Q101: May changes be made at an accident site where a person has been injured, beyond essential rescue measures? ^t70q101

• A) Yes, if the aircraft operator has formally issued such an instruction
• B) No, unless the investigation authority has formally granted authorisation
• C) Yes, the wreckage must be cleared as soon as possible to prevent interference by third parties
• D) Yes, if only material damage has occurred

Correct: B)

Explanation: Modifying an accident site is prohibited without formal authorization from the investigation authority, except for essential rescue measures.

Q102: The pilot loses sight of the tow plane during aerotow. How must he react? ^t70q102

• A) Extend the airbrakes and wait
• B) Prepare for a parachute bailout
• C) Contact the tow pilot by radio and ask for position
• D) Immediately release the rope

Correct: D)

Explanation: If the pilot loses sight of the tow plane, immediately release the rope. Continuing tow flight without seeing the tow plane is extremely dangerous.

Q103: Is wearing a parachute compulsory in gliders? ^t70q103

• A) For all flights above 300 m AGL
• B) Only for aerobatic flights
• C) Yes, always
• D) No

Correct: D)

Explanation: Wearing a parachute is not mandatory for gliders in Switzerland for normal flights. It is recommended but not regulatory.

Q104: You need to land on a 400 m field with a moderate tailwind. How do you fly the final approach? ^t70q104

• A) Faster than with a headwind
• B) Slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than with a headwind
• C) At best glide speed, slightly higher than with a headwind
• D) Normally, with a sideslip

Correct: B)

Explanation: With tailwind on a 400 m field: approach slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than with headwind. Tailwind increases ground speed.

Q105: You see a motor glider with its engine running at the same altitude approaching from your right. How do you react? ^t70q105

• A) Extend the airbrakes and give way downward
• B) Maintain your heading, keeping the motor glider in sight
• C) Give way to the right
• D) Give way to the left

Correct: C)

Explanation: A powered motorglider coming from the right has right of way (converging routes rule). You must give way to the right to let it pass.

Q106: You are flying in a glider-specific restricted zone (LS-R). What cloud separation distances must you observe? (vertical/horizontal) ^t70q106

• A) Clear of clouds with flight visibility
• B) 100 m vertically, 300 m horizontally
• C) 300 m vertically, 1500 m horizontally
• D) 50 m vertically, 100 m horizontally

Correct: D)

Explanation: In a glider-specific restricted zone (LS-R), reduced distances apply: 50 m vertically and 100 m horizontally from clouds (instead of standard distances).

Q107: What is the correct sequence for abandoning a glider and bailing out by parachute? ^t70q107

• A) Unfasten harness, release canopy, jump, open parachute
• B) Release canopy, unfasten harness, jump, open parachute
• C) Release canopy, unfasten harness, open parachute, jump
• D) Unfasten harness, pull parachute handle, release canopy, jump

Correct: B)

Explanation: In case of parachute bailout: 1) Release canopy 2) Unfasten harness 3) Jump 4) Open parachute. Order is crucial for safety.

Q108: How should a landing on a slope be performed? ^t70q108

• A) Always facing uphill regardless of wind
• B) With left wind, across the slope
• C) Always across the slope
• D) Downhill into the wind

Correct: D)

Explanation: Landing on a slope: always downhill into the wind. Uphill + tailwind would dangerously extend the landing distance.

Q109: Which type of terrain is particularly well suited for an off-field landing? ^t70q109

• A) A large flat field, oriented into the wind, free of obstacles on the approach path
• B) A field of tall crops that would help brake the glider
• C) A vast, freshly ploughed field sloping upward
• D) A field near a road and a telephone

Correct: A)

Explanation: The best field for an off-field landing is a large flat field, oriented into the wind, free of obstacles on the approach axis.

Q110: An off-field landing ends in a ground loop caused by an obstacle. The fuselage breaks near the rudder. What must be done? ^t70q110

• A) If it is a minor accident, no report is necessary
• B) Immediately notify the aviation accident investigation bureau via REGA
• C) Notify the nearest police station
• D) Notify FOCA in writing

Correct: B)

Explanation: A fuselage broken near the rudder after a ground loop = serious accident. Immediately notify the accident investigation bureau (via REGA if necessary).

Q111: A glider pilot must make an off-field landing in mountainous terrain. The only available landing site has a steep incline. How should the landing be executed? ^t70q111

• A) Approach downhill at increased speed, pushing the elevator to follow the terrain during landing
• B) Approach at minimum speed with a careful flare upon reaching the landing site
• C) Approach at increased speed with a quick flare to follow the inclined ground
• D) Approach parallel to the ridge into the prevailing wind

Correct: C)

Explanation: When an off-field landing on inclined terrain is unavoidable, the correct technique is to approach with increased speed and perform a quick, firm flare to match the glider's pitch attitude to the slope angle at touchdown — this minimises the relative vertical velocity on contact. Landing down a ridge (option A) dramatically increases ground speed and roll-out distance, risking a collision with terrain ahead. Approaching parallel to the ridge (option D) ignores the slope problem. Minimum speed (option B) leaves no energy margin for the flare on sloped ground.

Q112: On final approach, you realise the landing gear was not extended. How should the landing be performed? ^t70q112

• A) Retract flaps, extend the gear, and land normally
• B) Extend the gear immediately and land as usual
• C) Land gear-up at higher than usual speed
• D) Land gear-up, touching down carefully at minimum speed

Correct: D)

Explanation: If the gear is not extended on final approach and there is insufficient height to safely extend it, the safest action is to complete a gear-up landing at minimum speed, accepting a belly-landing with controlled, gentle touchdown. Extending gear at the last moment (option B) risks an asymmetric or partially extended gear, which is more dangerous. Retracting flaps to buy time (option A) alters the approach profile unpredictably close to the ground. Landing without gear at higher speed (option C) worsens the damage and increases risk of injury.

Q113: At what height during a winch launch may the maximum pitch attitude be adopted? ^t70q113

• A) From 150 m or higher, when a straight-ahead landing after cable break is no longer possible
• B) From about 50 m, while maintaining a safe launch speed
• C) From 15 m, once a speed of at least 90 km/h is reached
• D) Immediately after lift-off, provided there is a sufficiently strong headwind

Correct: B)

Explanation: During a winch launch, the maximum pitch (steep climb) attitude should not be adopted until approximately 50 m AGL, while maintaining a safe minimum launch speed. Below 50 m, a cable break would not allow a straight-ahead landing if the nose is too high; above 50 m there is sufficient height to recover. 15 m is too low and dangerous. 150 m is overly conservative and wastes the launch energy. Pitching up immediately after liftoff (option D) is extremely hazardous regardless of headwind.

Q114: What factors must be considered for approach and landing speed? ^t70q114

• A) Altitude and weight
• B) Wind speed and altitude
• C) Aircraft weight and wind speed
• D) Wind speed and weight

Correct: C)

Explanation: Approach and landing speed must account for both aircraft weight and wind conditions (including gusts). A heavier aircraft requires a higher approach speed to maintain adequate safety margin above stall. Higher winds — especially gusts — require an additional speed increment to avoid sudden loss of airspeed and lift. Altitude alone does not directly determine approach speed. Options A, B, and D are incomplete; option C correctly names both weight and wind speed.

Q115: How can you determine wind direction when making an out-landing? ^t70q115

• A) Recall the wind shown by the windsock at the departure airfield
• B) Ask other pilots reachable by radio
• C) Observe smoke, flags, and rippling fields
• D) Use the wind forecast from the flight weather report

Correct: C)

Explanation: During an outlanding, visual cues in the environment are the most reliable and immediately available indicators of wind direction and strength: smoke drifting from chimneys, flags, and rippling crops clearly show the current local wind. A weather forecast (option D) may not reflect local conditions precisely at that moment. Radio contact with other pilots (option B) is unreliable and slow. The windsock at the departure airfield (option A) is irrelevant to conditions at the outlanding site.

Q116: What landing technique is recommended for a downhill grass area? ^t70q116

• A) Full airbrakes, gear retracted, and stalled
• B) Generally land uphill
• C) Diagonal downhill
• D) Wheel brake applied, no airbrakes

Correct: B)

Explanation: On a downhill grass area, landing uphill means the aircraft is climbing toward the ground, which naturally decelerates the glider and shortens the roll-out — this is the recommended technique. Landing diagonally downhill (option C) risks ground-looping. Using wheel brakes without airbrakes (option D) may be ineffective or cause a nose-over on rough terrain. Landing with gear retracted and stalled (option A) is dangerous and unnecessary.

Q117: What must be verified before any change of direction during glide? ^t70q117

• A) That the turn will be flown in coordination
• B) That loose objects are secured
• C) That there are thermal clouds in the area
• D) That the airspace in the intended direction is clear

Correct: D)

Explanation: Before initiating any turn during flight, the pilot must first check that the airspace in the intended direction is clear of other aircraft, obstacles, and restricted areas. A coordinated turn (option A) is always desirable but is secondary to the lookout. Thermal clouds (option C) and loose objects (option B) are not safety priorities before a heading change. Collision avoidance through a proper lookout is the primary concern.

Q118: Before a winch launch you detect a light tailwind. What must be considered? ^t70q118

• A) A weaker rated weak link can be used, since the load will be smaller
• B) The ground roll to lift-off will be longer; watch the airspeed
• C) Full elevator back-pressure immediately after lift-off to gain extra height
• D) The ground roll to lift-off will be shorter since the tailwind pushes from behind

Correct: B)

Explanation: A tailwind during winch launch means the aircraft has a lower airspeed relative to the ground at any given ground speed, so more ground roll is needed before reaching flying speed — liftoff takes longer and the pilot must monitor the airspeed carefully. Tailwind does not reduce the required cable tension rating (option A). Tailwind from behind reduces effective airspeed, so the roll is longer, not shorter (option D is incorrect). Pulling back immediately after liftoff in a tailwind is hazardous (option C).

Q119: During the approach for landing in a strong crosswind, how should the base-to-final turn be flown? ^t70q119

• A) Maximum 60-degree bank, use rudder to align early with the final track
• B) Maximum 30-degree bank, use rudder to align early with the final track
• C) Maximum 60-degree bank, watch speed and yaw string carefully, correct track after any overshoot
• D) Maximum 30-degree bank, watch speed and yaw string carefully, correct track after any overshoot

Correct: D)

Explanation: On the base-to-final turn, a maximum bank angle of 30° is recommended to keep turn coordination manageable and to avoid the risk of a low-speed stall-spin. The yaw string (slip indicator) and airspeed must be closely monitored because crosswind complicates the turn geometry. If the aircraft overshoots the final track, a gentle track correction is made after the turn — never a steep rudder input to force alignment, as this risks a skidded stall. Options A and C allow up to 60° bank, which is excessive and dangerous near the ground.

Q120: While thermalling, another sailplane follows closely behind. What should you do to avoid a collision? ^t70q120

• A) Increase bank to become more visible to the other sailplane
• B) Reduce bank to widen the turn radius
• C) Reduce speed to let the other sailplane pass
• D) Increase speed to move to a position opposite in the circle

Correct: D)

Explanation: When two sailplanes are circling in the same thermal in close proximity, the most effective way to create separation is to increase speed, which increases the turn radius and moves the faster aircraft to a position opposite in the circle (180° apart), creating the maximum safe separation. Reducing speed (option C) tightens the radius and closes the gap. Reducing bank (option B) also increases radius but slowly. Increasing bank (option A) makes the glider smaller in profile but does not solve the proximity problem.

Q121: What altitudes should be planned for the landing pattern phases in a glider? ^t70q121

• A) 300 m abeam the threshold and 150 m on final approach
• B) 500 m abeam the threshold and 50 m after the final turn
• C) 150–200 m abeam the threshold and 100 m after the final turn
• D) 100 m abeam the threshold and 50 m after the final turn

Correct: C)

Explanation: Standard traffic pattern heights for a glider are approximately 150–200 m AGL abeam the threshold (downwind leg) and 100 m AGL after the final turn. These heights give the pilot adequate time and space to plan the approach and use airbrakes effectively for a precise landing. The lower heights in options D and B leave insufficient margin for corrections; the higher values in option A are excessive for unpowered glider operations.

Q122: How should a glider be secured when strong winds are observed? ^t70q122

• A) Nose into the wind, extend airbrakes, lock the controls
• B) Nose into the wind, weigh down and secure the tail
• C) Downwind wing on the ground, weigh the wing down, lock the controls
• D) Windward wing on the ground, weigh the wing down, lock the controls

Correct: D)

Explanation: In strong winds, the windward (upwind) wing should be placed on the ground to prevent the wind from getting under it and flipping the aircraft. The wing is then weighted down with a sandbag or similar weight, and the control surfaces (rudder) are secured to prevent them from being damaged by aerodynamic buffeting. Pointing the nose into wind (options A and B) presents a large fuselage surface to cross-gusts and does not protect the wings. Placing the downwind wing on the ground (option C) allows the upwind wing to be lifted by the wind.

Q123: What must be considered when crossing mountain ridges? ^t70q123

• A) Do not overfly national parks
• B) Reduce to minimum speed because of turbulence
• C) Use circling birds to locate thermal cells
• D) Expect turbulence and increase speed slightly

Correct: D)

Explanation: Mountain ridges produce significant turbulence on the lee side and in the rotor zone, but turbulence can also occur directly at the ridge crest. Flying slightly faster than normal provides better control authority and reduces the risk of a stall in turbulence. Reducing to minimum speed (option B) is dangerous as turbulence could cause the aircraft to stall. Overflight of national parks (option A) is a regulatory matter, not a primary safety consideration when crossing ridges. Circling birds indicate thermals (option C) but this does not address the turbulence hazard of ridge crossing.

Q124: What does "buffeting" felt through the elevator stick indicate? ^t70q124

• A) Centre of gravity too far forward
• B) Aircraft surface very dirty
• C) Flying too slowly — wing airflow separating
• D) Flying too fast — turbulence impacting the ailerons

Correct: C)

Explanation: Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is a classic aerodynamic warning of an approaching stall: separated airflow from the wings passes over the tail surface, causing the elevator to vibrate. This occurs at low airspeed when the angle of attack exceeds the critical angle. A forward CG (option A) makes the aircraft more stable and resistant to stall. A dirty airframe (option B) may affect performance but does not directly cause elevator buffeting. Turbulence at high speed (option D) would be felt as general airframe shaking, not specifically at the elevator.

Q125: When must a pre-flight check be performed? ^t70q125

• A) Once a month; for TMGs, once a day
• B) Before every flight operation and before every single flight
• C) Before the first flight of the day and after every change of pilot
• D) After every assembly of the aircraft

Correct: C)

Explanation: A pre-flight check (walk-around and cockpit check) must be performed before the first flight of the day and after every change of pilot, because each pilot is responsible for verifying the aircraft's airworthiness before they fly it. A check after every assembly (option D) applies to aircraft that are dismantled between flights (trailer gliders) — this is a separate requirement. Monthly checks (option A) describe maintenance intervals, not pre-flight procedures. Option B ('before every flight') is too broad and would be burdensome; it is the daily first-flight and pilot-change rule that is standard practice.

Q126: How is the term "flight time" defined? ^t70q126

• A) The total time from the first take-off to the final landing across one or more consecutive flights.
• B) The interval from engine start for departure until the pilot leaves the aircraft after engine shutdown.
• C) The interval from the beginning of the take-off run to the final touchdown on landing.
• D) The total time from the aircraft's first movement until it finally comes to rest after the flight.

Correct: D)

Explanation: ICAO Annex 1 defines flight time for aircraft as the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. For sailplanes (non-motorised), this is interpreted as from first movement (e.g., the start of the winch run or aerotow) until the aircraft comes to rest after landing. Option B describes block time for powered aircraft. Option C is too narrow (only the take-off and landing roll). Option A describes a duty period concept, not a single flight.

Q127: During approach, the tower reports: "Wind 15 knots, gusts 25 knots." How should the landing be performed? ^t70q127

• A) Approach at minimum speed, correcting attitude changes with gentle rudder inputs
• B) Approach at increased speed, avoiding the use of spoilers
• C) Approach at normal speed, controlling speed with spoilers
• D) Approach at increased speed, correcting attitude changes with firm rudder inputs

Correct: D)

Explanation: With strong gusts (here: wind 15 kt, gusts 25 kt — a 10 kt spread), the pilot must add a gust allowance to the normal approach speed to ensure that a sudden drop in airspeed caused by a gust does not reduce speed below the stall speed. Firm rudder inputs are needed to correct attitude changes caused by the gusty conditions. Minimum speed (option A) provides no safety margin in gusts. Normal speed without gust correction (option C) is insufficient. Avoiding spoilers/airbrakes (option B) removes the ability to control the glide path precisely.

Q128: What does buffeting felt through the elevator stick indicate? ^t70q128

• A) Aircraft surface very dirty
• B) Flying too fast — turbulence hitting the ailerons
• C) Centre of gravity too far forward
• D) Flying too slowly — wing airflow is separating

Correct: D)

Explanation: Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is the tactile warning that the wing has approached its critical angle of attack and airflow is beginning to separate — the pre-stall buffet. This is caused by turbulent separated airflow from the wing reaching the tail and exciting the elevator. Option C (CG too far forward) makes the aircraft pitch-stable and stall-resistant. Option A (dirty airframe) degrades performance but does not specifically cause elevator buffeting. Option B (high speed turbulence) produces general airframe vibration unrelated to stall.