoid overshooting the landing area — particularly important in off-field landings.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q9) - A) Avoid thermally active areas, particularly during summer, or stay below these areas - B) Avoid areas of precipitation, particularly during winter, and choose low flight altitudes - C) Avoid take-off and landing during the passage of heavy showers or thunderstorms - D) Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay in flat country whenever possible Correct: C)
Explanation: The most effective avoidance strategy is to defer takeoff or landing whenever heavy showers or thunderstorms are in the vicinity of the airfield, as these produce the most severe and unpredictable wind shear. Heavy precipitation is a visual cue for nearby microbursts and gust fronts. Glider pilots should wait until convective weather has passed the airfield before operating, as they have no go-around power to escape a shear encounter.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q10) - A) Continue the flight referring to sufficient forecasts - B) Turn back due to sufficient visual meteorological conditions along the previous track - C) Continue the flight using radio navigational features along the track - D) Continue the flight using navigatorical aid by ATC Correct: B)
Explanation: When VMC conditions deteriorate ahead, the correct decision is to turn back toward the area where acceptable visibility was confirmed. Glider pilots are not instrument rated and may not continue flight into IMC conditions. Continuing forward based on forecasts, using radio navigation, or relying on ATC guidance are all inappropriate responses for a VFR-only glider pilot facing deteriorating weather.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q11) - A) The aircraft flying at lower altitude. - B) The aircraft flying at higher speed. - C) The aircraft flying at higher altitude - D) The aircraft flying at slower speed Correct: D)
Explanation: Wake turbulence (wingtip vortices) intensity is determined by the lift being generated, which is proportional to the angle of attack. A slower aircraft requires a higher angle of attack to maintain level flight, generating stronger vortices. This is why wake turbulence is most severe during slow flight — at rotation on takeoff and during the landing flare — which are critical moments when following heavier aircraft.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q12) - A) Wake turbulence rotate faster and higher. - B) Wake turbulence is amplified and distorted. - C) Wake turbulence twisting transverse to the runway. - D) Wake turbulence on or near the runway Correct: D)
Explanation: In light crosswind conditions, wake turbulence vortices are not effectively displaced sideways and can settle onto the runway surface or linger near the runway centreline. With a stronger crosswind, one vortex would be blown clear while the other might remain, but a slight crosswind provides insufficient clearing effect. Gliders, being very light, are especially vulnerable to wake turbulence and require appropriate separation after heavy aircraft departures.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q13) - A) Plowed field - B) Glade with long dry grass - C) Sports area in a village - D) Harvested cornfield Correct: D)
Explanation: A harvested cornfield offers a firm, relatively flat, and obstacle-free surface with short stubble that provides reasonable ground roll conditions. Plowed fields have deep furrows that can cause nose-over accidents. Long dry grass conceals surface irregularities and can hide ditches or holes. A sports area in a village introduces the risk of obstacles, fences, and people, making it unsuitable for an emergency landing.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q14) - A) Conducted with the flaps retracted. - B) Conducted without power from the engine. - C) Conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land. - D) Conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety Correct: D)
Explanation: A precautionary landing is a deliberate decision by the pilot to land before conditions force an emergency landing — it is proactive rather than reactive. The pilot chooses to land while still having options and altitude to select a suitable field and conduct a proper circuit. In gliding, the precautionary landing is a key safety concept: landing with margin is always better than pressing on until an emergency situation develops.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q15) - A) A field with ripe waving crops - B) A meadow without livestock - C) A light brown field with short crops - D) A lake with an undisturbed surface Correct: C)
Explanation: A light brown field with short crops (typically a recently harvested or low-growth grain field) provides a firm surface and clear visual indication of the terrain. Ripe waving crops indicate tall plants hiding surface irregularities and can cause the glider to nose over. A meadow without livestock may have hidden ditches, molehills, and soft ground. A lake surface is dangerous as the glider would sink immediately upon water contact.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q16) - A) Decrease of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance - B) Increase of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance - C) Increase of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance - D) Decrease of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance Correct: B)
Explanation: Wet grass increases rolling resistance during the takeoff run, slowing acceleration and extending the distance needed to reach flying speed. During landing, wet grass dramatically reduces braking friction, extending the ground roll significantly. Both effects are compounded for gliders because they are not powered and cannot accelerate out of trouble, making wet grass conditions a serious operational consideration especially for off-field landings.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q17) - A) Health impairments by pollutants, reduced visibilty and turbulences - B) Strong electrostatic charging and deterioration in radio communication - C) Very poor visibility of only few hundred meters and heavy precipitation - D) Extended, strong downwind areas on the lee side of the facility Correct: A)
Explanation: Industrial facilities emit pollutants, smoke, and particulates that can reduce visibility and create thermal turbulence from heat sources. Direct exposure to industrial emissions at low altitude presents genuine health hazards through inhalation. Glider pilots sometimes use the thermal updrafts above factories and industrial buildings but should be aware of the reduced visibility, unpleasant air quality, and irregular turbulence these sources produce.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q18) - A) The approach is conducted using distinct approach segments - B) The decision is made above minimum safe altitude. - C) The approach is conducted onto a harvested corn field. - D) The decision to land off-field is made too late. Correct: D)
Explanation: Late decision-making is the primary cause of off-field landing accidents. When the decision is delayed, the pilot arrives too low over the intended field with insufficient height to conduct a proper circuit, assess the surface, check the wind, and set up a safe approach. Rushed approaches made in desperation often lead to misjudged landings, collisions with obstacles, or landing with too much speed. The golden rule is to commit to an off-field landing while still having adequate altitude.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q19) - A) Alternate circling with opposite directions in different heights. - B) Imitating the movements of the preceeding gliding plane. - C) Coordination of plane movements with other aircrafts circling within the same updraft - D) Fast approach into the updraft and rapidly pulling the elevator for slower speed. Correct: C)
Explanation: When multiple gliders share a thermal, the internationally agreed convention is that all aircraft circle in the same direction as the first glider already established in the thermal. This coordination eliminates head-on conflict. Pilots should visually acquire all other aircraft before entering the thermal and maintain safe separation by adjusting their circle radius and altitude. Circling in opposite directions at different heights is prohibited as it creates crossing conflicts.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q20) - A) Try to reach cumuclus clouds visible at the far horizon and use their thermal updrafts - B) Despite the planned flight, decide for an off-field landing - C) Maintain radio communication up to full stop after off-field landing - D) Search for thermal updrafts on the lee side of a selected landing field Correct: B)
Explanation: When altitude approaches circuit height and no reliable thermal is immediately available beneath the glider, the correct decision is to commit to an off-field landing rather than gambling on reaching distant thermals. Attempting to glide to a far-off cumulus cloud risks running out of altitude entirely, removing all landing options. Landing deliberately while height and options remain is always safer than pressing on and being forced into an emergency.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q21) - A) After achieving bank angle, reduce yaw using opposite rudder - B) Commence turn with reduced speed according to aimed bank angle - C) Commence turn with increased speed according to aimed bank angle - D) After achieving bank angle, push the elevator to increase speed Correct: C)
Explanation: Steep turns increase the load factor and raise the effective stall speed significantly — at 60 degrees of bank, stall speed increases by 41%. The pilot must enter a steep turn with sufficient airspeed to maintain safe margin above this elevated stall speed. For gliders with no engine, entering a steep turn too slowly risks a stall from which recovery requires losing altitude, which may not be available near the circuit.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q22) - A) Ailerons neutral, rudder strongly kicked to lower wing - B) Release elevator, rudder opposite to lower wing - C) Keep airplane in level flight using rudder pedals - D) Slightly pull the elevator, ailerons opposite to lower wing Correct: B)
Explanation: At the point of stall with a wing low, the correct recovery is to simultaneously release back pressure on the elevator (to reduce angle of attack and unstall the wings) and apply rudder opposite to the direction of the lowering wing (to prevent autorotation into a spin). Using ailerons to lift the low wing at the stall is dangerous because the down-going aileron on the low wing increases its angle of attack further, potentially deepening the stall on that wing and triggering a spin.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q23) - A) Show particularly stable flight characteristics. - B) Quickly turn around longitunidal axis - C) Show enhanced pitch up moment. - D) Show enhanced turn to latch-mounted side. Correct: C)
Explanation: When the tow cable is attached to a side-mounted release hook rather than the central nose hook, the cable pull has an off-centre line of action that creates a moment arm relative to the glider's centre of gravity. This produces a pitch-up tendency as the cable pulls the nose upward and sideways. The pilot must be aware of this and apply appropriate forward pressure to maintain the correct tow position behind the tug.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q24) - A) Initiate a sideslip to reduce excessive height - B) Pull strongly, therafter decouple the cable - C) Carefully extend spoiler flaps, steer glider back into normal position - D) Push strongly to bring glider back to normal position Correct: C)
Explanation: When the glider climbs excessively high in aerotow, gently extending the spoilers/airbrakes increases drag and reduces lift, helping to bring the glider back down to the normal tow position. Pushing strongly risks overshooting below the tug's slipstream into the dangerous low position, and could cause the cable to droop and tangle. The spoilers allow a controlled, smooth descent back to the correct position without violent pitch changes.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q25) - A) Decouple cable, therafter push nose down; at heights up to 150m GND land straight ahead with increased speed - B) Push firmly nose down, decouple cable, depending on terrain and wind decide for short pattern or landing straight ahead - C) Initiate 180° turn and land opposite to runway heading in use, decouple cable before touch down - D) Keep elevetor pulled, stabilize on minimum speed and land on remaining field length Correct: B)
Explanation: In a winch launch cable break, the immediate priority is to lower the nose to prevent a stall, as the glider is at a high pitch attitude with rapidly decaying airspeed. Once the nose is down and speed is recovered, the cable is released if not already automatically released, and the pilot then decides based on altitude whether to land straight ahead (below approximately 150m) or attempt a circuit. A 180-degree turn at low altitude after a cable break is extremely dangerous and has caused many fatal accidents.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q26) - A) Pull the elevator - B) Decouple cable immediatly - C) Rudder in opposite direction - D) Ailerons in opposite direction Correct: B)
Explanation: If a wing touches the ground during the winch launch roll, the immediate and only correct response is to release the cable immediately. The launch must be aborted because a wing-down attitude on a winch launch can cause the aircraft to veer off the runway, ground loop, or cartwheel if the winch cable continues to pull. There is no safe way to continue the launch with a wing already dragging, and attempting corrections while still under cable tension risks making the situation catastrophically worse.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q27) - A) Extend spoiler flaps - B) Message to airfield controller via radio - C) Pull elevator to reduce speed - D) Decouple cable immediately Correct: D)
Explanation: If VNE (never exceed speed) is exceeded during aerotow, the glider pilot must release the tow cable immediately. Exceeding VNE risks structural failure of the glider. Extending spoilers might worsen the structural loading. Pulling the elevator while connected could pitch the glider up violently or cause further control problems. Releasing the cable allows the glider pilot to independently manage the speed and return to safe flying conditions without being dragged faster by the tug.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q28) - A) Decouple immediately and proceed with coupling unlatched - B) Conduct normal approach, release cable immediatley after ground contact - C) Perform low approach and reuqest information about cable length by airfield controller, decouple if necessary - D) When in safe height, drop cable overhead empty terrain or overhead airfield Correct: D)
Explanation: A long cable trailing from the glider is extremely hazardous — it could snag obstacles, people, or aircraft on the ground, and alters the glider's flight characteristics and centre of gravity. The correct procedure is to gain safe altitude and then release the cable over empty terrain or the airfield where ground crews can retrieve it safely. A low approach to check the cable length is unnecessary and dangerous; the overriding priority is to jettison the cable as soon as it is safe to do so.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q29) - A) Decouple cable immediatly - B) Alternate push and pull on the elveator - C) Alternate turn to the left and to the right - D) Extend spoiler flaps and return to normal attitude Correct: A)
Explanation: If the tug aircraft is lost from sight during aerotow, the glider pilot must release the cable immediately. Without visual contact with the tug, the glider pilot cannot anticipate turns or attitude changes, creating an extreme risk of a collision with the tug aircraft or of being pulled into an uncontrolled attitude. After release, the glider pilot should manoeuvre to the right to clear the tug's flight path, then establish normal gliding flight.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q30) - A) Return glider plane to a position behind towing plane by a smaller curve radius using strong inputs on rudder pedals - B) Take up same bank angle as towing plane and return glider plane to a position behind towing plane using rudder pedals - C) Bring back glider plane to intended turning attitude using rudder and airlerons, extend spoiler flaps to reduce speed - D) Initiate sideslip and let glider plane be pushed back to a position behind towing plane by increased drag Correct: B)
Explanation: When the glider drifts to the outside of a turn in aerotow, the correct technique is to match the tug's bank angle and then gently use rudder (with coordinated aileron) to reduce the radius and return to the position directly behind the tug. Using a smaller radius alone risks swinging the glider through the correct position and into an inside offset. Spoilers or sideslip would change the speed relationship and make position control harder.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q31) - A) Push slightly, wait for pull on cable to be re-established - B) Inform winch driver by altertate aileron input - C) Push firmly and decouple cable immediately - D) Pull on elevator to increases cable tension Correct: C)
Explanation: A sudden loss of cable tension during the steep climb phase of a winch launch is treated identically to a cable break — it may be a winch malfunction, engine failure, or cable break. The glider is at a high nose-up attitude with potentially critically low airspeed. The immediate response is to push the nose down firmly to recover flying speed and simultaneously release the cable. Waiting for cable tension to resume or pulling further on the elevator risks a stall at low altitude from which recovery is impossible.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q32) - A) Keep an eye on second cable, decouple after takeoff if necessary - B) Continue launch with rudder input on opposite direction to second cable - C) Conduct normal takeoff, inform airfield controller after landing - D) Decouple cable immediately, inform airfield controller via radio Correct: D)
Explanation: A loose second cable near the glider before launch presents a severe entanglement hazard. If the second cable wraps around the glider or its own cable during the launch, it could cause loss of directional control, structural damage, or a catastrophic accident. The only safe action is to abort the launch immediately and inform ground controllers so the hazard can be cleared before any launch proceeds. This is a strict no-go situation.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q33) - A) It is used for automatic cable release after winch launch - B) It protects the winch from being overshot by the glider plane - C) It is used to limit the rate of climb during winch launch - D) It prevents excessive stress on the gilder plane Correct: D)
Explanation: Winch cables incorporate a weak link or breaking point designed to fail at a specific load, protecting the glider's airframe from being overstressed by excessive cable tension. If the winch driver applies too much power or the glider's nose pitches up steeply, the cable tension rises rapidly. The breaking point fails before the structural limits of the glider are reached, preventing in-flight structural damage. It is a passive safety device built into every winch launch cable.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q34) - A) A higher altitude can be reached using this technique - B) Extreme stress on the structure of the glider plane - C) This technique can compensate for insufficient wind correction - D) Only by this sudden jerk the release of the cable can be assured Correct: B)
Explanation: If the pilot holds back pressure at the moment the cable releases — whether manually or via the automatic weak link — the sudden removal of cable tension while the elevator is still deflected can cause a violent pitch-up moment, creating extreme structural loads on the airframe. The correct technique is to progressively relax back pressure as the launch reaches its peak and the cable begins to go slack, allowing a smooth transition to free flight without dangerous load spikes.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q35) - A) Approach with increased speed, quick flare to follow the inclined ground - B) Approach down the ridge with increased speed, push according to ground level during landing - C) According to prevailant wind, approach and land parallel to the ridge with headwind - D) Approach with minimum speed, careful flare when reaching the landing site Correct: A)
Explanation: Landing on a steeply inclined slope requires increased approach speed to provide a safety margin and improve control authority on the uneven terrain. A quick, decisive flare is needed to match the glider's attitude to the slope gradient at touchdown, preventing the nose from striking the uphill slope first. Approaching at minimum speed on a slope leaves insufficient margin for the turbulence and wind gradients common in mountainous terrain and increases the risk of a stall during the flare.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q36) - A) After depletion of oxygen, stay at that altitude no longer than 30 min - B) At first indication of hypoxia, commence descent with maximum allowed speed - C) Extend spoiler flaps, descent with maximum permissable speed - D) Reduce oxygen flow by breathing slowly Correct: C)
Explanation: At 6000m MSL, hypoxia becomes rapidly incapacitating — a pilot may have only a few minutes of useful consciousness without supplemental oxygen. The immediate priority is to descend as rapidly as possible to a breathable altitude (below approximately 3000m). Using spoilers and maximum permissible speed achieves the fastest descent rate. Waiting for hypoxia symptoms before acting is dangerous because hypoxia impairs judgment, and the pilot may not recognize their own deteriorating condition until incapacitated.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q37) - A) Green - B) Red - C) Yellow - D) Blue Correct: B)
Explanation: Emergency release handles in aircraft are universally colour-coded red to ensure immediate identification in an emergency, even under stress or in poor lighting conditions. The red colour follows international aviation convention for emergency and danger-related controls. Glider cockpit canopy emergency releases must be instantly locatable for rapid egress in the event of a fire or post-crash situation where the normal canopy opening mechanism may be inoperative.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q38) - A) The maximum allowed mass will not be exceeded. - B) A comfortable seat position will be assured for the glider pilot. - C) They will not block rudders or induce any C.G. shift. - D) The glider pilot will not be hurt during flight in thermal turbulences. Correct: C)
Explanation: Ballast weights and trim masses placed in gliders to adjust the centre of gravity must be rigidly secured because any movement in flight can cause sudden shifts in the CG, altering the handling characteristics unexpectedly and potentially making the aircraft uncontrollable. Additionally, if a weight works loose and slides into the tail, it could jam the control linkages, preventing rudder or elevator movement. Proper securing with approved fastening systems is an airworthiness requirement before every flight.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q39) - A) Continue launch to normal altitude, use horizontal image and airstream noise to conduct flight as planned - B) Try to re-establish airspeed indication by abrupt changes of speed during launch - C) Push elevator, decouple cable and perform short pattern with minimum speed - D) Continue launch to normal altitude, use horizontal image and airstream noise for pattern and landing right away Correct: D)
Explanation: An ASI failure during a winch launch does not require immediate cable release if the launch is otherwise proceeding normally. The pilot can use visual reference to the horizon for pitch attitude and auditory cues (airstream noise) to estimate speed. The correct response is to complete the launch to normal altitude and then land immediately, using the same visual and audio cues for the approach and landing rather than attempting further cross-country flight without a functioning airspeed indicator.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q40) - A) Because rudder inputs may not be sufficient for controlling flight attitude - B) Because increased nose-down moment may not be compensated - C) Because structural limits may be exceeded - D) Because maximum permissable speed will be rduced significantly Correct: A)
Explanation: When the centre of gravity is at or beyond the aft limit, the elevator becomes progressively less effective at controlling pitch because the moment arm from the elevator to the CG is reduced. In extreme cases, the pilot may not be able to push the nose down to recover from a pitch-up or stall, making the aircraft effectively uncontrollable in pitch. This is particularly dangerous during winch launch where pitch attitudes change rapidly and full elevator authority is essential.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q41) - A) An increased stall speed - B) A decreased stall speed - C) Improved slow flight capabilities - D) Reduced friction drag Correct: A)
Explanation: Ice accretion on wings disrupts the smooth airfoil shape, increases weight, and drastically reduces the lift coefficient of the wing. This means the wing must fly at a higher angle of attack to generate the same lift, which means it will stall at a higher airspeed than normal. Additionally, ice increases drag significantly. For gliders, even small amounts of ice can cause dramatic performance degradation and render the aircraft dangerous to fly, as the increased stall speed may approach normal flying speeds.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q42) - A) Keep gear unlocked and perform normal landing - B) Keep a firm grip on gear handle during normal landing - C) Retract landing gear and perform belly landing with minimum speed - D) Retract gear and perform belly landing with increased speed Correct: C)
Explanation: An unlocked undercarriage that collapses on touchdown can cause the aircraft to veer violently, potentially causing a ground loop or nose-over injury. A controlled belly landing on a retracted gear at minimum speed is safer because it provides a predictable, stable deceleration on the fuselage belly. Minimum speed is used to reduce the impact forces and sliding distance. The pilot should select a smooth surface and prepare for the landing as normal, minus the gear extension.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q43) - A) Sudden blockage of pitot-static system - B) Sudden increase of airframe icing. - C) Sudden increase in airplane mass - D) Suddon loss of visibility Correct: D)
Explanation: In heavy snowfall, the most immediate and dangerous effect is the sudden and dramatic reduction in visibility, which can reduce from adequate VMC to near-zero in seconds. A glider pilot who suddenly cannot see terrain, obstacles, or other aircraft is in immediate danger, particularly at low altitude during approach or cross-country flight. While icing and pitot blockage are also concerns, loss of visual reference is the most acutely life-threatening effect for a VFR-only glider pilot.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q44) - A) Approach with reduced speed, expect shorter flare and ground roll distance - B) Normal approach, when reaching landing site, extend spoiler flaps and push down elevator - C) Approach with normal speed, expect longer flare and ground roll distance - D) Approach with increased speed without use of spoiler flaps Correct: C)
Explanation: A tailwind landing significantly increases groundspeed for the same airspeed, requiring a much longer ground roll to decelerate. The approach should be flown at normal indicated airspeed (not groundspeed), but the pilot must plan for an extended flare and ground roll and ensure the field is long enough to accommodate this. Using spoilers is important to steepen the approach angle and increase drag during the ground roll. Under no circumstances should speed be reduced below normal approach speed — the airspeed margin above stall must be maintained regardless of groundspeed.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q45) - A) Approach with normal speed and shallow angle. - B) Compensate tailwind by sideslip. - C) Increase approach speed. - D) Land with gear retracted to shorten ground roll distance Correct: A)
Explanation: In a tailwind landing, the pilot maintains normal indicated approach speed (the stall margin must be preserved) but recognises that the groundspeed will be higher, resulting in a longer, shallower approach trajectory relative to the ground. The approach path will appear flatter because the aircraft is moving faster over the ground. Increasing airspeed further would worsen the landing distance problem, and sideslip does not compensate for tailwind ground speed.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q46) - A) Approach with minimum speed, correct changes in attitude with careful rudder inputs - B) Approach with normal speed, maintain speed using spoiler flaps - C) Approach with increased speed, correct changes in attitude with firm rudder inputs - D) Approach with increased speed, avoid usage of spoiler flaps Correct: C)
Explanation: In gusty conditions, the pilot should add a gust allowance to the normal approach speed — typically half the gust excess (in this case, half of 10 knots = 5 knots) above normal approach speed. The increased speed provides a better margin above stall when the gust drops out and airspeed temporarily decreases. Firm, prompt rudder and aileron inputs are needed to correct rapid attitude changes caused by gusts. Spoilers remain available and should be used normally for glidepath control.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q47) - A) Contunue flight, downwinds around mountains only occur shortly - B) Increase speed and head away from the ridge - C) Increase speed and conduct landing parallel to ridge - D) Increase speed and get closer to the ridge Correct: B)
Explanation: In mountain flying, the lee-side downwind (rotor) zone is extremely dangerous — descending air can exceed the glider's best glide rate, meaning the aircraft loses altitude faster than it can glide away from terrain. The immediate response is to increase airspeed to best penetration speed and turn away from the ridge, heading toward the valley or upwind side where lifting conditions and terrain clearance can be regained. Getting closer to the ridge or circling in the rotor zone dramatically increases the collision risk.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q48) - A) Extend spoiler flaps within speed limits, leave thermal lift area with maximum permissable speed - B) Fasten seat belts, be aware of severe gust during further thermaling - C) Reduce to minimum speed, leave thermal lift area in a flat turn - D) Climb into thunderstorm cloud, continue flight using instruments Correct: A)
Explanation: When a cumulus cloud develops into a cumulonimbus (thunderstorm), the updrafts beneath and inside it can reach extreme values — far exceeding the glider's ability to descend out of it — risking involuntary cloud entry, loss of control, structural failure from turbulence, and lightning strike. The pilot must immediately open spoilers and accelerate to maximum permitted speed to maximise the descent rate and penetrate away from the lifting area as quickly as possible. Entering a thunderstorm cloud in a glider is potentially fatal.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q49) - A) Lighter, loose bodies in the fuselage can be considered uncritical - B) Before next take-off, the cockpit has to be firmly inspected for loose bodies. - C) A flight without a pen at hand is not permitted - D) Succeeding pilots have to be informed about that Correct: B)
Explanation: Any loose object in the cockpit is a potential flight safety hazard. A pen or other object rolling under a rudder pedal or into the control column well could jam the controls, preventing full deflection of critical flight controls at a critical moment. Before the next flight, the cockpit must be thoroughly searched and the object retrieved. This is an airworthiness issue — the aircraft should not fly until all loose objects have been found and secured or removed.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^q50) - A) Best glide speed plus additionals for downdrafts and wind - B) Best glide speed - C) Minimum rate of descent speed - D) Maximum manoeuvering speed VA Correct: A)
Explanation: When facing strong sink at low altitude and returning to the airfield, the pilot must fly best glide speed as the baseline to maximise the distance covered per unit of altitude lost. However, in strong sink or turbulent conditions, an additional speed increment is added above best glide to compensate for the reduced lift in the sinking air mass and to maintain control authority in turbulence. Flying minimum sink speed would result in covering less ground per unit altitude, which is exactly the wrong outcome when trying to reach a specific landing point.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_1) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: D)
Explanation: EASA regulation (FCL.135.S) requires that before carrying passengers with a LAPL(S), the holder must have completed, after the issue of the licence, at least 10 hours of flight time or 30 flights as pilot-in-command on gliders. This practical consolidation requirement aims to ensure sufficient experience before taking responsibility for a passenger.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_14) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: On final approach to an out-landing field, an unexpected strong thermal may carry the glider above the intended touchdown point. The correct response is to fully extend the airbrakes to increase the sink rate and regain control of the approach path. If necessary, an overshoot correction (extending the approach path) can be made. Retracting the airbrakes or circling on final is dangerous at low altitude; continuing without correction risks overshooting the field.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_18) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: On a wet grass runway, the coefficient of friction between the wheel and the ground is considerably reduced, making braking less effective and extending the ground roll distance after touchdown. The pilot must take this into account when selecting the field and managing the approach, ensuring that the available length is sufficient. A wet runway does not cause faster braking or spontaneous stopping — the effect is the opposite.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_12) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: Late in the day, shaded slopes present a strong luminosity contrast with areas still in sunlight. In shaded areas, it is much more difficult to visually detect other aircraft, which increases the collision risk, especially when flying in a valley. Anti-collision vigilance must be heightened during sun/shade transitions.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_16) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: Swiss regulations (BAZL) set minimum decision heights for out-landings: for a pure glider, the field selection must be finalised no later than 300 m above the ground, leaving sufficient margin to fly a suitable circuit. For a motor glider, this limit is 400 m due to the option of using the engine, as well as the added complexity of managing the power unit. Deciding later compromises the safety of the circuit and approach.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_2) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: In the absence of other gliders in the thermal, there is no regulation imposing a particular direction of turn. The direction of circling is free; the pilot chooses whichever seems most effective for working the core of the thermal. The rule to turn in the same direction applies only when another aircraft is already established in the thermal — in that case, the new arrival must adopt the direction of the first.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_4) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: D)
Explanation: In the event of a towrope break during aerotow before reaching safety height with no wind, the procedure is: immediately adopt a gliding attitude to maintain speed, activate the release (twice to ensure separation), then land straight ahead if possible. Landing in the opposite direction requires sufficient height for the turn; with no wind and insufficient altitude, landing straight ahead is the safest option.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_3) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: With a strong crosswind from the right, the right (upwind) wing tends to rise due to differential lift. The ground helper must hold the right wing slightly lower at the start of the takeoff roll to compensate for this effect and prevent the glider from weathercocking. This technique maintains the direction of travel and allows a controlled takeoff until the control surfaces become effective.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_9) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: If during an aerotow the tug-and-glider combination is not accelerating sufficiently and the takeoff abort point (point of no return) is reached without adequate speed, the only correct action is to immediately release the towrope. Continuing the takeoff with insufficient speed risks an uncontrolled lift-off or a collision at the end of the runway. The glider will brake on its own over the remaining distance.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_17) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: Swiss regulations for ridge soaring impose a minimum lateral clearance of 60 metres from the slope. This safety margin allows reaction time in the event of a sudden loss of lift or turbulence, and avoids any collision with the terrain. This is a minimum regulatory value, not a general recommendation — in adverse conditions, a greater clearance may be necessary.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_10) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: In high mountains, weather conditions can deteriorate extremely rapidly — thunderstorms can develop within tens of minutes, lenticular clouds can form, severe wind shear or violent downdrafts can appear. The pilot must continuously monitor the sky and have an exit strategy prepared. The other answers describe real but secondary risks compared to the weather threat, which is the primary cause of accidents in mountain flying.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_11) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: Pure oxygen in the presence of fatty substances (oil, grease, lubricants) forms a highly flammable or even explosive mixture. Every connector, seal or component of an oxygen system must be scrupulously free of any trace of grease or oil. Greasing an oxygen cylinder connector is a serious fault that can cause a fire or explosion when the valve is opened. Oxygen equipment must be maintained using only compatible special products.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_20) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: At a height of approximately 400 m, the available time is very limited. The parachute must be opened immediately after leaving the glider, without delay or freefall phase. Freefall is reserved for high-altitude jumps where there is sufficient time and height. At low altitude, a delayed parachute opening may not leave enough height for a complete and safe descent. The rule: below approximately 600 m, open immediately.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_19) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: On short final for a field that is too short, it is too late to look for another option — turning at low altitude is extremely dangerous. The only correct response is to use all available means to minimise the landing distance: full airbrakes, minimum safe approach speed, maximum wheel braking. The pilot must prepare for an emergency stop and accept a short-field landing. This situation underlines the importance of selecting the field and committing to the decision early enough to retain options.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_7) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: FLARM is a traffic alerting system that detects the presence of other aircraft equipped with the same system and assesses potential collision risks. It alerts to threats but does not provide prescribed avoidance manoeuvres (unlike the TCAS fitted to airliners) and does not indicate an exact position but an approximate direction and distance. It only detects FLARM-equipped aircraft — not all aircraft, nor those fitted only with a conventional Mode C transponder.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_6) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: The approach to a high-altitude aerodrome is flown at the same indicated airspeed (IAS) as at sea level. IAS is what matters for stall margins — lift depends on the dynamic pressure measured by the airspeed indicator, not on air density. At altitude, the true airspeed (TAS) will be higher for the same IAS, which will extend the landing distance, but the indicated approach speed remains the same. It is the longer ground roll that must be accounted for when selecting the field.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_5) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: When entering a downdraft (descending air mass), the air mass pushes the glider downward, momentarily reducing the effective lift. The pilot feels a brief decrease in g-load (a sensation of lightness or floating in the seat), and the indicated airspeed may drop slightly as the relative airflow changes. This is the opposite effect of entering a thermal (updraft), where an increase in g-load is felt (a sensation of increased weight).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_13) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: Cirrus to the west generally signal the approach of a warm front or a depression. The progressive thickening of the cloud veil reduces the solar radiation reaching the ground, which weakens surface heating and therefore thermal activity. The cross-country pilot must anticipate a deterioration in soaring conditions: fewer thermals, less powerful, and potentially a general weather deterioration in the hours ahead.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_15) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: D)
Explanation: In a headwind, the optimal speed to cover the greatest ground distance is higher than the best glide speed in still air. McCready theory shows that it is necessary to accelerate beyond the best L/D speed to compensate for the reduction in ground speed caused by the headwind. A McCready setting of zero gives the best glide speed in still air; with a headwind, the setting must be increased (indicating a higher speed). The stronger the headwind, the higher the optimal speed.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_70_8) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: A freshly mown meadow of 200 m offers a known, firm, obstacle-free surface with sufficient length for a glider landing. Recent mowing ensures a visible surface without tall grass that could hide irregularities. A ploughed field presents risks of nosing over. A country lane is too narrow for glider wingspans. An unharvested maize field contains tall, dense plants incompatible with a safe landing.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_1) - A) As a general rule, once per flight, shortly before landing - B) No - C) Exceptionally - D) Yes Correct: D)
Explanation: Yes, in Switzerland, a glider pilot may use the aircraft radio to communicate with their retrieve crew on the dedicated frequency (club/glider frequency), even without the radiotelephony rating.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_2) - A) The same. - B) Smaller. - C) It depends on the temperature. - D) Greater. Correct: D)
Explanation: At 1800 m AMSL, air density is lower. Indicated airspeed (IAS) remains the normal approach speed, but true airspeed (TAS) and ground speed (GS) are higher. Thus GS is greater than IAS.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_3) - A) Yes, always - B) Only for aerobatics - C) For all flights above 300 m AGL - D) No Correct: D)
Explanation: Wearing a parachute is not mandatory for normal glider flights in Switzerland. It is recommended but not required by Swiss regulations for non-aerobatic flights.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_4) - A) Immediately release the cable and establish normal flight attitude - B) Immediately establish normal flight attitude and then release the cable - C) Report the incident by radio - D) Immediately extend the airbrakes Correct: A)
Explanation: Cable break just after climbing angle: correct procedure is to immediately release the cable then establish normal flight attitude. Priority is first to get rid of the cable to prevent it wrapping around the glider.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_5) - A) The takeoff distance will be shorter - B) After takeoff, correct into the wind until the tow plane lifts off - C) The tow plane must lift off before the glider - D) Before departure, offset the glider upwind Correct: D)
Explanation: In strong crosswind during aerotow, offset the glider upwind before departure. This compensates for drift during the takeoff roll and allows the glider to follow the runway centerline.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_6) - A) I circle to the left - B) I circle to the right - C) There is no regulation on this - D) I search for the best lift by first performing a figure-eight Correct: D)
Explanation: In the absence of other gliders, there is no prescribed direction for thermalling. The pilot searches for the best lift by first performing a figure-eight to locate it.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_7) - A) A sufficient safety distance must be maintained - B) 60 m horizontally - C) 150 m horizontally - D) It depends on the lift conditions Correct: A)
Explanation: Swiss regulations do not specify a precise lateral distance from a slope. A sufficient safety distance must be maintained to be able to escape in an emergency. Prudence and common sense apply.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_8) - A) I cannot use this thermal as the height difference is not at least 150 m - B) I circle in the same direction as the glider above me in the same thermal - C) I am free to choose the direction as the vertical separation is sufficient - D) I circle in the opposite direction to be able to observe the other glider from below Correct: B)
Explanation: When another glider is thermalling in the same thermal 50 m above, spiral in the same direction. This is the basic rule to avoid conflicts in thermals with small height separation.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_9) - A) Immediately notify the investigation bureau via REGA - B) Report the damage within the following week to the aviation accident investigation bureau - C) Notify the local police within 24 hours - D) Send a written report with sketch within 3 days to FOCA Correct: C)
Explanation: In an off-field landing with the glider 70% destroyed, this is a serious accident. Local police must be notified within 24 hours (and the accident investigation bureau).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_10) - A) Apply the wheel brake moderately at the beginning of the roll - B) The wingtip helper must run longer - C) Pull back on the stick longer than normal - D) Roll longer than normal Correct: D)
Explanation: On a hard runway (asphalt, concrete), the glider tends to fly at a lower speed before takeoff compared to grass (less friction). Therefore, you need to roll longer to reach rotation speed.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_11) - A) Extend the undercarriage, tighten harnesses, land at minimum speed with airbrakes retracted - B) Tighten harnesses, close ventilation and land at slightly above normal speed - C) Perform a sideslip to reduce the impact with the wing - D) Just before landing, pitch up the glider to touch down tail first Correct: B)
Explanation: For a water landing, tighten harnesses and close ventilation to prevent rapid water entry, then land at slightly above normal speed for better control.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_12) - A) By observing the glider’s drift during altitude-losing spirals - B) By observing grazing livestock - C) By observing the wave patterns in wheat fields - D) By observing the movement of leaves in trees Correct: A)
Explanation: The most effective method to determine wind direction for an off-field landing is to observe the glider's drift during altitude-losing spirals (wind carries the glider in its direction).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_13) - A) I overtake it on the side away from the slope - B) I dive to clear upward at a sufficient distance and continue my flight - C) I make a 180 degree turn and return to the slope - D) I establish radio contact and ask about its intentions Correct: A)
Explanation: When overtaking a slower glider on a slope: overtake on the side away from the slope (toward the valley). This leaves maneuvering room toward clear terrain.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_14) - A) Warn the tow pilot by radio - B) Apply the wheel brake to tension the rope - C) Extend the airbrakes - D) Immediately release the rope Correct: D)
Explanation: If the glider rolls over the tow rope at departure, the only correct action is to immediately release the rope to prevent it from wrapping around the landing gear.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_15) - A) Yes, without restrictions, in visual meteorological conditions (VMC) - B) No, unless the glider’s transponder continuously transmits code 7000 - C) Yes, provided the pilot holds the radiotelephony extension, has received authorization from the competent air traffic control service, and is able to maintain a continuous radio watch; exceptions are published on the soaring chart - D) Yes, provided no NOTAM expressly prohibits them Correct: C)
Explanation: Gliders are permitted in Class C airspace provided: the pilot has the radiotelephony extension, has received ATC clearance, and maintains continuous radio watch. Exceptions are published on the soaring chart.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_16) - A) I extend airbrakes and dive to obtain good vertical separation - B) I maintain my heading - C) I move away upward as I have enough speed - D) I move away on the side opposite to the slope Correct: D)
Explanation: Flying along a slope (on your right) with an oncoming glider at the same altitude: you give way by moving away from the slope (to the left/valley). This is the ridge soaring right-of-way rule.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_17) - A) Normally with a left sideslip - B) Slightly above minimum speed, and at a lower height than for a headwind landing - C) Faster than in a headwind - D) At best glide speed and a little higher than in a headwind Correct: B)
Explanation: With tailwind and 400 m field: approach slightly above minimum speed and lower than with headwind. The tailwind increases GS, reducing approach time.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_18) - A) The takeoff distance will be shorter because the surface is slippery - B) The takeoff distance will be longer - C) The takeoff distance is the same as on a dry runway - D) None of these answers is correct Correct: B)
Explanation: A wet grass runway increases friction and rolling resistance, so the aerotow takeoff distance is longer than in normal conditions.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_19) - A) Pass under the line provided flying over it is not possible and the situation does not allow a risk-free escape - B) Pass under the line as close as possible to a pylon - C) In all cases fly over the high-voltage power line - D) Execute a tight turn near the ground and land parallel to the line Correct: A)
Explanation: Facing a power line across the landing axis: if flying over is not possible and a risk-free escape is not feasible, pass under the line. This is the lesser risk.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_701_20) - A) Push the stick forward, apply ailerons opposite to the spin direction and pull out - B) Push the stick fully forward, apply full rudder opposite to the spin direction, pull out - C) Determine the spin direction, apply rudder opposite to it, ailerons neutral, stick slightly forward and pull out - D) Determine the spin direction, ailerons opposite to it, stick fully forward, rudder neutral and pull out Correct: C)
Explanation: Standard spin recovery procedure (without manufacturer's instructions): 1) Determine spin direction 2) Apply opposite rudder 3) Ailerons neutral 4) Stick slightly forward 5) Pull out after rotation stops.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_1) - A) The published approach procedures in the VFR guide or any other appropriate method must be followed - B) The landing shall be preceded by at least a half-circuit, all turns to be made to the left - C) A straight-in approach must be made to avoid disturbing other traffic as much as possible - D) The landing shall be preceded by at least one full circle above the signal area, all turns to be made to the left Correct: A)
Explanation: Approach to an aerodrome should follow published VFR guide procedures or any other appropriate method. A mandatory full circuit over the signal area is no longer systematically required.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_2) - A) I overtake it on the side away from the slope - B) I dive to clear upward at a sufficient distance and continue my flight - C) I make a 180 degree turn and return to the slope - D) I establish radio contact and ask about its intentions Correct: A)
Explanation: In mountain flying, to overtake a slower glider on a slope, pass on the side away from the slope (valley side). This rule is consistent with the right-of-way for climbing gliders.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_3) - A) Jump by parachute immediately - B) Control the glider with the elevator and ailerons; make shallow turns and land immediately - C) Increase speed and continue the flight - D) Consult the flight manual Correct: B)
Explanation: If the rudder jams in flight, control the glider with elevator and ailerons. Make shallow turns and land immediately.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_4) - A) Warn the tow pilot by radio - B) Apply the wheel brake to tension the rope - C) Extend the airbrakes - D) Immediately release the rope Correct: D)
Explanation: If the glider rolls over the tow rope, immediately releasing the rope is the only correct action.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_5) - A) Immediately actuate the release handle twice and land straight ahead in the runway extension - B) Actuate the release handle twice and land on the aerodrome without exception - C) Pull back on the stick, release the rope and land with a tailwind - D) Make a flat turn and land diagonally Correct: A)
Explanation: If the rope breaks on the tow plane side below safety height: actuate the release handle twice (verification) and land straight ahead in the runway extension. Avoid turning.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_6) - A) Take a heading into the wind and increase speed - B) Always approach with a sideslip on the side opposite to the wind - C) Do not fully extend the airbrakes - D) Maintain runway alignment using only the rudder Correct: A)
Explanation: In strong crosswind on final, take a crab angle into the wind and increase speed slightly to maintain control. The sideslip can be used but crab is the primary method.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_7) - A) Extend the undercarriage, tighten harnesses, land at minimum speed with airbrakes retracted - B) Tighten harnesses, close ventilation and land at slightly above normal speed - C) Perform a sideslip to reduce the impact with the wing - D) Just before landing, pitch up the glider to touch down tail first Correct: B)
Explanation: For a water landing: tighten harnesses, close ventilation to prevent water entry, and land at slightly above normal speed for better control and to avoid nose-over.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_8) - A) I search for the best lift by first performing a figure-eight - B) I circle to the right - C) I circle to the left - D) There is no regulation on this Correct: D)
Explanation: Without other gliders in the thermal, there is no prescribed spiraling direction. The pilot chooses freely.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_9) - A) In flight levels - B) In height above the ground - C) Only in altitude (metres or feet) - D) According to the countries overflown Correct: D)
Explanation: Glider altitude is expressed according to the country overflown (altitude in feet or meters per local rules, or flight levels per airspace). Regulations vary by country.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_10) - A) Push the stick forward, apply ailerons opposite to the spin direction and pull out - B) Push the stick fully forward, apply full rudder opposite to the spin direction, pull out - C) Determine the spin direction, apply rudder opposite to it, ailerons neutral, stick slightly forward and pull out - D) Determine the spin direction, ailerons opposite to it, stick fully forward, rudder neutral and pull out Correct: C)
Explanation: Standard spin recovery: 1) Identify direction, 2) Opposite rudder, 3) Ailerons neutral, 4) Slight forward stick, 5) Pull out after rotation stops.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_11) - A) Yes, the wreck must be evacuated as soon as possible to avoid alteration by third-party intervention - B) No, unless the investigation authority has formally given authorization - C) Yes, if the aircraft operator has formally issued such an instruction - D) Yes, if there is only material damage Correct: B)
Explanation: Modifying an accident site is prohibited without formal authorization from the investigation authority, except for essential rescue measures.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_12) - A) He extends the airbrakes and waits - B) He asks the tow pilot by radio what his position is - C) He immediately releases the rope - D) He prepares to jump by parachute Correct: C)
Explanation: If the pilot loses sight of the tow plane, immediately release the rope. Continuing tow flight without seeing the tow plane is extremely dangerous.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_13) - A) Yes, always - B) Only for aerobatics - C) No - D) For all flights above 300 m AGL Correct: C)
Explanation: Wearing a parachute is not mandatory for gliders in Switzerland for normal flights. It is recommended but not regulatory.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_14) - A) Normally, with a sideslip - B) Slightly above minimum speed, and at a lower height than with a headwind - C) Faster than with a headwind - D) At best glide speed and a little higher than with a headwind Correct: B)
Explanation: With tailwind on a 400 m field: approach slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than with headwind. Tailwind increases ground speed.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_15) - A) I give way to the right - B) I give way to the left - C) I maintain my straight heading keeping the motorglider in sight - D) I extend the airbrakes and give way downward Correct: A)
Explanation: A powered motorglider coming from the right has right of way (converging routes rule). You must give way to the right to let it pass.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_16) - A) 100 m vertically, 300 m horizontally - B) 50 m vertically, 100 m horizontally - C) 300 m vertically, 1500 m horizontally - D) Clear of clouds with flight visibility Correct: B)
Explanation: In a glider-specific restricted zone (LS-R), reduced distances apply: 50 m vertically and 100 m horizontally from clouds (instead of standard distances).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_17) - A) Release the canopy, unfasten harness, open the parachute, jump - B) Unfasten harness, release the canopy, jump, open the parachute - C) Release the canopy, unfasten harness, jump, open the parachute - D) Unfasten harness, pull the parachute handle, release the canopy, jump Correct: C)
Explanation: In case of parachute bailout: 1) Release canopy 2) Unfasten harness 3) Jump 4) Open parachute. Order is crucial for safety.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_18) - A) Downhill into the wind - B) Always across the slope - C) Always facing up the slope, regardless of wind - D) With left wind, across the slope Correct: A)
Explanation: Landing on a slope: always downhill into the wind. Uphill + tailwind would dangerously extend the landing distance.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_19) - A) A vast field, freshly ploughed and sloping upward - B) A field of tall cereal crops which shortens the roll by braking effect - C) A field near a road and a telephone - D) A large flat field, oriented into the wind, free of obstacles on the approach axis Correct: D)
Explanation: The best field for an off-field landing is a large flat field, oriented into the wind, free of obstacles on the approach axis.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/70%20-%20Proc%C3%A9dures%20op%C3%A9rationnelles.md#^bazl_702_20) - A) Notify the nearest police station - B) Immediately notify the aviation accident investigation bureau via REGA - C) If it is a minor accident, no report is necessary - D) Notify the OFAC in writing Correct: B)
Explanation: A fuselage broken near the rudder after a ground loop = serious accident. Immediately notify the accident investigation bureau (via REGA if necessary).
=== NEW QUESTIONS (from QuizVDS, not yet in set) ===
Source: EASA ECQB-SPL (new questions not in existing set) | 18 questions
Correct: A)
Explanation: When an off-field landing on inclined terrain is unavoidable, the correct technique is to approach with increased speed and perform a quick, firm flare to match the glider's pitch attitude to the slope angle at touchdown — this minimises the relative vertical velocity on contact. Landing down a ridge (option B) dramatically increases ground speed and roll-out distance, risking a collision with terrain ahead. Approaching parallel to the ridge (option C) ignores the slope problem. Minimum speed (option D) leaves no energy margin for the flare on sloped ground.
Correct: A)
Explanation: If the gear is not extended on final approach and there is insufficient height to safely extend it, the safest action is to complete a gear-up landing at minimum speed, accepting a belly-landing with controlled, gentle touchdown. Extending gear at the last moment (option B) risks an asymmetric or partially extended gear, which is more dangerous. Retracting flaps to buy time (option C) alters the approach profile unpredictably close to the ground. Landing without gear at higher speed (option D) worsens the damage and increases risk of injury.
Correct: A)
Explanation: During a winch launch, the maximum pitch (steep climb) attitude should not be adopted until approximately 50 m AGL, while maintaining a safe minimum launch speed. Below 50 m, a cable break would not allow a straight-ahead landing if the nose is too high; above 50 m there is sufficient height to recover. 15 m is too low and dangerous. 150 m is overly conservative and wastes the launch energy. Pitching up immediately after liftoff (option D) is extremely hazardous regardless of headwind.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Approach and landing speed must account for both aircraft weight and wind conditions (including gusts). A heavier aircraft requires a higher approach speed to maintain adequate safety margin above stall. Higher winds — especially gusts — require an additional speed increment to avoid sudden loss of airspeed and lift. Altitude alone does not directly determine approach speed. Options A, B, and C are incomplete; option D correctly names both weight and wind speed.
Correct: A)
Explanation: During an outlanding, visual cues in the environment are the most reliable and immediately available indicators of wind direction and strength: smoke drifting from chimneys, flags, and rippling crops clearly show the current local wind. A weather forecast (option B) may not reflect local conditions precisely at that moment. Radio contact with other pilots (option C) is unreliable and slow. The windsock at the departure airfield (option D) is irrelevant to conditions at the outlanding site.
Correct: A)
Explanation: On a downhill grass area, landing uphill means the aircraft is climbing toward the ground, which naturally decelerates the glider and shortens the roll-out — this is the recommended technique. Landing diagonally downhill (option B) risks ground-looping. Using wheel brakes without airbrakes (option C) may be ineffective or cause a nose-over on rough terrain. Landing with gear retracted and stalled (option D) is dangerous and unnecessary.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Before initiating any turn during flight, the pilot must first check that the airspace in the intended direction is clear of other aircraft, obstacles, and restricted areas. A coordinated turn (option A) is always desirable but is secondary to the lookout. Thermal clouds (option B) and loose objects (option C) are not safety priorities before a heading change. Collision avoidance through a proper lookout is the primary concern.
Correct: A)
Explanation: A tailwind during winch launch means the aircraft has a lower airspeed relative to the ground at any given ground speed, so more ground roll is needed before reaching flying speed — liftoff takes longer and the pilot must monitor the airspeed carefully. Tailwind does not reduce the required cable tension rating (option B). Tailwind from behind reduces effective airspeed, so the roll is longer, not shorter (option C is incorrect). Pulling back immediately after liftoff in a tailwind is hazardous (option D).
Correct: D)
Explanation: On the base-to-final turn, a maximum bank angle of 30° is recommended to keep turn coordination manageable and to avoid the risk of a low-speed stall-spin. The yaw string (slip indicator) and airspeed must be closely monitored because crosswind complicates the turn geometry. If the aircraft overshoots the final track, a gentle track correction is made after the turn — never a steep rudder input to force alignment, as this risks a skidded stall. Options A and C allow up to 60° bank, which is excessive and dangerous near the ground.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When two sailplanes are circling in the same thermal in close proximity, the most effective way to create separation is to increase speed, which increases the turn radius and moves the faster aircraft to a position opposite in the circle (180° apart), creating the maximum safe separation. Reducing speed (option A) tightens the radius and closes the gap. Reducing bank (option B) also increases radius but slowly. Increasing bank (option C) makes the glider smaller in profile but does not solve the proximity problem.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Standard traffic pattern heights for a glider are approximately 150–200 m AGL abeam the threshold (downwind leg) and 100 m AGL after the final turn. These heights give the pilot adequate time and space to plan the approach and use airbrakes effectively for a precise landing. The lower heights in options A and C leave insufficient margin for corrections; the higher values in options B and C are excessive for unpowered glider operations.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In strong winds, the windward (upwind) wing should be placed on the ground to prevent the wind from getting under it and flipping the aircraft. The wing is then weighted down with a sandbag or similar weight, and the control surfaces (rudder) are secured to prevent them from being damaged by aerodynamic buffeting. Pointing the nose into wind (options A and B) presents a large fuselage surface to cross-gusts and does not protect the wings. Placing the downwind wing on the ground (option C) allows the upwind wing to be lifted by the wind.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Mountain ridges produce significant turbulence on the lee side and in the rotor zone, but turbulence can also occur directly at the ridge crest. Flying slightly faster than normal provides better control authority and reduces the risk of a stall in turbulence. Reducing to minimum speed (option A) is dangerous as turbulence could cause the aircraft to stall. Overflight of national parks (option B) is a regulatory matter, not a primary safety consideration when crossing ridges. Circling birds indicate thermals (option D) but this does not address the turbulence hazard of ridge crossing.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is a classic aerodynamic warning of an approaching stall: separated airflow from the wings passes over the tail surface, causing the elevator to vibrate. This occurs at low airspeed when the angle of attack exceeds the critical angle. A forward CG (option A) makes the aircraft more stable and resistant to stall. A dirty airframe (option B) may affect performance but does not directly cause elevator buffeting. Turbulence at high speed (option D) would be felt as general airframe shaking, not specifically at the elevator.
Correct: A)
Explanation: A pre-flight check (walk-around and cockpit check) must be performed before the first flight of the day and after every change of pilot, because each pilot is responsible for verifying the aircraft's airworthiness before they fly it. A check after every assembly (option B) applies to aircraft that are dismantled between flights (trailer gliders) — this is a separate requirement. Monthly checks (option C) describe maintenance intervals, not pre-flight procedures. Option D ('before every flight') is too broad and would be burdensome; it is the daily first-flight and pilot-change rule that is standard practice.
Correct: C)
Explanation: ICAO Annex 1 defines flight time for aircraft as the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. For sailplanes (non-motorised), this is interpreted as from first movement (e.g., the start of the winch run or aerotow) until the aircraft comes to rest after landing. Option A describes block time for powered aircraft. Option B is too narrow (only the take-off and landing roll). Option D describes a duty period concept, not a single flight.
Correct: C)
Explanation: With strong gusts (here: wind 15 kt, gusts 25 kt — a 10 kt spread), the pilot must add a gust allowance to the normal approach speed to ensure that a sudden drop in airspeed caused by a gust does not reduce speed below the stall speed. Firm rudder inputs are needed to correct attitude changes caused by the gusty conditions. Minimum speed (option A) provides no safety margin in gusts. Normal speed without gust correction (option B) is insufficient. Avoiding spoilers/airbrakes (option D) removes the ability to control the glide path precisely.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is the tactile warning that the wing has approached its critical angle of attack and airflow is beginning to separate — the pre-stall buffet. This is caused by turbulent separated airflow from the wing reaching the tail and exciting the elevator. Option A (CG too far forward) makes the aircraft pitch-stable and stall-resistant. Option B (dirty airframe) degrades performance but does not specifically cause elevator buffeting. Option D (high speed turbulence) produces general airframe vibration unrelated to stall.
