Correct: B)
Explanation: Under EASA regulations, a newly qualified LAPL(S) holder must accumulate a minimum of 10 hours of flight time or 30 flights as pilot in command after licence issuance before being permitted to carry passengers. This ensures the pilot gains sufficient solo experience before taking responsibility for others. Option A omits the initial experience requirement. Option C is wrong because there is a clear restriction. Option D is incorrect because the LAPL(S) does permit passenger carriage after meeting the experience requirement.
Correct: B)
Explanation: On final approach, the commitment to land has been made. A thermal on final approach will cause the glider to float above the desired glide path, so the pilot must fully extend airbrakes to maintain the correct path and dissipate the extra energy. Option A (retracting brakes to exploit the thermal) abandons the committed approach at a critical phase, which is extremely dangerous at low altitude. Option C assumes thermals always produce compensating sink, which is not reliable. Option D (circling on final) is dangerous at low altitude.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Wet grass significantly reduces friction between the tire and the surface, resulting in less effective wheel braking and a longer ground roll. The pilot must plan for this extended stopping distance. Option A exaggerates — aquaplaning is primarily a concern on paved runways, not grass. Option B is incorrect because wet surfaces reduce, not improve, natural braking. Option C is wrong because reduced friction means a longer, not shorter, ground roll.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Late in the day, shaded slopes create dark backgrounds against which other aircraft become extremely difficult to spot visually. The contrast between sunlit and shaded areas makes visual detection particularly challenging — an aircraft in shadow can be nearly invisible. Option A and B may occur in certain conditions but are not specifically linked to shaded slopes late in the day. Option D (glare) is a concern when looking toward the sun, not toward shaded slopes.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Field selection must be finalized at 300 m AGL for gliders and 400 m AGL for motorgliders to ensure sufficient altitude for a proper circuit, approach, and landing. Below these heights, the pilot should be committed to the chosen field. Option A does not specify a concrete altitude. Option C reverses the altitudes — motorgliders need more height because they may attempt an engine restart. Option D sets the motorglider threshold too low for a safe circuit with potential engine restart attempt.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When thermalling alone with no other aircraft in the thermal, there is no regulation requiring a specific turning direction. The pilot is free to choose whichever direction best centers the thermal or feels most comfortable. Option A imposes a left-turn requirement that does not exist. Option C invents a distance-based rule. Option D (figure-eights) is a technique for locating the thermal core, not a required circling method. The obligation to match another glider's turn direction only applies when sharing a thermal.
Correct: C)
Explanation: After a cable break below safety height, the priority sequence is: establish a safe glide attitude (to maintain flying speed), release the remaining rope by actuating the release twice (to ensure disconnection), and land straight ahead if terrain permits. Option A deploys airbrakes prematurely when every meter of altitude counts. Option B attempts a 180° turn which is extremely dangerous below safety height. Option D releases before establishing a glide — the glide attitude should be established first to ensure safe flying speed.
Correct: C)
Explanation: With a strong crosswind from the right, the wind will tend to lift the right (windward) wing. By holding the right wing slightly lower at the start of the ground roll, the helper compensates for this lifting tendency, keeping the wings level until the aileron becomes effective. Option A refers to engine procedures irrelevant for gliders. Option B (pulling back to lift off quickly) risks a premature liftoff with insufficient airspeed. Option D is impractical and dangerous — the helper cannot keep pace with an accelerating glider.
Correct: B)
Explanation: If acceleration is insufficient by the abort point, the takeoff must be abandoned by releasing the towrope immediately. Continuing the takeoff with insufficient speed risks failing to clear obstacles or running off the end of the runway. Option A might marginally reduce drag but cannot solve a fundamental performance problem. Option C (forcing the aircraft airborne) at inadequate speed leads to an immediate stall or settling back onto the ground. Option D (flaps) cannot compensate for insufficient tow power.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When flying along a slope, a minimum lateral distance of 60 meters must be maintained horizontally from the terrain. This provides a safety buffer against unexpected turbulence, downdrafts, or control difficulty near the slope face. Option A is vague and non-specific. Option C (150 m) is more conservative than the standard requirement. Option D (depends on thermals) introduces a variable condition that does not define a clear minimum standard.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In high mountain environments, weather can deteriorate with extreme speed — thunderstorms can develop in minutes due to orographic lifting and localized heating effects. This is the most significant hazard requiring special attention. Options A, B, and C describe technical inconveniences that may occasionally occur in mountains, but they are not the primary hazard. Rapid weather changes can trap a pilot in valleys with deteriorating visibility and violent turbulence, making option D the critical safety concern.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Oxygen under pressure can react violently with hydrocarbon-based greases and oils, potentially causing a flash fire or explosion. All components in contact with oxygen must be completely grease-free. Option D is directly dangerous — greasing the connector introduces a combustion risk. Options A and C describe good practices but are not the absolute safety-critical requirement. The oxygen-grease incompatibility is a fundamental rule in aviation oxygen system handling.
Correct: D)
Explanation: At only 400 m above ground, there is no time for any delay — the parachute must be deployed immediately after clearing the aircraft. Freefall at terminal velocity covers roughly 50 m per second, so even 2-3 seconds of delay (option A) would consume 100-150 m of precious altitude. Option B (stabilizing in freefall) wastes critical seconds. Option C (before leaving) would entangle the parachute with the aircraft structure. At 400 m, every second counts for a successful deployment and deceleration.
Correct: B)
Explanation: On short final, the commitment to land has been made — the safest action is to continue straight ahead with full airbrakes and use every available means (wheel brake, ground friction) to stop in the shortest distance possible. Option A (reducing to minimum speed) risks stalling close to the ground. Option C is similar to B but less specific about using all stopping means. Option D (turning to find another field) at this low altitude and close range is extremely dangerous and likely to result in a stall-spin accident.
Correct: B)
Explanation: FLARM is a traffic awareness system that calculates collision risk based on the predicted flight paths of nearby FLARM-equipped aircraft and issues warnings when a potential conflict is detected. Option A overstates its precision — it provides approximate positions, not precise ones. Option C is incorrect because FLARM warns but does not recommend specific avoidance maneuvers. Option D is wrong because FLARM only detects other FLARM devices, not transponder-equipped aircraft (that would require a separate ADS-B receiver).
Correct: D)
Explanation: The indicated airspeed (IAS) for the approach should be the same as at sea level because the ASI already accounts for air density — it measures dynamic pressure, which determines aerodynamic forces regardless of altitude. The stall IAS does not change with altitude. However, the true airspeed and groundspeed will be higher at altitude due to lower air density. Options A and C incorrectly adjust IAS, and option B applies a TAS correction to IAS, which is unnecessary.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When entering a downdraft, the descending air mass reduces the effective angle of attack on the wings, temporarily decreasing lift. The pilot feels a brief reduction in g-load (a sensation of lightness or being pushed up from the seat) as the aircraft begins to sink with the descending air. The glider's airspeed initially decreases momentarily. Option B describes what happens entering an updraft (nose pitches up, increased g-load). Options A and C do not accurately describe the symmetrical effect of entering a downdraft center.
Correct: A)
Explanation: Cirrus clouds at high altitude filter incoming solar radiation, reducing the surface heating that drives thermal convection. Less heating means weaker thermals and potentially an earlier end to the soaring day. This is an important warning sign during cross-country flights. Option B is wrong — cirrus does not increase instability at thermal altitudes. Option C describes a shift that may occur but is not the primary effect. Option D underestimates the impact cirrus has on thermal generation through solar radiation reduction.
Correct: C)
Explanation: To maximize distance in a headwind, the pilot must fly faster than best-glide speed. The headwind reduces groundspeed, so the glider spends more time in the air and descends more before covering the desired ground distance. By increasing speed above best-glide, the pilot accepts a steeper glide angle but gains enough extra groundspeed to more than compensate for the altitude loss. Option A (minimum sink) minimizes descent rate but covers minimal distance. Option B (best glide) is optimal only in still air. Option D (McCready zero) equals best-glide speed.
Correct: D)
Explanation: A freshly mown meadow of 200 m provides a smooth, firm surface free of tall vegetation and hidden obstacles — ideal for a short ground roll in a glider, which can typically stop within 100-200 m. Option A (ploughed field) has soft soil and deep furrows that can nose the glider over. Option B (maize field) has tall crops that obscure hazards and create drag inconsistencies. Option C (country lane) is narrow, potentially lined with trees and power lines, and poses collision risks with vehicles.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Pilots may use the on-board radio on dedicated glider frequencies to communicate with their retrieve crew without needing a separate radiotelephony extension or rating. These frequencies are designated for glider operations and permit such operational communications. Option A unnecessarily restricts this established practice. Option C invents a frequency limitation that does not exist. Option D incorrectly prohibits a communication that is routinely permitted.
Correct: D)
Explanation: At 1800 m AMSL, air density is lower than at sea level, so the true airspeed (TAS) is higher than indicated airspeed (IAS) for the same dynamic pressure reading. In nil-wind conditions, groundspeed equals TAS, which exceeds IAS. This means the aircraft approaches the runway at a higher groundspeed than the ASI shows, requiring awareness of a longer ground roll and higher touchdown energy. Options B and C underestimate the density altitude effect. Option A is partially true but the dominant factor is altitude, not temperature.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Wearing a parachute is not compulsory for glider flights under current regulations, although it is strongly recommended and standard practice in the gliding community. The decision is left to the pilot. Option A invents an altitude-based requirement. Option C creates a restriction limited to aerobatics that does not exist in the regulations. Option D overstates the requirement. While practically all glider pilots wear parachutes, it remains a personal safety choice, not a legal obligation.
Correct: D)
Explanation: After a cable break during the climb phase, the immediate priority is to release the remaining cable (which may still be attached and could snag) and then lower the nose to establish a safe glide. The cable release comes first because a dangling cable is an immediate hazard. Option A (airbrakes first) wastes altitude when every meter counts. Option B reverses the priority — establishing the glide before releasing could allow the cable to become entangled. Option C (radio call) wastes precious seconds during a time-critical emergency.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In a strong crosswind aerotow departure, the glider should be positioned upwind of the tow aircraft's centerline to prevent being blown across the tug's path during the ground roll. This offset compensates for the crosswind drift during the critical acceleration phase. Option A states a normal sequence that does not address crosswind specifically. Option B provides a partial technique but does not address the pre-departure setup. Option C is incorrect because crosswinds typically increase takeoff distance slightly.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When entering a thermal alone, the recommended technique is to first perform a figure-eight pattern (or S-turns) to identify the strongest part of the thermal before committing to a circling direction. This allows the pilot to center the thermal efficiently. Option A and C prescribe a fixed direction without first locating the core. Option B is technically correct regarding regulations but does not describe the best practice for thermal exploitation. The figure-eight technique optimizes climb rate by finding the thermal center before circling.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When flying near a slope, the pilot must maintain a sufficient safety distance that accounts for current conditions including wind, turbulence, and terrain features. This is a judgment-based requirement rather than a fixed numeric value. Option A (depends on lift) only considers one factor. Options B (150 m) and C (60 m) specify fixed distances that may be appropriate in some contexts but do not reflect the general guidance, which emphasizes adequate safety margin appropriate to the circumstances.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When joining a thermal occupied by another glider, you must circle in the same direction to maintain a predictable traffic pattern and avoid head-on encounters within the thermal. This is a fundamental rule of shared thermal etiquette. Option A incorrectly dismisses the need for directional coordination. Option C (opposite direction) creates dangerous head-on convergence paths within the confined area of the thermal. Option D invents a non-existent 150 m vertical separation requirement for thermal sharing.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When a glider sustains major damage (70%) without injuries, the pilot must notify the local police within 24 hours. This is classified as a serious incident with substantial damage. Option A (FOCA report in 3 days) does not meet the urgency required. Option C (immediate notification via REGA) is the procedure for accidents involving injuries or fatalities. Option D (report within a week) is too slow for an incident involving 70% airframe damage, which requires prompt reporting.
Correct: D)
Explanation: On a hard paved runway, a glider's main wheel has less rolling resistance compared to grass, which means the groundspeed at liftoff may feel similar but the ground roll can be longer because the wheel offers less drag to help the aircraft become airborne. Additionally, on pavement the aircraft may weathervane more easily. Option A is not specific to hard runways. Option B (pulling back longer) could cause the tail to strike the runway. Option C (wheel brake at start) would impede acceleration during the most critical phase.
Correct: B)
Explanation: For a water landing, the pilot should tighten all harnesses to prevent injury on impact, close ventilation openings to slow water ingress, and approach at slightly above normal speed to maintain control and reduce the descent rate. The gear should be retracted (not extended as in option C) to prevent the aircraft from flipping on water entry. Option A (tail-first) risks a violent pitch-forward on impact. Option D (sideslip) creates an asymmetric water entry that could cartwheel the aircraft.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The most reliable method for determining wind direction from the air is to observe the glider's drift during altitude-loss spirals — the direction the aircraft drifts indicates the downwind direction, and the amount of drift indicates wind strength. This works at any altitude and any location. Option A (tree leaves) requires being low enough to see individual leaves. Option B (wheat field patterns) can be misleading and requires specific crop stages. Option D (livestock behavior) is unreliable as a wind indicator.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When overtaking a slower glider on a ridge, always pass on the valley side (away from the slope) to maintain safe terrain clearance and avoid trapping the other pilot against the hillside. This gives both aircraft escape room toward the valley. Option A (turning back) is unnecessary and wastes energy. Option C (radio contact) takes too long to arrange at closing speed. Option D (diving below) risks flying into the turbulent rotor zone closer to the terrain.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If the glider rolls over the slack tow rope, the rope can become entangled with the landing gear, skid, or other structures beneath the aircraft. The immediate action is to release the rope before any entanglement can occur. Option A (braking) does not prevent entanglement and may worsen it. Option B (airbrakes) is irrelevant to the immediate hazard. Option D (radio warning) wastes time during a situation requiring instant action — by the time the call is made, the rope may already be entangled.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Glider flights are permitted in Class C airspace under specific conditions: the pilot must hold the radiotelephony extension, receive ATC authorization before entering, and maintain continuous radio contact. Certain exceptions for gliders may be published on the soaring chart. Option A assumes gliders carry transponders, which most do not. Option C ignores the mandatory ATC clearance and radio requirements for Class C. Option D incorrectly implies that Class C is open by default unless NOTAMs restrict it.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When meeting an oncoming glider while ridge soaring with the slope on your right, the standard rule is to give way by turning away from the slope (toward the valley). The pilot with the slope on the right has right-of-way in ridge soaring (similar to the rule of the road on mountain roads). However, both pilots should take evasive action by moving away from the ridge. Option A (diving) risks terrain collision. Option C (climbing) may not be possible. Option D (maintaining heading) leads directly to a head-on collision.
Correct: C)
Explanation: With a tailwind on a limited field, the pilot must minimize groundspeed at touchdown to reduce ground roll. This means flying slightly above minimum speed (to maintain a safety margin while being as slow as possible in the air) and approaching at a lower height to steepen the approach angle relative to the ground. Option A (best glide speed) is faster than needed and wastes field length. Option B (sideslip) addresses crosswind, not tailwind. Option D (faster approach) would increase groundspeed and ground roll on an already short field.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A waterlogged grass runway increases rolling resistance because the wheels sink into the soft, saturated surface, creating drag that slows acceleration. This results in a significantly longer takeoff distance for both the tow aircraft and the glider. Option A ignores the substantial difference between dry and waterlogged surfaces. Option D's logic is flawed — while a slippery surface might reduce friction on a hard runway, waterlogged grass creates suction and drag that impede acceleration. Option C is incorrect because option B is the correct answer.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The preferred action is always to fly over the power line if possible. However, if altitude is insufficient to clear the line and no alternative landing path exists, passing under the line is acceptable as a last resort — but only between the pylons where the cable sag provides maximum clearance, not near a pylon (option D) where cables are at their lowest. Option A (always fly over) is not possible when altitude is insufficient. Option C (tight turn near the ground) risks a stall-spin accident. Option D (near a pylon) is where clearance is minimal.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The standard spin recovery procedure is: (1) identify the spin direction, (2) apply full opposite rudder to stop the rotation, (3) keep ailerons neutral (as aileron input during a spin can be counterproductive), (4) ease the stick slightly forward to reduce the angle of attack below the stall angle, and (5) once rotation stops, centralize the rudder and pull out of the resulting dive. Option A omits identifying the spin direction. Option B uses ailerons, which can deepen the spin. Option D uses ailerons instead of rudder as the primary anti-spin control, which is incorrect.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Approach to an aerodrome should follow published VFR guide procedures or any other appropriate method. A mandatory full circuit over the signal area is no longer systematically required.
Correct: B)
Explanation: In mountain flying, to overtake a slower glider on a slope, pass on the side away from the slope (valley side). This rule is consistent with the right-of-way for climbing gliders.
Correct: D)
Explanation: If the rudder jams in flight, control the glider with elevator and ailerons. Make shallow turns and land immediately.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If the glider rolls over the tow rope, immediately releasing the rope is the only correct action.
Correct: A)
Explanation: If the rope breaks on the tow plane side below safety height: actuate the release handle twice (verification) and land straight ahead in the runway extension. Avoid turning.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In strong crosswind on final, take a crab angle into the wind and increase speed slightly to maintain control. The sideslip can be used but crab is the primary method.
Correct: D)
Explanation: For a water landing: tighten harnesses, close ventilation to prevent water entry, and land at slightly above normal speed for better control and to avoid nose-over.
Correct: A)
Explanation: Without other gliders in the thermal, there is no prescribed spiraling direction. The pilot chooses freely.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Glider altitude is expressed according to the country overflown (altitude in feet or meters per local rules, or flight levels per airspace). Regulations vary by country.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Standard spin recovery: 1) Identify direction, 2) Opposite rudder, 3) Ailerons neutral, 4) Slight forward stick, 5) Pull out after rotation stops.
