Q76: You enter a thermal in the lowlands at 1500 m AGL with no other glider nearby. In which direction do you circle? ^t70q76

Correct: D)

Explanation: When entering a thermal alone, the recommended technique is to first perform a figure-eight pattern (or S-turns) to identify the strongest part of the thermal before committing to a circling direction. This allows the pilot to center the thermal efficiently. Option A and C prescribe a fixed direction without first locating the core. Option B is technically correct regarding regulations but does not describe the best practice for thermal exploitation. The figure-eight technique optimizes climb rate by finding the thermal center before circling.

Q77: What lateral distance from a slope must you maintain in a glider? ^t70q77

Correct: D)

Explanation: When flying near a slope, the pilot must maintain a sufficient safety distance that accounts for current conditions including wind, turbulence, and terrain features. This is a judgment-based requirement rather than a fixed numeric value. Option A (depends on lift) only considers one factor. Options B (150 m) and C (60 m) specify fixed distances that may be appropriate in some contexts but do not reflect the general guidance, which emphasizes adequate safety margin appropriate to the circumstances.

Q78: You enter a thermal at 500 m AGL below a cumulus and see another glider circling 50 m above you. In which direction should you turn? ^t70q78

Correct: B)

Explanation: When joining a thermal occupied by another glider, you must circle in the same direction to maintain a predictable traffic pattern and avoid head-on encounters within the thermal. This is a fundamental rule of shared thermal etiquette. Option A incorrectly dismisses the need for directional coordination. Option C (opposite direction) creates dangerous head-on convergence paths within the confined area of the thermal. Option D invents a non-existent 150 m vertical separation requirement for thermal sharing.

Q79: During an off-field landing, the glider sustains 70% damage; the pilot is unhurt. What must be done? ^t70q79

Correct: B)

Explanation: When a glider sustains major damage (70%) without injuries, the pilot must notify the local police within 24 hours. This is classified as a serious incident with substantial damage. Option A (FOCA report in 3 days) does not meet the urgency required. Option C (immediate notification via REGA) is the procedure for accidents involving injuries or fatalities. Option D (report within a week) is too slow for an incident involving 70% airframe damage, which requires prompt reporting.

Q80: What requires special attention when taking off on a hard (paved) runway? ^t70q80

Correct: D)

Explanation: On a hard paved runway, a glider's main wheel has less rolling resistance compared to grass, which means the groundspeed at liftoff may feel similar but the ground roll can be longer because the wheel offers less drag to help the aircraft become airborne. Additionally, on pavement the aircraft may weathervane more easily. Option A is not specific to hard runways. Option B (pulling back longer) could cause the tail to strike the runway. Option C (wheel brake at start) would impede acceleration during the most critical phase.

Q81: How should a water landing (ditching) be carried out? ^t70q81

Correct: B)

Explanation: For a water landing, the pilot should tighten all harnesses to prevent injury on impact, close ventilation openings to slow water ingress, and approach at slightly above normal speed to maintain control and reduce the descent rate. The gear should be retracted (not extended as in option C) to prevent the aircraft from flipping on water entry. Option A (tail-first) risks a violent pitch-forward on impact. Option D (sideslip) creates an asymmetric water entry that could cartwheel the aircraft.

Q82: During an off-field landing, how can the wind direction best be determined? ^t70q82

Correct: C)

Explanation: The most reliable method for determining wind direction from the air is to observe the glider's drift during altitude-loss spirals — the direction the aircraft drifts indicates the downwind direction, and the amount of drift indicates wind strength. This works at any altitude and any location. Option A (tree leaves) requires being low enough to see individual leaves. Option B (wheat field patterns) can be misleading and requires specific crop stages. Option D (livestock behavior) is unreliable as a wind indicator.

Q83: You are flying fast along a ridge and spot a slower glider ahead at about the same altitude. How do you react? ^t70q83

Correct: B)

Explanation: When overtaking a slower glider on a ridge, always pass on the valley side (away from the slope) to maintain safe terrain clearance and avoid trapping the other pilot against the hillside. This gives both aircraft escape room toward the valley. Option A (turning back) is unnecessary and wastes energy. Option C (radio contact) takes too long to arrange at closing speed. Option D (diving below) risks flying into the turbulent rotor zone closer to the terrain.

Q84: At the start of an aerotow, the glider rolls over the tow rope. What should you do? ^t70q84

Correct: C)

Explanation: If the glider rolls over the slack tow rope, the rope can become entangled with the landing gear, skid, or other structures beneath the aircraft. The immediate action is to release the rope before any entanglement can occur. Option A (braking) does not prevent entanglement and may worsen it. Option B (airbrakes) is irrelevant to the immediate hazard. Option D (radio warning) wastes time during a situation requiring instant action — by the time the call is made, the rope may already be entangled.

Q85: Are glider flights permitted in Class C airspace? ^t70q85

Correct: B)

Explanation: Glider flights are permitted in Class C airspace under specific conditions: the pilot must hold the radiotelephony extension, receive ATC authorization before entering, and maintain continuous radio contact. Certain exceptions for gliders may be published on the soaring chart. Option A assumes gliders carry transponders, which most do not. Option C ignores the mandatory ATC clearance and radio requirements for Class C. Option D incorrectly implies that Class C is open by default unless NOTAMs restrict it.

Q86: You are flying along a slope on your right and spot an oncoming glider at the same altitude. How do you react? ^t70q86

Correct: B)

Explanation: When meeting an oncoming glider while ridge soaring with the slope on your right, the standard rule is to give way by turning away from the slope (toward the valley). The pilot with the slope on the right has right-of-way in ridge soaring (similar to the rule of the road on mountain roads). However, both pilots should take evasive action by moving away from the ridge. Option A (diving) risks terrain collision. Option C (climbing) may not be possible. Option D (maintaining heading) leads directly to a head-on collision.

Q87: You must land on a 400 m field with a moderate tailwind. How do you fly the final approach? ^t70q87

Correct: C)

Explanation: With a tailwind on a limited field, the pilot must minimize groundspeed at touchdown to reduce ground roll. This means flying slightly above minimum speed (to maintain a safety margin while being as slow as possible in the air) and approaching at a lower height to steepen the approach angle relative to the ground. Option A (best glide speed) is faster than needed and wastes field length. Option B (sideslip) addresses crosswind, not tailwind. Option D (faster approach) would increase groundspeed and ground roll on an already short field.

Q88: What is the effect of a waterlogged grass runway on an aerotow departure? ^t70q88

Correct: B)

Explanation: A waterlogged grass runway increases rolling resistance because the wheels sink into the soft, saturated surface, creating drag that slows acceleration. This results in a significantly longer takeoff distance for both the tow aircraft and the glider. Option A ignores the substantial difference between dry and waterlogged surfaces. Option D's logic is flawed — while a slippery surface might reduce friction on a hard runway, waterlogged grass creates suction and drag that impede acceleration. Option C is incorrect because option B is the correct answer.

Q89: On approach to an off-field landing, you suddenly notice a high-voltage power line across your landing axis. How do you react? ^t70q89

Correct: B)

Explanation: The preferred action is always to fly over the power line if possible. However, if altitude is insufficient to clear the line and no alternative landing path exists, passing under the line is acceptable as a last resort — but only between the pylons where the cable sag provides maximum clearance, not near a pylon (option D) where cables are at their lowest. Option A (always fly over) is not possible when altitude is insufficient. Option C (tight turn near the ground) risks a stall-spin accident. Option D (near a pylon) is where clearance is minimal.

Q90: What is the standard spin recovery procedure when the manufacturer has not specified one? ^t70q90

Correct: C)

Explanation: The standard spin recovery procedure is: (1) identify the spin direction, (2) apply full opposite rudder to stop the rotation, (3) keep ailerons neutral (as aileron input during a spin can be counterproductive), (4) ease the stick slightly forward to reduce the angle of attack below the stall angle, and (5) once rotation stops, centralize the rudder and pull out of the resulting dive. Option A omits identifying the spin direction. Option B uses ailerons, which can deepen the spin. Option D uses ailerons instead of rudder as the primary anti-spin control, which is incorrect.

Q91: Unless ATC instructs otherwise, how should the approach to an aerodrome be carried out in a glider? ^t70q91

Correct: C)

Explanation: Approach to an aerodrome should follow published VFR guide procedures or any other appropriate method. A mandatory full circuit over the signal area is no longer systematically required.

Q92: You are flying a fast glider along a slope and spot a slower glider ahead at approximately the same altitude. How do you respond? ^t70q92

Correct: B)

Explanation: In mountain flying, to overtake a slower glider on a slope, pass on the side away from the slope (valley side). This rule is consistent with the right-of-way for climbing gliders.

Q93: In flight, the rudder jams in the neutral position. How do you react? ^t70q93

Correct: D)

Explanation: If the rudder jams in flight, control the glider with elevator and ailerons. Make shallow turns and land immediately.

Q94: At the start of an aerotow, the glider rolls over the tow rope. What do you do? ^t70q94

Correct: C)

Explanation: If the glider rolls over the tow rope, immediately releasing the rope is the only correct action.

Q95: The tow rope breaks on the tug's side before reaching safety height. How must the glider pilot react? ^t70q95

Correct: A)

Explanation: If the rope breaks on the tow plane side below safety height: actuate the release handle twice (verification) and land straight ahead in the runway extension. Avoid turning.

Q96: How do you fly the final approach in a strong crosswind? ^t70q96

Correct: D)

Explanation: In strong crosswind on final, take a crab angle into the wind and increase speed slightly to maintain control. The sideslip can be used but crab is the primary method.

Q97: How should a water landing be carried out? ^t70q97

Correct: D)

Explanation: For a water landing: tighten harnesses, close ventilation to prevent water entry, and land at slightly above normal speed for better control and to avoid nose-over.

Q98: You enter a thermal with no other glider nearby. In which direction do you circle? ^t70q98

Correct: A)

Explanation: Without other gliders in the thermal, there is no prescribed spiraling direction. The pilot chooses freely.

Q99: In a glider, how is altitude expressed? ^t70q99

Correct: C)

Explanation: Glider altitude is expressed according to the country overflown (altitude in feet or meters per local rules, or flight levels per airspace). Regulations vary by country.

Q100: Without manufacturer-specific guidance, what is the standard spin recovery procedure? ^t70q100

Correct: D)

Explanation: Standard spin recovery: 1) Identify direction, 2) Opposite rudder, 3) Ailerons neutral, 4) Slight forward stick, 5) Pull out after rotation stops.