=== EXISTING QUESTIONS (from SPL Exam Questions EN) ===
Source: QuizVDS.it (EASA ECQB-SPL) | 50 questions Free practice: https://quizvds.it/en-en/quiz/spl-en
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q1) - A) Gear, speed brakes and elevator trim tab. - B) Speed brakes, cable release and elevator trim. - C) Speed brakes, cabin hood lock and gear. - D) Cabin hood release, speed brakes, elevator trim Correct: D)
Explanation: EASA standardizes cockpit lever colors in gliders: red for the cabin hood (canopy) release, blue for speed brakes (airbrakes), and green for elevator trim. This color coding ensures pilots can quickly identify critical controls under stress without confusion. Options A, B, and C mix up the color-to-function assignments — for example, no standard assigns red to gear or blue to cable release.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q2) - A) Thinnest part of the wing. - B) Most inner part of the wing. - C) Thickest part of the wing. - D) Most outer part of the wing Correct: C)
Explanation: Wing thickness is defined as the maximum perpendicular distance between the upper and lower wing surfaces, measured at the thickest part of the cross-section (airfoil). This point is typically located between 20–30% of the chord from the leading edge. The thinnest part (A) or outer tip (D) would give a smaller, less meaningful measurement, and the inner root (B) describes spanwise location rather than airfoil thickness.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q3) - A) Grid construction - B) Honeycomb structure - C) Monocoque construction - D) Semi-monocoque construction. Correct: A)
Explanation: A grid (or truss/lattice) construction uses a framework of tubes or members to carry all structural loads, with the skin serving only as a fairing — it does not contribute to structural strength. Monocoque construction (C) has the skin carrying all loads with no internal framework. Semi-monocoque (D) uses both a frame and a load-bearing skin. Honeycomb (B) is a core material used in sandwich structures, not a fuselage type.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q4) - A) Covers, stringers and forming parts - B) Frames and stringer - C) Girders, rips and stringers - D) Rips, frames and covers Correct: B)
Explanation: The primary longitudinal and transverse structural members of a traditional fuselage are frames (also called formers or bulkheads — running circumferentially) and stringers (running lengthwise). Together they form the skeleton over which the skin is attached. Covers and ribs are wing components, and "girders" is not standard fuselage terminology. The simplicity of frames + stringers makes B the correct fundamental answer.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q5) - A) Honeycomb structure - B) Wood- or mixed construction. - C) Semi-monocoque construction. - D) Grid construction. Correct: C)
Explanation: Semi-monocoque construction uses both an internal framework (frames and stringers) AND a skin that actively bears structural loads (tension, compression, shear). This is the most common modern aircraft fuselage design. Pure monocoque relies entirely on the skin with no internal structure. Grid construction (D) has a non-load-bearing skin. Honeycomb (A) is a material/sandwich type, not a fuselage structural concept.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q6) - A) Rudder and ailerons - B) Steering wheel and pedals - C) Horizontal tail and vertical tail - D) Ailerons and elevator Correct: C)
Explanation: The tail assembly (empennage) consists of the horizontal stabilizer (with elevator) and the vertical stabilizer (with rudder). These are the two major structural groups. Ailerons (A, D) are located on the wings, not the tail. Steering wheel and pedals (B) are cockpit controls, not aircraft structure. The empennage provides pitch and yaw stability and control.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q7) - A) Thick layers and a light core material. - B) Thick layers and a heavy core material. - C) Thin layers and a light core material. - D) Thin layers and a heavy core material Correct: C)
Explanation: A sandwich structure uses two thin, stiff face sheets (typically CFRP, glass fiber, or aluminum) bonded to a lightweight core material (foam, balsa wood, or honeycomb). The thin skins carry bending loads while the light core resists shear and keeps the skins separated, providing exceptional stiffness-to-weight ratio. A heavy core (B, D) would defeat the purpose of weight efficiency. Thick layers (A, B) would add unnecessary mass.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q8) - A) Rips - B) Planking - C) Tip - D) Spar Correct: A)
Explanation: Ribs (rips) are the chordwise structural members that define the airfoil cross-section shape of the wing. They run perpendicular to the spar and give the wing its characteristic profile. The spar (D) is the main spanwise load-bearing beam. Planking/skin (B) covers the structure but follows the shape set by the ribs. The wingtip (C) is the outer end of the wing, not a profile-shaping element.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q9) - A) Weight and thrust. - B) Drag and lift - C) Lift and weight - D) Thrust and drag. Correct: C)
Explanation: The load factor n = Lift / Weight. At straight and level flight, n = 1 (1g). In a banked turn or pull-up maneuver, lift must exceed weight to maintain altitude, increasing n above 1. For example, in a 60° bank, n = 2 (2g). Load factor is critical for structural design — gliders have maximum positive and negative g-limits that must not be exceeded to prevent structural failure.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q10) - A) Low weight, high stiffness, high stability, and high strength - B) High temperature durability and low weight - C) High strength and good formability - D) Good formability and high temperature durability Correct: A)
Explanation: Sandwich structures excel at combining low weight with high stiffness, stability, and strength — the ideal combination for aerospace applications. By spacing two stiff face sheets apart with a lightweight core, the structure achieves very high bending stiffness (proportional to the cube of thickness). Temperature durability (B, D) is not a primary advantage — most cores (foam, honeycomb) are temperature-sensitive. Good formability (C, D) is limited compared to single-material sheets.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q11) - A) Magnesium - B) Carbon fiber re-inforced plastic - C) Aluminium - D) Wood Correct: B)
Explanation: Carbon fiber reinforced plastic (CFRP) has an exceptional strength-to-weight ratio — higher tensile strength than steel at a fraction of the weight. This is why modern high-performance gliders are predominantly CFRP construction. Aluminum (C) is strong and lightweight but significantly weaker than CFRP. Magnesium (A) is even lighter than aluminum but lower in strength. Wood (D) has good specific strength but is the weakest in absolute terms of those listed.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q12) - A) Reduce stick force on the elevator. - B) Reduce stick force on the ailerons. - C) Reduce stick force on the rudder. - D) Reduce the adverse yaw. Correct: A)
Explanation: The trim system adjusts the elevator trim tab (or spring trim) to hold a desired pitch attitude without continuous pilot input force on the stick. This reduces pilot workload on long final glides or thermalling. Ailerons (B) and rudder (C) are not trimmed by the standard glider trim lever. Adverse yaw (D) is a roll/yaw coupling phenomenon addressed by rudder coordination, not trim.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q13) - A) Airspeed decreasing below a certain value. - B) Neutralizing stick forces according to actual flight state - C) Exceeding the manoeuvering speed in heavy gusts - D) Stall after exceeding the maximum angle of attack. Correct: C)
Explanation: Exceeding maneuvering speed (VA) in turbulent/gusty conditions can cause structural damage because gusts apply sudden load factors that may exceed the aircraft's design limit load. VA is defined as the speed at which a full control deflection or a maximum gust will not exceed the structural limit. Stall (D) itself does not damage the structure. Low airspeed (A) and neutralizing stick forces (B) do not create damaging structural loads.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q14) - A) 3; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis - B) 4; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis, axis of speed - C) 3; x-axis, y-axis, z-axis - D) 4; optical axis, imaginary axis, sagged axis, axis of evil Correct: A)
Explanation: An aircraft moves about three principal axes: the longitudinal axis (nose to tail — roll), the lateral axis (wingtip to wingtip — pitch), and the vertical axis (top to bottom — yaw). All three pass through the aircraft's center of gravity. Option C uses mathematical labels but omits their aviation names. Options B and D invent a non-existent fourth axis.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q15) - A) Elevator. - B) Ailerons. - C) Trim tab. - D) Rudder Correct: B)
Explanation: The ailerons control roll — rotation around the longitudinal axis (the axis running nose to tail). When one aileron deflects up and the other down, differential lift is created, rolling the aircraft. The elevator (A) controls pitch (rotation around the lateral axis). The rudder (D) controls yaw (rotation around the vertical axis). The trim tab (C) is a secondary control that modifies control forces, not a primary roll initiator.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q16) - A) Manually through rods and control cables - B) Hydraulically through hydraulic pumps and actuators - C) Electrically through fly-by-wire - D) Power-assisted through hydraulic pumps or electric motors Correct: A)
Explanation: Small piston aircraft and gliders use direct mechanical linkages — push-pull rods and/or steel control cables — to transmit pilot input directly to the control surfaces. This is simple, lightweight, and reliable with no power source required. Hydraulic systems (B, D) are used on larger aircraft. Fly-by-wire (C) is used on modern airliners and military aircraft where electrical signals replace mechanical connections.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q17) - A) Primary: yaw to the right Secondary: roll to the left - B) Primary: yaw to the left Secondary: roll to the left - C) Primary: yaw to the right Secondary: roll to the right - D) Primary: yaw to the left Secondary: roll to the right Correct: B)
Explanation: The primary effect of left rudder is yaw to the left — the nose swings left around the vertical axis. The secondary effect is a roll to the left: as the nose yaws left, the right wing moves forward and generates more lift, while the left wing slows and generates less, causing the aircraft to bank left. This coupling between yaw and roll is an important aerodynamic relationship for coordinating turns in gliders.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q18) - A) The aircraft's tail will produce an decreased upward force, causing the aircraft's nose to drop - B) The aircraft's tail will produce an increased upward force, causing the aircraft's nose to rise - C) The aircraft's tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft's nose to drop - D) The aircraft's tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft's nose to rise Correct: D)
Explanation: Pulling back on the stick deflects the elevator upward. This increases the downward aerodynamic force on the tail (the horizontal stabilizer + elevator generate a downward lift force). With the tail pushed down, the nose pivots up around the lateral axis. This seems counterintuitive but is correct: the tail goes down, nose goes up. Option B incorrectly states the tail force direction as upward.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q19) - A) Flaps, slats, speedbrakes - B) Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls - C) Elevator, rudder, aileron - D) All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft Correct: C)
Explanation: The three primary flight controls are elevator (pitch), rudder (yaw), and aileron (roll) — these directly control the aircraft's rotation about its three axes and are essential for flight. Option A lists secondary/high-lift devices. Option B mixes primary and secondary controls together. Option D is too broad — not all movable parts are primary controls. Flaps, trim tabs, and speedbrakes are secondary controls.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q20) - A) To improve the performance characteristics of an aircraft and relieve the pilot of excessive control forces - B) To improve the turn characteristics of an aircraft in the low speed regime during approach and landing - C) To enable the pilot to control the aircraft's movements about its three axes - D) To constitute a backup system for the primary flight controls Correct: A)
Explanation: Secondary flight controls (trim tabs, flaps, speedbrakes, slats) serve to optimize performance and reduce pilot workload — they are not essential for basic flight control. Trim reduces stick forces for hands-off flight; flaps improve low-speed lift. Option C describes primary controls. Option D is wrong — secondary controls are not backups for primary controls. Option B is too narrow, applying only part of the secondary control function.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q21) - A) The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves down - B) The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves up - C) The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves up - D) The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves down Correct: B)
Explanation: Moving the trim lever aft (back) commands a nose-up trim. The trim tab deflects downward — the aerodynamic force on the tab then pushes the elevator upward (floating up). The elevated elevator deflects the tail downward and raises the nose. Trim tabs always move opposite to the elevator: when the trim tab goes down, the elevator goes up, and vice versa (anti-servo tab principle).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q22) - A) It moves down - B) In direction of rudder deflection - C) It moves up - D) Depends on CG position Correct: A)
Explanation: To trim nose up, the elevator must be held in an upward position. The trim tab moves down to achieve this: the downward tab creates an aerodynamic force that pushes the elevator up and holds it there without pilot input. This is the fundamental inverse relationship between trim tab and elevator deflection. CG position (D) affects trim authority but not the direction of tab movement. Rudder (B) is irrelevant to elevator trim.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q23) - A) Adapt the control force. - B) Increase adverse yaw. - C) Move the centre of gravity - D) Lock control elements. Correct: A)
Explanation: Trim is used to neutralize control forces so the pilot does not need to continuously push or pull the stick to maintain a desired flight attitude. By adjusting the trim, the pilot can fly hands-off at a set speed and attitude. Trim cannot move the center of gravity (C) — that requires shifting mass. Trim does not lock controls (D) or increase adverse yaw (B), which is a side-effect of aileron use.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q24) - A) Prevent potential static buildup on the aircraft. - B) Measure total and static air pressure. - C) Prevent icing of the Pitot tube. - D) Correct the reading of the airspeed indicator to zero when the aircraft is static on the ground. Correct: B)
Explanation: The Pitot-static system measures two types of air pressure: total pressure (measured by the Pitot tube, which captures both static and dynamic pressure) and static pressure (measured by the static port, sensing ambient atmospheric pressure). These pressures are fed to the ASI, altimeter, and VSI. Preventing static buildup (A) or icing (C) are operational concerns, not the system's purpose. The ASI reading at rest on the ground is a consequence of zero dynamic pressure, not a calibration function.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q25) - A) Dynamic air pressure - B) Cabin air pressure - C) Total air pressure - D) Static air pressure Correct: C)
Explanation: The Pitot tube faces into the airflow and measures total pressure (also called stagnation pressure), which is the sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure (q = ½ρv²). It does not measure dynamic pressure alone (A) — that is derived by subtracting static pressure from total pressure in the ASI. Static pressure (D) is measured by the separate static port. Cabin pressure (B) is unrelated to the Pitot-static system.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q26) - A) Altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa. - B) Magnetic bearing to a station. - C) Barometric pressure adjusted to sea level, using the international standard atmosphere (ISA). - D) Barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield. Correct: D)
Explanation: QFE is the actual barometric pressure measured at a specific reference point, typically the airfield or runway threshold elevation. When QFE is set in the altimeter subscale, the altimeter reads zero on the runway — showing height above the airfield. QNH (not QFE) is the pressure adjusted to mean sea level (C). Flight levels use 1013.25 hPa (A). A magnetic bearing to a station (B) is QDM/QDR terminology, unrelated to altimetry.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q27) - A) To correct the altimeter reading for system errors - B) To reference the altimeter reading to a predetermined level such as mean sea level, aerodrome level or pressure level 1013.25 hPa - C) To set the reference level for the altitude decoder of the transponder - D) To adjust the altimeter reading for non-standard temperature Correct: B)
Explanation: The altimeter subscale (Kollsman window) allows the pilot to set a reference pressure (QNH, QFE, or 1013.25 hPa) so the altimeter reads altitude relative to that reference datum — sea level, airfield elevation, or the standard pressure surface for flight levels respectively. It does not correct for system errors (A), temperature errors (D — that requires a temperature correction calculation), or directly set the transponder (C).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q28) - A) If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended - B) If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended - C) If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may lead to much greater heights above the ground than intended - D) If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended Correct: A)
Explanation: If you set a higher pressure than the actual QNH, the altimeter "thinks" the reference pressure is higher, so it reads a higher altitude than your actual altitude — you are closer to the ground than the instrument shows. This is the dangerous scenario: you believe you have terrain clearance but you may not. The memory aid is "High to Low, look out below" — setting too high a pressure gives an over-reading.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q29) - A) An altitude indication which is too high. - B) An altitude indication which is too low. - C) A correct altitude indication as long as the altimeter subscale is set to correct for non-standard temperature. - D) A blockage of the Pitot tube by ice, freezing the altimeter indication to its present value. Correct: A)
Explanation: The altimeter assumes ISA standard temperature to convert pressure differences to altitude. In colder-than-standard air, the air is denser and the pressure decreases more rapidly with altitude than ISA predicts. The altimeter over-reads — it indicates a higher altitude than the aircraft's actual altitude. The aircraft is closer to the ground than shown. The memory aid: "Cold air, you're lower than you think." The altimeter subscale (C) only sets pressure datum, not temperature correction.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q30) - A) True altitude. - B) Altitude above ground. - C) Density altitude. - D) Pressure altitude. Correct: D)
Explanation: A flight level (FL) is a pressure altitude expressed in hundreds of feet with the altimeter subscale set to 1013.25 hPa (standard pressure). FL100 = 10,000 ft on the standard pressure setting. All aircraft above the transition altitude use this common datum, ensuring separation between aircraft regardless of local QNH variations. True altitude (A) is the actual height above MSL. Altitude above ground (B) is height AGL. Density altitude (C) relates to performance calculations.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q31) - A) A height above ground level corrected for non-standard temperature. - B) A height above ground level corrected for non-standard pressure. - C) An altitude above mean sea level corrected for non-standard temperature. - D) A pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. Correct: C)
Explanation: True altitude is the actual geometric height of the aircraft above mean sea level (MSL), corrected for non-standard temperature deviations from ISA. It differs from indicated altitude (which assumes ISA) and pressure altitude (referenced to 1013.25 hPa). It is referenced to MSL, not AGL (eliminating A and B). Option D is partially correct but incomplete — true altitude is the real MSL height, not just a pressure altitude with a temperature correction applied.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q32) - A) Higher than the true altitude - B) Eqal to the true altitude. - C) Equal to the standard altitude. - D) Lower than the true altitude Correct: A)
Explanation: In cold air, the atmosphere is compressed — air is denser and pressure falls faster with altitude than the ISA model assumes. The altimeter (which uses ISA pressure gradient) therefore over-reads: it shows a higher altitude than the aircraft's actual (true) altitude. The aircraft is lower in reality than the altimeter indicates. This is a significant safety concern near terrain. "High to low (pressure or temperature) — look out below."
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q33) - A) Lower than the true altitude. - B) Equal to the standard atmosphere. - C) Higher than the true altitude. - D) Equal to the true altitude. Correct: D)
Explanation: When both the actual pressure (set correctly via QNH) and actual temperature exactly match ISA standard conditions, the altimeter's assumptions are perfectly valid. No temperature or pressure correction is needed, so the indicated altitude equals the true altitude (actual height above MSL). This is the ideal baseline condition. Any deviation in pressure or temperature from ISA will introduce errors.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q34) - A) Direct reading compass - B) Tachometer - C) Vertical speed indicator - D) Altimeter Correct: D)
Explanation: Hysteresis error in the altimeter occurs because the aneroid capsules (bellows) that expand and contract with pressure changes have a mechanical lag — they do not return to exactly the same position when pressure is restored to a previous value. This means the altimeter may give slightly different readings at the same altitude when climbing versus descending. The compass, tachometer, and VSI do not use elastic aneroid capsules in the same manner and are not subject to this specific error.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q35) - A) Static pressure. - B) Dynamic pressure. - C) Total pressure. - D) Differential pressure. Correct: A)
Explanation: Static pressure decreases with increasing altitude in a predictable manner (in the ISA model). The altimeter measures static pressure from the static port and converts this pressure to an altitude reading using calibrated aneroid capsules. Dynamic pressure (B) depends on airspeed and is used by the ASI. Total pressure (C) is static + dynamic, used by the Pitot tube. Differential pressure (D) is the difference between total and static — that is what drives the ASI, not the altimeter.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q36) - A) Measuring the present static air pressure and comparing it to the static air pressure inside a reservoir - B) Measuring the vertical acceleration through the displacement of a gimbal-mounted mass - C) Total air pressure is measured and compared to static pressure - D) Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum Correct: A)
Explanation: The vertical speed indicator (VSI) works by comparing the current static pressure (from the static port) against a reference pressure stored in a sealed reservoir (or capsule with a calibrated leak). When climbing, static pressure drops faster than the reservoir bleeds down, creating a pressure difference that indicates a climb rate. The calibrated leak rate determines the instrument's response. Option B describes an accelerometer. Option C describes the ASI. Option D describes a simple pressure gauge, not a rate instrument.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q37) - A) The present dynamic pressure and the dynamic pressure of a previous moment. - B) The present total pressure and the total pressure of a previous moment. - C) The present dynamic pressure and the static pressure of a previous moment - D) The present static pressure and the static pressure of a previous moment. Correct: D)
Explanation: The VSI compares the current ambient static pressure (which changes as altitude changes) with the static pressure from a short time ago (stored in the metering reservoir through a calibrated restriction). The rate at which static pressure changes indicates the rate of climb or descent. Dynamic pressure (A, C) plays no role in the VSI. Total pressure (B) is measured by the Pitot tube for the ASI, not used in the VSI.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q38) - A) 130 kt - B) 100 kt - C) 30 kt - D) 70 kt Correct: B)
Explanation: The airspeed indicator measures Indicated Air Speed (IAS), which reflects the airspeed relative to the surrounding air mass — not relative to the ground. The aircraft is flying at 100 kt through the air. The wind (also moving at 30 kt from 180°, meaning a tailwind) affects the aircraft's ground speed (which would be 70 kt, option D), but it does not affect the relative airspeed between aircraft and surrounding air. The ASI always reads the aircraft's speed through the air mass, regardless of wind.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q39) - A) Dynamic air pressure is measured by the Pitot tube and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator - B) Total air pressure is measured by the static ports and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator - C) Total air pressure is measured and compared against static air pressure - D) Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum. Correct: C)
Explanation: The ASI works by comparing total pressure (from the Pitot tube) against static pressure (from the static port). The difference between them is dynamic pressure (q = ½ρv²), which is proportional to airspeed squared. The ASI capsule expands proportionally to this pressure difference and drives the needle. Option A is incorrect because the Pitot tube measures total pressure, not dynamic pressure alone. Option B is wrong because static ports measure static (not total) pressure. Option D describes a barometer, not an ASI.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q40) - A) Operational limits - B) Caution areas - C) Operational areas - D) Recommended areas Correct: A)
Explanation: Red lines (radial marks) on aircraft instrument displays indicate never-exceed limits — the absolute operational limits that must not be exceeded. On the ASI, the red line marks VNE (never-exceed speed). Yellow arcs indicate caution areas (B) — the range between maneuvering speed and VNE where flight is only permitted in smooth air. Green arcs show normal operating range (C). White arcs typically indicate flap operating speeds. There is no standard "recommended areas" marking (D).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q41) - A) The difference between the total pressure and the dynamic pressure - B) The difference between the dynamic pressure and the static pressure - C) The difference between the standard pressure and the total pressure - D) The difference betweeen the total pressure and the static presssure Correct: D)
Explanation: IAS is determined from the difference between total pressure (Pitot tube) and static pressure (static port). This difference equals dynamic pressure (q = ½ρv²), from which airspeed is derived. Option A (total minus dynamic) would equal static pressure — not useful for airspeed. Option B (dynamic minus static) is not a meaningful aerodynamic quantity in this context. Option C (standard minus total) has no aerodynamic significance for airspeed measurement.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q42) - A) Speed which must not be exceeded regardless of circumstances - B) Speed which must not be exceeded within bumpy air - C) Speed which must not be exceeded with flaps extended - D) Speed which must not be exceeded in turns with more than 45° bank Correct: A)
Explanation: The red line on the ASI marks VNE — the never-exceed speed — which is an absolute structural limit that must not be exceeded under any circumstances, including smooth air. Exceeding VNE risks flutter, structural failure, or loss of control. Option B describes the yellow arc (caution range), where flight is only permitted in smooth air. Option C describes VFE (flap extension speed). Option D describes no standard speed marking — maneuvering speed (VA) relates to gust/maneuver loads but is not marked by color range on the ASI.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q43) - A) Inclination - B) Variation. - C) Deviation - D) Declination. Correct: C)
Explanation: Deviation is the compass error caused by the aircraft's own magnetic fields (from metal structures, electrical equipment, engines). It is measured in degrees and varies with aircraft heading — it is recorded on a deviation card in the cockpit. Variation (B, also called declination D) is the angle between true north and magnetic north — an earth-based error, not caused by the aircraft. Inclination (A) is the vertical dip of the earth's magnetic field, which causes turning and acceleration errors.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q44) - A) Inclination and declination of the earth's magnetic field - B) Gravity and magnetism - C) Deviation, turning and acceleration errors - D) Variation, turning and acceleration errors Correct: C)
Explanation: The magnetic compass is affected by deviation (from the aircraft's own magnetic field), turning errors (caused by magnetic dip/inclination — the compass card tilts and reads incorrectly during turns in the northern hemisphere), and acceleration errors (the compass reads incorrectly during speed changes on east/west headings). Variation/declination (A, D) is a geographic difference between true and magnetic north that applies to all magnetic compasses equally and is not an "error" in the same sense — it is a known, chartable quantity.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q45) - A) Direct-reading compass - B) Altimeter - C) Vertical speed indicator - D) Airspeed indicator Correct: D)
Explanation: The airspeed indicator is the only instrument connected to the Pitot tube (which supplies total pressure). The altimeter (B) and vertical speed indicator (C) are connected only to the static port — they measure changes in static pressure for altitude and climb/descent rate. The direct-reading compass (A) is a self-contained magnetic instrument with no connection to the Pitot-static system.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q46) - A) 270° - B) 030° - C) 360° - D) 330° Correct: D)
Explanation: The shortest turn from 270° to 360° is a right turn (northward, through west-to-north). In the northern hemisphere, the compass leads during turns toward north — it reads ahead of the actual heading. Therefore the pilot must stop the turn early, before the compass reaches 360°. A rule of thumb: stop 30° before the target heading when turning to north. 360° − 30° = 330°. If you wait until the compass shows 360°, you will have overshot and be past 360° (i.e., on approximately 030°).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q47) - A) Airspeed indicator, direct-reading compass, slip indicator - B) Airspeed indicator, altimeter, direct-reading compass - C) Altimeter, slip indicator, navigational computer - D) Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator Correct: D)
Explanation: The static port supplies static pressure to three instruments: the altimeter (measures static pressure to indicate altitude), the vertical speed indicator (compares current static pressure to a stored reference), and the airspeed indicator (uses static pressure in combination with Pitot total pressure). The direct-reading compass (A, B) is a self-contained magnetic instrument requiring no pneumatic input. The slip indicator (A, C) is a gravity/inertial instrument, not connected to the static system.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q48) - A) 360° - B) 270° - C) 240° - D) 300° Correct: B)
Explanation: The shortest turn from 360° to 270° is a left turn (turning from north through west). In the northern hemisphere, the compass lags during turns away from north (toward south) and leads during turns toward north. When turning away from north (southward turn), the compass lags — it under-reads the turn. However, when turning through west (270°), the turning error is minimal. For turns to southerly headings the pilot must overshoot, but for 270° (west), the compass reading is approximately accurate at the completion point. The answer is to stop at 270° as indicated.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q49) - A) Inside the airplane cabin. - B) Of undisturbed airflow - C) Resulting from orderly flow of air particles. - D) Sensed by the pitot tube. Correct: B)
Explanation: Static pressure is the ambient atmospheric pressure of undisturbed air — the pressure exerted by the air molecules in all directions, independent of airflow velocity. It is measured by flush static ports on the aircraft's fuselage, positioned to minimize dynamic pressure effects. Cabin pressure (A) is a separate, regulated pressure. The Pitot tube (D) senses total pressure, not static pressure. Option C partially describes static pressure but is imprecise — it is the pressure of the air at rest or in undisturbed flow.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^q50) - A) 150° - B) 180° - C) 360° - D) 210°. Correct: D)
Explanation: The shortest turn from 030° to 180° is a right turn (clockwise through east and south). When turning toward southerly headings in the northern hemisphere, the compass lags — it under-reads the actual heading, showing a smaller heading than the aircraft has actually turned to. Therefore, the pilot must overshoot past the target — continue turning until the compass reads approximately 180° + 30° = 210°. The compass will then be lagging, showing 210° when the aircraft is actually on approximately 180°. This is the northern hemisphere rule: undershoot when turning to north, overshoot when turning to south.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_18) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: In gliders, the EASA color coding convention assigns red to the emergency canopy release lever. This warning color is reserved for critical safety controls that allow rapid egress from the aircraft. The landing gear uses green, the ventilation control has no standardized color, and the wheel brake is not coded red.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_1) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: Honeycomb elements are characteristic of modern composite construction. The honeycomb structure serves as a lightweight core in composite sandwich panels, typically with glass fiber or carbon fiber skins. This type of construction provides an excellent strength-to-weight ratio, typical of today's high-performance gliders. Wood, metal or biplane configurations do not use this core material.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_3) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: When the horizontal stabilizer (stabilizer and elevator) is mounted at the top of the vertical fin, the configuration forms a "T" when viewed from the front — hence the name T-tail. This is a common configuration on modern gliders such as the Discus B, as it places the horizontal stabilizer in undisturbed air above the wing wake. A cruciform tail places the stabilizer at mid-height; a V-tail combines both surfaces into two angled surfaces.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_11) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: The fixed horizontal and vertical stabilizers of the tail unit have the primary purpose of stabilizing the glider — they provide static stability in pitch and yaw, automatically restoring the aircraft to its equilibrium attitude after a disturbance. Steering (D) is accomplished by the movable control surfaces (elevator and rudder). Trimming the control forces (A, B) is the role of the trim tab, not the fixed stabilizers.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_8) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: The center-of-gravity tow hook must automatically release the cable when the glider approaches the winch and risks flying over it. If the cable remains attached when the glider is nearly above the winch, the direction of pull changes abruptly and can cause a dangerous sudden pitch-up. The automatic release is therefore a critical safety measure to prevent this accident. The pilot nonetheless remains responsible for the voluntary release during other phases.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_5) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: The ailerons produce roll, which is a rotation around the longitudinal axis (the axis running from the nose to the tail of the aircraft). A deflected aileron increases lift on one side while the other rises and reduces lift on the other side, creating a rolling moment. The lateral axis (A) corresponds to pitch (elevator). The vertical axis (C) and yaw axis (D) denote the same axis, controlled by the rudder.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_2) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: When the stick is moved to the left, the left aileron deflects down (increasing lift on the left wing) and the right aileron moves up (reducing lift on the right wing). This produces a roll to the right — the left wing rises, the right wing descends. Note: the direction of the stick indicates the desired direction of roll (toward which wing one wants to rise), not the direction in which the aileron on the same side moves.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_13) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: Mechanical brake systems in gliders transmit braking force via a system of cables and pushrods (linkages) — without hydraulic fluid or electricity. This system is simple, lightweight and reliable. Hydraulic brakes (A) are used on heavier aircraft requiring greater braking force. Pneumatic (B) and electric (D) systems are not used in standard mechanical brake systems in gliders.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_4) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: Balanced control surfaces (mass-balanced) are designed primarily to eliminate the risk of flutter — a potentially catastrophic aeroelastic oscillatory phenomenon that can occur at high speeds. By placing balance weights forward of the hinge axis, the manufacturer moves the center of gravity of the control surface to its pivot axis, eliminating the coupling between aerodynamic forces and structural oscillations. Reduction of control forces (D) is a secondary objective, not the primary reason for balancing.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_16) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: The small flush-mounted orifices on the fuselage are the static pressure ports of the Pitot-static system. They sense the ambient atmospheric pressure (static pressure) and route it via internal flexible tubes to the altimeter, variometer and airspeed indicator. Their position on the fuselage is chosen to minimize local aerodynamic disturbances. They do not serve for ventilation (A, C) or temperature measurement (D).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_20) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: Only the airspeed indicator is connected to the Pitot tube, which supplies it with total pressure. The altimeter (A) and variometer (C) are connected only to the static pressure port. The turn indicator (D) is a gyroscopic instrument powered pneumatically or electrically, with no connection to the Pitot. The difference between total pressure (Pitot) and static pressure gives the dynamic pressure, from which the indicated airspeed is derived.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_10) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: When the altimeter is set to a higher reference pressure (without any change in actual pressure), the altimeter indicates a higher altitude — the reading increases. The mechanism: by increasing the reference pressure, the instrument "believes" it is at a lower altitude, so it adjusts its reading upward to match the actual pressure. This is a fundamental principle: setting a higher pressure = higher altitude reading.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_7) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: If the static pressure port is blocked by ice, the static pressure transmitted to the variometer remains constant — the internal reservoir and the measuring chamber are both at the same frozen pressure. The variometer no longer detects any pressure variation and therefore reads zero, regardless of the aircraft's actual trajectory (climb or descent). Unlike the altimeter which freezes at its last value, the variometer reads zero because the pressure difference between its two sides is nil.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_6) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: VNE (Velocity Never Exceed) is an absolute limit that must never be exceeded, under any circumstances and by any percentage whatsoever. Beyond this speed, the risks of aeroelastic flutter, structural failure or loss of control are real and immediate. Unlike other operational limits that allow temporary tolerances, VNE is categorically inviolable.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_15) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: The radio produces a magnetic field when operating. If the compass and the radio are installed too close to each other, this stray magnetic field disturbs the compass and causes it to deviate systematically in the same direction. This is why regulations impose minimum separation distances between the magnetic compass and any electrical equipment on board. This phenomenon is a form of electromagnetic deviation.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_9) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: D)
Explanation: FLARM (Flight Alarm) is an anti-collision system that alerts to two categories of threats: FLARM-equipped aircraft in the vicinity (not just those on an imminent collision course or at the same altitude), AND fixed obstacles such as high-voltage power lines or cable car wires programmed in its database. It is this dual functionality — traffic AND obstacles — that distinguishes FLARM from simple traffic detection systems.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_12) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: ARM mode activates the automatic triggering of the ELT via its internal impact sensor — in the event of a violent impact (crash), the G-sensor automatically triggers the distress signal transmission. ON mode activates continuous transmission (for testing or an emergency without impact), while OFF completely deactivates the ELT. During normal flight, the ELT must be in ARM mode to ensure automatic activation in the event of an accident.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_14) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: A)
Explanation: Electric current is measured in Amperes (A), named after physicist André-Marie Ampère. The Ohm (B) is the unit of electrical resistance. The Watt (C) is the unit of electrical power (P = U × I). The Volt (D) is the unit of voltage (potential difference). These four quantities are related by Ohm's law and Joule's law, fundamental to understanding the electrical systems of an aircraft.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_17) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: B)
Explanation: Replacing a fuse with an improvised piece of aluminum foil is strictly prohibited and dangerous. A fuse is a protection device rated to melt at a precise current level, thereby protecting the wiring and instruments against overcurrent. A piece of chocolate bar foil has no defined rating and will not melt in time during a short circuit, allowing excessive current to flow, which can cause an electrical fire or destroy the instruments. The fault must be repaired with the appropriate fuse before flight.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_20_19) Source: BAZL/OFAC Serie 1 - Branches Spécifiques
Correct: C)
Explanation: The main disadvantage of VHF communications in aviation is their quasi-optical propagation: VHF waves travel in straight lines and do not follow the curvature of the Earth. Range is therefore limited to the theoretical line of sight (radio line of sight), depending on the altitude of both stations. Atmospheric disturbances (D) are mainly characteristic of MF/HF waves. The coastal effect (B) affects MF waves. The twilight effect (A) is a phenomenon of ionospheric shortwave propagation, not VHF.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_1) - A) Variometer - B) Airspeed indicator - C) Altimeter - D) Turn indicator Correct: B)
Explanation: The Pitot tube measures dynamic pressure (difference between total and static pressure), used by the airspeed indicator (IAS). The variometer uses the static port, the altimeter too, and the turn indicator uses a gyroscope.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_2) - A) Blue/white - B) Red - C) Black - D) Orange Correct: C)
Explanation: In aviation, oxygen bottles are conventionally black (European/ISO standards). Note: medical oxygen bottles may be white, but aviation oxygen bottles are black.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_3) - A) A rotation about the yaw axis to the left or right. - B) The lateral acceleration in a turn. - C) The resultant of weight and centrifugal force. - D) The bank angle of the glider. Correct: C)
Explanation: The ball (inclinometer) indicates the resultant of weight and centrifugal force (lateral acceleration). In a coordinated turn, the ball is centered. If it deviates, it indicates a slip (ball on outside = insufficient yaw / inside = excessive yaw).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_4) - A) To improve the glide ratio. - B) So that the centre of gravity remains within prescribed limits. - C) To improve the angle of incidence. - D) To reduce control forces. Correct: B)
Explanation: The minimum pilot weight is prescribed to keep the center of gravity within approved limits. If the pilot is too light, the CG moves aft, making the glider longitudinally unstable.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_5) - A) It is used by the workshop supervisor in case of repair. - B) It is a detailed commercial document from the manufacturer. - C) It provides the pilot with operating limits, technical specifications, and emergency procedures. - D) It contains information on periodic inspections and repairs carried out. Correct: C)
Explanation: The Flight Manual (AFM) contains operating limits, technical characteristics, performance data and emergency procedures. It is the official reference document for safe aircraft operation.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_6) - A) It reduces cylinder pressure. - B) It regulates the air/oxygen mixture according to altitude and only supplies oxygen on inhalation. - C) It regulates the oxygen flow according to breathing rate. - D) It regulates the pilot’s individual oxygen consumption. Correct: B)
Explanation: The automatic regulator on an 'on demand' oxygen system adjusts the air/oxygen mixture according to altitude and only delivers oxygen during inhalation. This saves oxygen compared to a continuous flow system.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_7) - A) A netto variometer. - B) A cruise speed variometer (Sollfahrt). - C) Another name for a vane variometer. - D) A variometer that cancels out indications caused by elevator movements. Correct: D)
Explanation: A compensated variometer (total energy compensated) eliminates false readings caused by elevator movements (pull-ups, dives). It shows the true rate of climb/sink of the air mass, independent of maneuvers.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_8) - A) 10 degrees - B) 20 degrees - C) 30 degrees - D) 40 degrees Correct: C)
Explanation: The magnetic compass is reliable up to approximately 30° of bank angle. Beyond this, turning errors and northerly turning errors become significant and readings are unreliable.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_9) - A) Nothing in particular. - B) Check that there is no transmission on 121.5 MHz. - C) Set the ELT switch to ON. - D) Remove the ELT battery. Correct: B)
Explanation: When putting the glider in the hangar, check that there is no transmission on 121.5 MHz from the ELT. Any accidental activation must be reported immediately. Leaving the ELT on or removing the battery is not the correct procedure.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_10) - A) Normal speed range, usable in turbulence. - B) Speed range for camber flap operation. - C) Speed range in smooth air (caution range). - D) Control surface maneuvering speed range. Correct: A)
Explanation: The green arc on a glider's ASI indicates the normal operating speed range usable in turbulence (maneuvering speed range). This is the speed range where the aircraft can be maneuvered with full control deflection.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_11) - A) Due to acceleration errors. - B) Due to errors caused by the metallic parts of the aircraft and electromagnetic fields from onboard electrical equipment. - C) Due to turning errors at high bank angles, such as when circling in a thermal. - D) Due to magnetic declination. Correct: B)
Explanation: The compass must be compensated for errors caused by the metallic parts of the aircraft and electromagnetic fields from electrical equipment (magnetic deviation). This is not declination (which is geographical) nor turning errors.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_12) - A) Always the centre-of-gravity hook (lower). - B) Always the nose hook. - C) Either, at the pilot’s discretion. - D) Depends on the grass height on the runway. Correct: A)
Explanation: For aerotow takeoff, the center-of-gravity (lower) release hook must always be used. It ensures stability during towing. The nose (front) hook is reserved for winch launches.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_13) - A) 100 litres - B) 90 litres - C) 80 litres - D) 70 litres Correct: B)
Explanation: The attached sheet shows mass limits. For 250 kg empty and 110 kg pilot equipped, remaining payload = max mass - empty - pilot. If max mass is 450 kg: 450-250-110 = 90 kg water ≈ 90 liters.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_14) - A) Only when using synthetic ropes. - B) In all cases. - C) Only for two-seat gliders. - D) When using natural fibre ropes and as specified in the flight manual. Correct: B)
Explanation: The use of weak links (fusibles) on tow ropes is mandatory in all cases according to Swiss regulations (NfL, flight manual). Weak links protect both the glider and tow plane from excessive loads.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_15) - A) Recommended approach speed for landing in normal conditions. - B) Speed not to be exceeded in turbulence. - C) Speed not to be exceeded in smooth air. - D) Stall speed. Correct: A)
Explanation: The yellow triangle on a glider's ASI indicates the recommended approach speed for landing in normal conditions. It is the reference speed for approach.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_16) - A) The equipment specified in the flight manual. - B) Airspeed indicator, altimeter, variometer. - C) Compass, turn indicator, cruise speed variometer (Sollfahrt), flight manual. - D) Radio, airspeed indicator, altimeter, variometer, compass. Correct: A)
Explanation: The minimum equipment of a glider is that specified in the flight manual (AFM). There is no single universal list; each aircraft type has its own minimum requirements defined in its AFM.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_17)
] - A) No. - B) Only the middle one. - C) Only the left one. - D) Yes. Correct: D)
Explanation: The question refers to a figure showing connected instruments. Yes (d), the instruments are correctly connected if the figure shows standard connections (pitot to ASI, static to altimeter and variometer).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_18) - A) Approach speed (landing). - B) Speed not to be exceeded in turbulence. - C) Never-exceed speed VNE. - D) Stall speed. Correct: C)
Explanation: The red radial mark on a glider's ASI indicates the never-exceed speed VNE (Velocity Never Exceed). Exceeding VNE can lead to structural failure.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_19) - A) Emergency canopy release, airbrakes, trim. - B) Airbrakes, cable release, trim. - C) Airbrakes, canopy lock, undercarriage. - D) Undercarriage, airbrakes, trim. Correct: A)
Explanation: The three handles: red = emergency canopy release, blue = airbrakes/spoilers, green = trim (compensateur). This is the standard color convention in gliders.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_201_20)
]
Explanation: For 275 kg empty weight: maximum payload and water ballast depend on the flight manual limits (attached sheet). The correct combination is 100 kg payload and 80 liters of water, respecting the maximum takeoff weight.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_1) - A) Empty weight. - B) Dry weight. - C) Weight of lifting surfaces. - D) Useful load (payload). Correct: D)
Explanation: The parachute belongs to the useful load (payload). Empty weight includes structure, permanent instruments and empty fuel. Useful load includes pilot, parachute, water ballast, baggage.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_2) - A) Altimeter, variometer, airspeed indicator. - B) Airspeed indicator, variometer, turn indicator. - C) Altimeter, artificial horizon, compass. - D) Variometer, turn indicator, artificial horizon. Correct: A)
Explanation: When the static port is blocked, all instruments using static pressure are affected: altimeter, variometer, and airspeed indicator (IAS). The turn indicator (gyro) does not use static pressure.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_3) - A) Only when using synthetic ropes. - B) When using natural fibre ropes and as specified in the flight manual. - C) Only for two-seat gliders. - D) In all cases. Correct: B)
Explanation: The use of weak links on tow ropes is mandatory when using natural fiber ropes and according to the flight manual. In practice, most manuals require it in all cases.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_4) - A) Release is automatic when the cable exceeds a 70-degree angle. - B) The glider is more manoeuvrable about its yaw axis. - C) It is a backup hook in case the nose hook fails to operate. - D) The cable cannot detach when it goes slack. Correct: A)
Explanation: The Tost safety hook placed slightly forward of the CG provides automatic release when the cable exceeds 70° angle (protection against winch flip-over).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_5) - A) The acceleration component due to centrifugal force only. - B) The acceleration component in the plane of symmetry, perpendicular to the roll axis. - C) The acceleration component opposing gravitational acceleration. - D) The lateral acceleration only. Correct: B)
Explanation: A glider's accelerometer indicates the acceleration component in the plane of symmetry, perpendicular to the roll axis (aircraft's vertical axis). It measures the load factor (g).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_6)
] - A) 95 litres - B) 85 litres - C) 90 litres - D) 105 litres Correct: A)
Explanation: For 255 kg empty and 100 kg pilot, used mass = 355 kg. If max mass = 450 kg, water allowed = 450 - 355 = 95 kg ≈ 95 liters.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_7) - A) The system must be operable and its indicators must be readable during flight. - B) The system must be easy to install and remove. - C) The oxygen reserve must be at least 100 litres. - D) The system must be fitted with a non-return valve. Correct: A)
Explanation: The oxygen system must be operable and its indicators readable during flight. This is the operational safety priority.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_8) - A) It reduces cylinder pressure. - B) It regulates the pilot’s oxygen consumption. - C) It regulates the oxygen flow according to breathing rate. - D) It regulates the air/oxygen mixture according to altitude and only supplies oxygen on inhalation. Correct: D)
Explanation: The automatic 'on demand' regulator adjusts the air/oxygen mixture according to altitude and only delivers oxygen during inhalation. It preserves the bottle's endurance.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_9) - A) Measuring vertical accelerations. - B) Measuring altitude change as a function of time. - C) Measuring the pressure difference between a sealed reservoir and the atmosphere. - D) Measuring temperature differences. Correct: C)
Explanation: Diaphragm and vane variometers work on the principle of measuring the pressure difference between a sealed reservoir (constant volume) and the ambient atmosphere (pressure varying with altitude).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_10) - A) The approach speed. - B) The never-exceed speed VNE. - C) The speed not to be exceeded in turbulence. - D) The stall speed. Correct: B)
Explanation: The red mark on a glider's ASI indicates VNE (Velocity Never Exceed). Exceeding this speed can cause structural damage.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_11) - A) From the certificate of airworthiness. - B) From the operating envelope. - C) There is no requirement; the glider only needs to be equipped with an accelerometer. - D) From the flight manual (AFM). Correct: D)
Explanation: Approval for aerobatics is indicated in the flight manual (AFM), in the 'operating envelope' or 'limitations' section.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_12) - A) In the logbook. - B) In the certificate of airworthiness. - C) In the flight manual (AFM). - D) In technical communications (TM). Correct: C)
Explanation: All data on limits, loading, and operation of a glider are found in the flight manual (AFM). It is the official and regulatory document.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_13)
] - A) Airspeed indicator, altimeter, vane variometer. - B) Airspeed indicator, altimeter, oxygen pressure gauge. - C) Altimeter, airspeed indicator, diaphragm variometer. - D) Altimeter, airspeed indicator, netto variometer. Correct: A)
Explanation: The instruments shown left to right are: airspeed indicator (IAS), altimeter, and vane variometer. This is the standard arrangement in a glider.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_14) - A) The maneuvering range (full control deflection). - B) The maneuvering speed. - C) The speed range in smooth air (caution range). - D) The camber flap operating range. Correct: D)
Explanation: The white arc on a glider's ASI indicates the flap operating speed range. Outside this arc, flaps must not be used.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_15) - A) if the pilot is capable of estimating speeds in flight - B) when a functioning airspeed indicator has been installed - C) only for a circuit - D) only if a precision variometer is installed Correct: B)
Explanation: If the airspeed indicator is defective, the glider can only be returned to service when a functioning ASI has been installed. The ASI is a mandatory instrument.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_16) - A) shift the pilot’s center of gravity forward by placing a thick cushion behind the back - B) move the trim forward - C) increase the useful load with ballast (lead weights) - D) change the incidence angle of the horizontal stabilizer Correct: C)
Explanation: If minimum useful load is not achieved, increase the payload with ballast (lead weights) placed in the forward compartment to keep CG within limits.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_17) - A) trim in aft position - B) use of the glider is prohibited - C) the maximum speed must be reduced by 30 km/h - D) the load must be shifted so that the maximum mass is not exceeded Correct: B)
Explanation: If maximum load has been exceeded, use of the glider is strictly prohibited until the situation is resolved (unloading). This is an absolute limit.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_18) - A) by changing the angle of attack - B) by changing the cockpit load - C) by adjusting the elevator trim - D) by changing the angle of incidence Correct: B)
Explanation: The center of gravity of a single-seat glider is moved by changing the load in the cockpit (e.g., adding lead ballast forward or aft, or by pilot weight change).
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_19) - A) too far forward - B) too high - C) too far aft - D) too low Correct: C)
Explanation: Center of gravity too far aft is the most dangerous position as longitudinal stability disappears. The glider may stall and become unrecoverable.
[FR](../SPL%20Exam%20Questions%20FR/20%20-%20Connaissances%20g%C3%A9n%C3%A9rales%20de%20l%27a%C3%A9ronef.md#^bazl_202_20) - A) the maneuvering range (full control deflection) - B) the camber flap operating range - C) the smooth air speed range (caution range) - D) the maneuvering speed Correct: C)
Explanation: The yellow arc on a glider's ASI indicates the caution speed range (smooth air only). Within this arc, controls must not be fully deflected in turbulent conditions.
=== NEW QUESTIONS (from QuizVDS, not yet in set) ===
Source: EASA ECQB-SPL (new questions not in existing set) | 27 questions
Correct: D)
Explanation: The dip error (also called northerly turning error or acceleration error) in a direct-reading magnetic compass is caused by the inclination of the Earth's magnetic field lines, which dip downward toward the magnetic poles at an angle to the horizontal. This causes the compass card's pivot point and the magnet system to be offset, leading to errors particularly during turns and accelerations. Temperature variations (B), deviation (C — a different compass error caused by onboard magnetic fields), and acceleration per se (A) are separate effects; the root physical cause of dip error is the field line inclination.
Correct: D)
Explanation: On an airspeed indicator, the yellow arc marks the caution range — the speed band between VNO (maximum structural cruising speed) and VNE (never-exceed speed). Flight in this range is permitted only in smooth air. Red (A) marks VNE (the never-exceed redline). Green (B) marks the normal operating range. White (C) marks the flap operating speed range.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The altimeter measures atmospheric pressure and converts it to altitude using the ISA pressure-altitude relationship. Increasing the QNH setting by 10 hPa causes the altimeter to indicate approximately 80 m more altitude (since 1 hPa corresponds to roughly 8 m at sea level). The reading is not zero (A), not less (B), and is not dependent on the QNH value itself (D) — the conversion factor is fixed by the ISA model.
Correct: B)
Explanation: QFE is the atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation. When an altimeter is set to QFE, it reads zero on the ground at the aerodrome and shows height above that aerodrome during flight. It does not show altitude above MSL (A — that would be QNH), the aerodrome elevation itself (C), or pressure altitude (D — that requires setting 1013.25 hPa).
Correct: D)
Explanation: A total energy compensated vertical speed indicator (TE-VSI) uses a specially shaped nozzle (TE probe) to cancel out changes in indicated climb/sink caused by changes in airspeed (energy exchange). If the compensating tank is too large, the compensation overcorrects and the instrument indicates a sink rate that is larger than the actual sink rate — i.e., too high a reading. A too-large tank does not cause mechanical overload (A), no indication (B), or under-reading (C).
Correct: C)
Explanation: A vertical speed indicator (variometer) works by measuring the difference between the current (instantaneous) static pressure and the pressure stored in an internal chamber (the reference or compensating vessel) through a calibrated restriction. As altitude changes, the instantaneous static pressure diverges from the stored pressure, deflecting a diaphragm or capsule. It does not measure total vs. static (A — that is the airspeed indicator), dynamic vs. total (B), or total pressure changes (D).
Correct: D)
Explanation: Touring Motor Gliders (TMG) are typically equipped with a conventional four-cylinder, four-stroke piston engine (such as Rotax 912 or Limbach engines), which provides good power-to-weight ratio, reliability, and fuel efficiency for the self-launch and cruise requirements of a TMG. Wankel (A), diesel two-cylinder (B), and four-cylinder two-stroke (C) engines are either not common or not used in certified TMG types.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The yellow arc on an airspeed indicator marks the caution speed range between VNO and VNE. Flight in this range is only permitted in smooth air with no gusts, because at these higher speeds turbulence-induced loads could exceed structural limits. It does not indicate a flap/brake limitation range (A), best glide speed (B — that is a specific point, not an arc), or towing speed (D).
Correct: B)
Explanation: A total-energy compensated variometer (TE variometer) cancels the effect of the pilot's control inputs on indicated vertical speed by accounting for changes in kinetic energy. During a steady (stationary) glide with no vertical air movement, it correctly shows the vertical speed of the airmass being flown through (i.e., zero in still air, or the actual thermal/sink value). It does not show the glider's speed through the airmass uncompensated (A), the combined glider plus airmass movement (C), or a subtracted value (D).
Correct: B)
Explanation: During a right turn, if the yaw string deflects to the left, the nose is yawing left relative to the turn — this indicates a skidding turn (too little bank and too little inside rudder, or adverse yaw). To centre the string, the pilot needs to increase rudder in the turn direction (right rudder) to bring the nose around, and reduce bank slightly to decrease the centrifugal skid tendency. Options A, C, and D either use the wrong rudder direction or wrong bank correction for this skid condition.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Airworthiness of an aircraft is fundamentally determined by the structural integrity of load-bearing components (main spar, wing attachment, fuselage frames, control system attachment points). Damage to these parts compromises the aircraft's ability to sustain flight loads and constitutes a loss of airworthiness. A dirty leading edge (A) reduces performance but is not an airworthiness defect. A cracked canopy (B) and a scratch on paint (C) are cosmetic or minor defects that do not affect structural integrity.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The load sheet (weight and balance document) specifies a minimum pilot weight to ensure the centre of gravity remains within approved limits. If the actual pilot weight is below the minimum, ballast must be added (typically in the ballast area specified by the POH) to bring the total loaded mass up to the minimum required value. Adjusting trim (A, C) does not address the underlying CG/mass problem, and changing seat position (B) is not a standard corrective action for under-weight loading.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Minimum speed (stall speed) is proportional to the square root of wing loading: Vs ∝ √(W/S). If wing loading increases by 40% (factor 1.4), stall speed increases by √1.4 ≈ 1.183, i.e., approximately 18.3%. A 40% speed increase (B) would require a 96% increase in wing loading, 100% (A) would require a quadrupling of wing loading, and 200% (C) is far too large. Only the square-root relationship gives approximately 18%.
Correct: B)
Explanation: If the actual loaded mass exceeds the maximum allowed mass from the load sheet, the only correct action is to reduce the load (remove ballast, water ballast, baggage, or have a lighter pilot). Exceeding maximum mass means structural load limits may be reached at lower G-loads or airspeeds. Increasing speed (A) or adjusting trim (C, D) does not address the structural overload problem.
Correct: D)
Explanation: A torsion-stiffened leading edge is a structural design feature in which the leading edge of the wing (from the leading edge to the main spar) is planked (covered) on both upper and lower surfaces, creating a closed-section D-box that resists torsional (twisting) loads. This is not a spar component (A), not merely a shape descriptor (B), and not a reference to a torsion moment distribution point (C).
Correct: D)
Explanation: Maximum permissible airspeeds (VNE, VNO, etc.) are published in the Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH/AFM), displayed on the cockpit instrument panel (placard), and indicated on the airspeed indicator by the red line (VNE) and arc markings. The AIP ENR (A) does not contain aircraft-specific speed limitations. Approach charts and VSI (B) do not show speed limits. The briefing room posting (C) is informal and not authoritative.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The airspeed indicator is a required instrument for safe flight; without it a pilot cannot determine safe operating speeds, stall speed, or structural speed limits. An inoperative airspeed indicator means the aircraft must remain on the ground until the instrument is serviceable. No exception exists for local aerodrome patterns (B) or GPS substitute (D — GPS ground speed is not equivalent to IAS for aerodynamic purposes). Absence of maintenance (A) is irrelevant to the operational requirement.
Correct: A)
Explanation: During a left turn, a yaw string deflecting to the left indicates the aircraft is slipping into the turn (too much bank relative to rudder input). To centre the string in a slip, the pilot needs to increase bank to steepen the turn and reduce rudder (less rudder in the turn direction). This is opposite to correcting a skid. Options B, C, and D use incorrect combinations for correcting a slip in a left turn.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Winglets are upward (or downward) curving extensions at the wingtip that reduce induced drag by weakening the wingtip vortex — the main source of induced drag on a finite wing. They do not primarily increase aspect ratio efficiency (A — though functionally similar, they are a different mechanism), are not specifically for high-speed performance (C), and do not increase lift or turning agility (D).
Correct: B)
Explanation: Dynamic pressure (q) is defined by Bernoulli's equation as q = ½ρv², where ρ is air density and v is airflow speed. Dynamic pressure depends directly on air density and the square of velocity. Lift and drag coefficients (A) are aerodynamic effects that depend on dynamic pressure, not the other way around. Air pressure and temperature (D) influence density indirectly but are not the direct parameters in the formula.
Correct: A)
Explanation: The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator are all connected to the static pressure port. If the static pressure system is blocked (e.g., by ice, water, or a cover left on), all three instruments will give erroneous readings simultaneously. A blocked pitot tube (C) would affect only the airspeed indicator. A leaking compensating vessel (B) affects only the VSI. An electrical failure (D) does not affect these purely pneumatic instruments.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The altimeter's reference pressure (subscale) must be set before every flight to the correct local QNH/QFE so that the altimeter reads the correct altitude or height. During cross-country flights, QNH changes as the pilot moves between pressure regions, so updates are required when crossing into new altimeter setting regions. Monthly (C) or only after maintenance (A) settings would result in significant altitude errors.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Magnetic inclination (dip) is the angle between the Earth's magnetic field vector and the horizontal plane at any given location. It is 0° at the magnetic equator and 90° at the magnetic poles. Deviation (A) is the error caused by magnetic fields within the aircraft. Magnetic variation/declination (B) is the angle between magnetic and true north. Option D describes aircraft heading, which is unrelated.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The airspeed indicator measures IAS (Indicated Airspeed), which is derived from dynamic pressure. At lower air density (hot day, high altitude), TAS is higher than IAS for the same dynamic pressure. The aerodynamic behaviour of the wing (lift, stall) depends on dynamic pressure (and thus IAS), not on TAS. Therefore stall occurs at the same IAS regardless of density. The approach should be flown at the same IAS as always (B). Adding speed (D) or reducing IAS (C) based on temperature alone is not correct for stall margin management with IAS.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The load factor (n) is the ratio of the aerodynamic lift acting on the aircraft to the aircraft's weight: n = L/W. In level unaccelerated flight, n = 1. In turns or pull-ups, n increases. It does not describe weight/thrust (A), drag/lift (B), or thrust/drag (D) relationships.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Static pressure is the pressure of the undisturbed ambient airmass — the atmospheric pressure acting equally in all directions at a given altitude. It is sensed through flush static ports on the fuselage skin. It is not the cabin pressure (A), not related to orderly flow direction (C — that is dynamic pressure), and is not sensed by the pitot tube alone (D — the pitot senses total pressure).
Correct: C)
Explanation: Magnetic inclination (dip) is the angle between the Earth's total magnetic field vector and the local horizontal plane. At the magnetic equator, field lines are horizontal (0° dip); at the poles, they are vertical (90° dip). Deviation (A) is caused by onboard magnetic interference. Variation/declination (B) is the angle between magnetic and geographic north. Option D describes aircraft heading relative to true north.
