Correct: B)
Explanation: Under EASA regulations, a newly qualified LAPL(S) holder must accumulate a minimum of 10 hours of flight time or 30 flights as pilot in command after licence issuance before being permitted to carry passengers. This ensures the pilot gains sufficient solo experience before taking responsibility for others. Option A omits the initial experience requirement. Option C is wrong because there is a clear restriction. Option D is incorrect because the LAPL(S) does permit passenger carriage after meeting the experience requirement.
Correct: B)
Explanation: On final approach, the commitment to land has been made. A thermal on final approach will cause the glider to float above the desired glide path, so the pilot must fully extend airbrakes to maintain the correct path and dissipate the extra energy. Option A (retracting brakes to exploit the thermal) abandons the committed approach at a critical phase, which is extremely dangerous at low altitude. Option C assumes thermals always produce compensating sink, which is not reliable. Option D (circling on final) is dangerous at low altitude.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Wet grass significantly reduces friction between the tire and the surface, resulting in less effective wheel braking and a longer ground roll. The pilot must plan for this extended stopping distance. Option A exaggerates — aquaplaning is primarily a concern on paved runways, not grass. Option B is incorrect because wet surfaces reduce, not improve, natural braking. Option C is wrong because reduced friction means a longer, not shorter, ground roll.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Late in the day, shaded slopes create dark backgrounds against which other aircraft become extremely difficult to spot visually. The contrast between sunlit and shaded areas makes visual detection particularly challenging — an aircraft in shadow can be nearly invisible. Option A and B may occur in certain conditions but are not specifically linked to shaded slopes late in the day. Option D (glare) is a concern when looking toward the sun, not toward shaded slopes.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Field selection must be finalized at 300 m AGL for gliders and 400 m AGL for motorgliders to ensure sufficient altitude for a proper circuit, approach, and landing. Below these heights, the pilot should be committed to the chosen field. Option A does not specify a concrete altitude. Option C reverses the altitudes — motorgliders need more height because they may attempt an engine restart. Option D sets the motorglider threshold too low for a safe circuit with potential engine restart attempt.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When thermalling alone with no other aircraft in the thermal, there is no regulation requiring a specific turning direction. The pilot is free to choose whichever direction best centers the thermal or feels most comfortable. Option A imposes a left-turn requirement that does not exist. Option C invents a distance-based rule. Option D (figure-eights) is a technique for locating the thermal core, not a required circling method. The obligation to match another glider's turn direction only applies when sharing a thermal.
Correct: C)
Explanation: After a cable break below safety height, the priority sequence is: establish a safe glide attitude (to maintain flying speed), release the remaining rope by actuating the release twice (to ensure disconnection), and land straight ahead if terrain permits. Option A deploys airbrakes prematurely when every meter of altitude counts. Option B attempts a 180° turn which is extremely dangerous below safety height. Option D releases before establishing a glide — the glide attitude should be established first to ensure safe flying speed.
Correct: C)
Explanation: With a strong crosswind from the right, the wind will tend to lift the right (windward) wing. By holding the right wing slightly lower at the start of the ground roll, the helper compensates for this lifting tendency, keeping the wings level until the aileron becomes effective. Option A refers to engine procedures irrelevant for gliders. Option B (pulling back to lift off quickly) risks a premature liftoff with insufficient airspeed. Option D is impractical and dangerous — the helper cannot keep pace with an accelerating glider.
Correct: B)
Explanation: If acceleration is insufficient by the abort point, the takeoff must be abandoned by releasing the towrope immediately. Continuing the takeoff with insufficient speed risks failing to clear obstacles or running off the end of the runway. Option A might marginally reduce drag but cannot solve a fundamental performance problem. Option C (forcing the aircraft airborne) at inadequate speed leads to an immediate stall or settling back onto the ground. Option D (flaps) cannot compensate for insufficient tow power.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When flying along a slope, a minimum lateral distance of 60 meters must be maintained horizontally from the terrain. This provides a safety buffer against unexpected turbulence, downdrafts, or control difficulty near the slope face. Option A is vague and non-specific. Option C (150 m) is more conservative than the standard requirement. Option D (depends on thermals) introduces a variable condition that does not define a clear minimum standard.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In high mountain environments, weather can deteriorate with extreme speed — thunderstorms can develop in minutes due to orographic lifting and localized heating effects. This is the most significant hazard requiring special attention. Options A, B, and C describe technical inconveniences that may occasionally occur in mountains, but they are not the primary hazard. Rapid weather changes can trap a pilot in valleys with deteriorating visibility and violent turbulence, making option D the critical safety concern.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Oxygen under pressure can react violently with hydrocarbon-based greases and oils, potentially causing a flash fire or explosion. All components in contact with oxygen must be completely grease-free. Option D is directly dangerous — greasing the connector introduces a combustion risk. Options A and C describe good practices but are not the absolute safety-critical requirement. The oxygen-grease incompatibility is a fundamental rule in aviation oxygen system handling.
Correct: D)
Explanation: At only 400 m above ground, there is no time for any delay — the parachute must be deployed immediately after clearing the aircraft. Freefall at terminal velocity covers roughly 50 m per second, so even 2-3 seconds of delay (option A) would consume 100-150 m of precious altitude. Option B (stabilizing in freefall) wastes critical seconds. Option C (before leaving) would entangle the parachute with the aircraft structure. At 400 m, every second counts for a successful deployment and deceleration.
Correct: B)
Explanation: On short final, the commitment to land has been made — the safest action is to continue straight ahead with full airbrakes and use every available means (wheel brake, ground friction) to stop in the shortest distance possible. Option A (reducing to minimum speed) risks stalling close to the ground. Option C is similar to B but less specific about using all stopping means. Option D (turning to find another field) at this low altitude and close range is extremely dangerous and likely to result in a stall-spin accident.
Correct: B)
Explanation: FLARM is a traffic awareness system that calculates collision risk based on the predicted flight paths of nearby FLARM-equipped aircraft and issues warnings when a potential conflict is detected. Option A overstates its precision — it provides approximate positions, not precise ones. Option C is incorrect because FLARM warns but does not recommend specific avoidance maneuvers. Option D is wrong because FLARM only detects other FLARM devices, not transponder-equipped aircraft (that would require a separate ADS-B receiver).
Correct: D)
Explanation: The indicated airspeed (IAS) for the approach should be the same as at sea level because the ASI already accounts for air density — it measures dynamic pressure, which determines aerodynamic forces regardless of altitude. The stall IAS does not change with altitude. However, the true airspeed and groundspeed will be higher at altitude due to lower air density. Options A and C incorrectly adjust IAS, and option B applies a TAS correction to IAS, which is unnecessary.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When entering a downdraft, the descending air mass reduces the effective angle of attack on the wings, temporarily decreasing lift. The pilot feels a brief reduction in g-load (a sensation of lightness or being pushed up from the seat) as the aircraft begins to sink with the descending air. The glider's airspeed initially decreases momentarily. Option B describes what happens entering an updraft (nose pitches up, increased g-load). Options A and C do not accurately describe the symmetrical effect of entering a downdraft center.
Correct: A)
Explanation: Cirrus clouds at high altitude filter incoming solar radiation, reducing the surface heating that drives thermal convection. Less heating means weaker thermals and potentially an earlier end to the soaring day. This is an important warning sign during cross-country flights. Option B is wrong — cirrus does not increase instability at thermal altitudes. Option C describes a shift that may occur but is not the primary effect. Option D underestimates the impact cirrus has on thermal generation through solar radiation reduction.
Correct: C)
Explanation: To maximize distance in a headwind, the pilot must fly faster than best-glide speed. The headwind reduces groundspeed, so the glider spends more time in the air and descends more before covering the desired ground distance. By increasing speed above best-glide, the pilot accepts a steeper glide angle but gains enough extra groundspeed to more than compensate for the altitude loss. Option A (minimum sink) minimizes descent rate but covers minimal distance. Option B (best glide) is optimal only in still air. Option D (McCready zero) equals best-glide speed.
Correct: D)
Explanation: A freshly mown meadow of 200 m provides a smooth, firm surface free of tall vegetation and hidden obstacles — ideal for a short ground roll in a glider, which can typically stop within 100-200 m. Option A (ploughed field) has soft soil and deep furrows that can nose the glider over. Option B (maize field) has tall crops that obscure hazards and create drag inconsistencies. Option C (country lane) is narrow, potentially lined with trees and power lines, and poses collision risks with vehicles.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Pilots may use the on-board radio on dedicated glider frequencies to communicate with their retrieve crew without needing a separate radiotelephony extension or rating. These frequencies are designated for glider operations and permit such operational communications. Option A unnecessarily restricts this established practice. Option C invents a frequency limitation that does not exist. Option D incorrectly prohibits a communication that is routinely permitted.
Correct: D)
Explanation: At 1800 m AMSL, air density is lower than at sea level, so the true airspeed (TAS) is higher than indicated airspeed (IAS) for the same dynamic pressure reading. In nil-wind conditions, groundspeed equals TAS, which exceeds IAS. This means the aircraft approaches the runway at a higher groundspeed than the ASI shows, requiring awareness of a longer ground roll and higher touchdown energy. Options B and C underestimate the density altitude effect. Option A is partially true but the dominant factor is altitude, not temperature.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Wearing a parachute is not compulsory for glider flights under current regulations, although it is strongly recommended and standard practice in the gliding community. The decision is left to the pilot. Option A invents an altitude-based requirement. Option C creates a restriction limited to aerobatics that does not exist in the regulations. Option D overstates the requirement. While practically all glider pilots wear parachutes, it remains a personal safety choice, not a legal obligation.
Correct: D)
Explanation: After a cable break during the climb phase, the immediate priority is to release the remaining cable (which may still be attached and could snag) and then lower the nose to establish a safe glide. The cable release comes first because a dangling cable is an immediate hazard. Option A (airbrakes first) wastes altitude when every meter counts. Option B reverses the priority — establishing the glide before releasing could allow the cable to become entangled. Option C (radio call) wastes precious seconds during a time-critical emergency.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In a strong crosswind aerotow departure, the glider should be positioned upwind of the tow aircraft's centerline to prevent being blown across the tug's path during the ground roll. This offset compensates for the crosswind drift during the critical acceleration phase. Option A states a normal sequence that does not address crosswind specifically. Option B provides a partial technique but does not address the pre-departure setup. Option C is incorrect because crosswinds typically increase takeoff distance slightly.
