Human Performance


Q91: Vestibular disturbances during a turn can cause dizziness. What measure is most effective in preventing them? ^t40q91

Correct: B)

Explanation: The most effective measure to prevent vestibular dizziness during a turn is to keep the head as still as possible (B), because head movements in a plane perpendicular to the turn's rotation axis simultaneously stimulate multiple semicircular canals and produce the disorienting Coriolis illusion. The semicircular canals are already registering the rotational acceleration of the turn; adding a head rotation in a different axis compounds the vestibular input and overwhelms the brain's ability to maintain spatial orientation. A is wrong because looking in the turn direction does not prevent the vestibular stimulus. C is wrong because breathing pattern does not influence canal mechanics. D is the worst option: alternating head movements during a turn directly provoke the Coriolis effect.

Q92: Which is the immediate effect of inhaling cigarette smoke on a regular smoker? ^t40q92

Correct: C)

Explanation: The immediate effect of inhaling cigarette smoke is a reduction in the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity (C), because carbon monoxide (CO) in the smoke binds to haemoglobin with approximately 200 times the affinity of oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin that cannot transport oxygen to tissues. A is wrong because nicotine actually causes vasoconstriction and a transient rise in blood pressure, not a reduction. B is wrong for the same reason — nicotine constricts blood vessels. D is wrong because CO (carbon monoxide), not CO₂ (carbon dioxide), is the dangerous combustion product in smoke; CO₂ is a normal cellular waste product unrelated to smoking's acute haemoglobin impairment.

Q93: What is the relationship between oxygen deficiency and visual acuity? ^t40q93

Correct: A)

Explanation: Oxygen deficiency reduces visual acuity (A) because the retina has the highest specific oxygen consumption of any tissue in the body, making it among the first to be affected by hypoxia. Both daytime (photopic) and night (scotopic) vision are degraded — rod photoreceptors that mediate night vision are especially sensitive, with measurable impairment beginning at altitudes as low as 5,000 ft. B is wrong because the retinal effect of hypoxia is well documented. C and D are both wrong because hypoxia impairs vision under all lighting conditions, not selectively by day or night.

Q94: Oxygen deficiency and hyperventilation share some similar symptoms. Which of these symptoms always indicates oxygen deficiency? ^t40q94

Correct: A)

Explanation: Cyanosis — the blue discolouration of lips and fingernails (A) — is caused specifically by a high proportion of deoxygenated haemoglobin in peripheral blood and is an objective physical sign of oxygen deficiency that cannot be produced by hyperventilation. Hyperventilation actually raises blood oxygen levels; cyanosis therefore cannot occur from hyperventilation alone, making it the differentiating indicator. B, C, and D are all symptoms shared by both conditions: visual disturbances and tingling occur in hypoxia due to retinal and neural hypoxia, and in hyperventilation due to hypocapnic alkalosis causing vasoconstriction and neuromuscular irritability.

Q95: What is the proportion of oxygen (in %) in the air at an altitude of approximately 34,000 feet? ^t40q95

Correct: B)

Explanation: The proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere remains at approximately 21% (B) regardless of altitude, because the homosphere extends to roughly 80 km and atmospheric turbulence maintains a uniform gas mixture throughout. At 34,000 ft the total atmospheric pressure is approximately one quarter of sea-level pressure, so the partial pressure of oxygen is also one quarter of its sea-level value — but the percentage is unchanged. A and C incorrectly suggest the fraction decreases with altitude; D suggests it increases. All three confuse oxygen fraction with oxygen partial pressure.

Q96: During a visual flight, you suddenly lose all external visual references. Spatial orientation using only cutaneous senses and proprioception is… ^t40q96

Correct: A)

Explanation: When all visual references are lost, maintaining spatial orientation using only cutaneous (skin pressure) and proprioceptive (muscle and joint) senses is physiologically impossible (A), regardless of experience or training level. These senses evolved for terrestrial movement and cannot reliably differentiate the complex, sustained accelerations of flight from gravitational forces; without visual or instrument references, a pilot will lose spatial orientation within approximately 20–30 seconds. B and C are wrong because no training can override the physiological limitations of these non-visual senses in flight. D is wrong because even a few minutes of unaided IMC flight is far beyond what the senses can sustain — loss of control typically occurs within under a minute.

Q97: Which is the most probable and most dangerous poisoning that can occur on board a piston-engine aircraft? ^t40q97

Correct: B)

Explanation: Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning (B) is the most probable and dangerous in-flight poisoning hazard on a piston-engine aircraft, because exhaust gases from a cracked or leaking exhaust manifold can enter the cabin through heater systems without any odour or colour to alert the crew. CO binds to haemoglobin far more strongly than oxygen, and incapacitation can occur insidiously as cognitive impairment precedes any physical warning. A is wrong because cosmic radiation at typical general aviation altitudes poses negligible acute risk. C is wrong because ozone poisoning is primarily a concern at high-altitude jet operations, not piston aircraft. D is wrong because avgas vapour exposure is not a recognised primary in-flight poisoning hazard under normal operational conditions.

Q98: What impression results from a correct final approach to a runway with a strong upslope in the landing direction? ^t40q98

Correct: C)

Explanation: An upsloping runway appears to tilt toward the approaching pilot, making the runway surface appear closer and the approach angle appear steeper than it really is — creating the illusion of being too high on approach (C). The pilot's instinctive corrective response is to descend below the correct glide path, creating an actual undershoot risk. D describes the opposite perception: a downsloping runway creates a too-low impression. A and B relate to longitudinal positioning and approach angle respectively and are not the primary illusion generated by runway slope.

Q99: Why should gas-forming foods be avoided before undertaking a high-altitude flight? ^t40q99

Correct: B)

Explanation: At high altitude, reduced atmospheric pressure causes gases trapped in the gastrointestinal tract to expand in accordance with Boyle's Law — volume is inversely proportional to pressure (B). Gas that doubles in volume at 18,000 ft compared to sea level can cause significant abdominal distension and pain, distracting the pilot and reducing their capacity to manage the flight. A is wrong because gas expansion occurs during the climb and at cruise altitude, not during descent when pressure returns towards normal. C is wrong because decompression sickness results from dissolved nitrogen, not digestive gas. D is wrong because intestinal gas is not a cause of motion sickness.

Q100: Which blood component primarily transports oxygen? ^t40q100

Correct: A)

Explanation: Red blood cells (erythrocytes) are the primary oxygen transporters in the blood (A), because they contain haemoglobin — an iron-rich protein that reversibly binds oxygen in the high-oxygen environment of the lungs and releases it in the low-oxygen environment of peripheral tissues. B is wrong because blood plasma transports dissolved substances, hormones, and proteins but carries only a small fraction of total oxygen in dissolved form. C is wrong because blood platelets (thrombocytes) are responsible for blood clotting. D is wrong because white blood cells (leucocytes) are the effectors of immune defence.

Q101: What illusion can occur when visual references are lost during a prolonged coordinated turn? ^t40q101

Correct: A)

Explanation: During a prolonged coordinated turn, the semicircular canal fluid gradually stops signalling the rotation because the canals respond to acceleration, not constant velocity. When the pilot then rolls wings level, the deceleration is perceived as rotation in the opposite direction — the brain interprets the return to straight flight as entering a turn the other way, and the pilot feels wings level when still in a turn (A), which is the graveyard spiral illusion. B and C describe vertical illusions arising from linear acceleration (somatogravic), not prolonged rotation. D describes the opposite error from what actually occurs.

Q102: Your passenger wishes to ease their fear of flying by drinking a strong alcoholic drink just before departure. What effect has to be expected at high altitude? ^t40q102

Correct: D)

Explanation: At altitude, the reduced partial pressure of oxygen means the brain is already operating under mild hypoxic stress; alcohol, which further impairs CNS function by suppressing synaptic transmission, therefore produces a more pronounced effect at altitude than at sea level (D). This multiplicative interaction means that a drink that would cause mild impairment on the ground can cause significant cognitive degradation at altitude. A is wrong because the psychological effects increase, not decrease, under the combined impairment. B and C are both wrong because alcohol elimination rate is a hepatic function unaffected by altitude.

Q103: Which is the correct technique for seeing at night? ^t40q103

Correct: B)

Explanation: At night, the most sensitive photoreceptors are the rods, which are concentrated in the peripheral retina and absent from the central fovea. To use them effectively, the pilot must look slightly off-centre from the target — eccentric fixation (B) — so that the target's image falls on the rod-rich periphery rather than the rod-free fovea. A and C are wrong because direct central gaze places the image on the cone-dominated fovea, which has poor sensitivity in low light — causing a faint object to disappear when stared at directly. D is wrong because rapid large eye movements prevent the retina from dwelling on any point long enough for rods to integrate the dim signal.

Q104: Your passenger complains of middle ear pressure equalization problems. How can you help them? ^t40q104

Correct: B)

Explanation: Middle ear pain during descent is caused by the inability of the blocked Eustachian tube to admit air into the middle ear fast enough to match rising ambient pressure. The correct response is to stop the descent and climb if possible (B), which reduces ambient pressure and partially reverses the pressure differential, giving the Eustachian tube an opportunity to open and equalise. The subsequent descent should then be made more slowly, allowing more time for equalisation at each increment of altitude loss. A is wrong because the problem occurs during descent, not climb. C is wrong because increasing the descent rate would worsen the pressure differential and intensify pain. D is wrong because resuming at a higher rate after the climb would re-create the same problem.

Q105: Which of the following symptoms may indicate oxygen deficiency? ^t40q105

Correct: D)

Explanation: Difficulty concentrating is an early and characteristic symptom of oxygen deficiency (D), arising because the brain — particularly the prefrontal cortex governing executive function — is highly sensitive to reductions in oxygen delivery. This cognitive impairment typically precedes any physical symptoms, which is why hypoxia is so dangerous: the pilot's ability to recognise and respond to the problem is degraded before they feel unwell. A is wrong because joint pain is a hallmark of decompression sickness, not hypoxia. B is wrong because lung pain is not a hypoxia symptom. C is wrong because hypoxia initially accelerates heart rate as a compensatory response, not slows it.

Q106: What causes motion sickness (kinetosis)? ^t40q106

Correct: B)

Explanation: Motion sickness results from a conflict between sensory inputs (B): the vestibular system signals motion that does not match what the eyes see or what the body expects, and the brain responds to this sensory mismatch with the nausea and autonomic symptoms of kinetosis. A is wrong because motion sickness is caused by sensory conflict stimulation of a normal, healthy inner ear — not by an ear disorder. C is wrong because gas evaporation into the blood is the mechanism of decompression sickness. D is wrong because pressure reduction alone does not cause kinetosis; it is the conflicting motion signals that trigger the response.

Q107: Which are the side effects of anti-motion-sickness medications? ^t40q107

Correct: A)

Explanation: The most common anti-motion-sickness medications — antihistamines (such as dimenhydrinate) and anticholinergics (such as scopolamine) — cause drowsiness and slowed reaction time as their primary side effects (A), directly impairing the alertness and psychomotor performance required for safe flight. This is why these medications are generally incompatible with pilot duty; treating a passenger's kinetosis must not come at the cost of degrading the pilot's own performance. B and C describe different types of systemic side effects not primarily associated with these drug classes. D is wrong because these medications suppress CNS activity rather than stimulating it.

Q108: What is decisive for the onset of noise-induced hearing loss? ^t40q108

Correct: B)

Explanation: Noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) is determined by the total acoustic energy dose — the product of both intensity (measured in dB) and duration of exposure (B). This is why occupational health standards use an equivalent continuous sound level (Leq) or dose measurement rather than peak level or time alone. A is wrong because short bursts of extremely high-level noise can cause immediate permanent damage (acoustic trauma), proving that duration alone is not sufficient. C is wrong because prolonged exposure to moderate noise levels also causes cumulative NIHL. D describes acoustic trauma from impulse sounds, which is a special case, not the general determinant.

Q109: Increasing and sustained positive g-loads can produce symptoms that appear in the following order:... ^t40q109

Correct: A)

Explanation: The progressive sequence of g-force effects follows the decreasing blood flow to increasingly oxygen-sensitive structures: first colour vision fails (grey-out) as cone cells lose adequate perfusion, then peripheral vision narrows, then total vision is lost (blackout) as the entire retina is deprived, and finally consciousness is lost (G-LOC) as cerebral blood flow becomes inadequate — making A the correct sequence. B is wrong because red-out is caused by negative g-forces (blood forced into the head), not positive g — it has no place in this positive-g sequence. C transposes the first two steps. D incorrectly inserts red-out late in a positive-g sequence.

Q110: From what altitude does the body of a healthy person begin to compensate for oxygen deficiency by accelerating breathing rate? ^t40q110

Correct: A)

Explanation: The peripheral chemoreceptors (carotid and aortic bodies) begin to stimulate increased respiratory rate when arterial oxygen partial pressure falls below a threshold corresponding to approximately 6,000–7,000 ft altitude (A). This is the altitude at which the body initiates its primary compensatory response to reduced oxygen availability. B and D are wrong because those altitudes (10,000–12,000 ft) represent the upper limit of effective compensation, not its onset. C is wrong because at 3,000–4,000 ft the oxygen partial pressure is still high enough that no respiratory compensation is triggered in a healthy person.

Q111: The ideal level of arousal is at which point in the diagram? See figure (HPL- 002) P = Performance A = Arousal / Stress Siehe Anlage 1... ^t40q111

Correct: C)

Explanation: The Yerkes-Dodson law describes an inverted-U curve where performance peaks at a moderate, optimal level of arousal — represented by Point B in the diagram, which corresponds to answer C. Too little arousal (Point A, answer D) produces inattention, boredom, and sluggish responses. Excessive arousal (Points C and D on the curve, answers A and B) degrades performance through tunnel vision, cognitive narrowing, and impaired decision-making. Understanding this curve helps pilots recognise both under-stimulation (monotonous long flights) and over-stimulation (emergencies) as states requiring active management.

Q112: Which answer is correct concerning stress? ^t40q112

Correct: C)

Explanation: Stress commonly arises when a pilot perceives a threat or unsolvable problem — the cognitive appraisal that demands exceed available resources (C). Individual stress reactions vary greatly based on personality, experience, and coping strategies, making A incorrect. Training and experience are well established as factors that raise the stress threshold and improve resilience, so D is wrong. B is wrong because stress is directly relevant to flight safety — elevated stress impairs attention, working memory, and decision-making, all of which are critical in the cockpit.

Q113: During flight you have to solve a problem, how to you proceed? ^t40q113

Correct: C)

Explanation: The fundamental priority hierarchy in all piloting is "aviate, navigate, communicate" — the first duty is always to maintain aircraft control and a stable flight path (C). Only once the aircraft is in a controlled, safe condition should the pilot divert attention to diagnosing and solving secondary problems, while continuously monitoring the aircraft throughout. A is wrong because attempting to solve a problem immediately without first securing aircraft control can lead to loss of situational awareness or control. B is wrong because contacting another pilot should only occur after aircraft control is assured. D is wrong because problem-solving is possible and necessary in flight, but always subordinate to aircraft control.

Q114: At which point in the diagram will a pilot find himself to be overstrained? See figure (HPL-002) P = Perfromance A = Arousal / Stress Siehe Anlage 1... ^t40q114

Correct: A)

Explanation: On the Yerkes-Dodson arousal-performance curve, Point D (answer A) represents the far right extreme of high arousal where performance has collapsed — the pilot is overwhelmed and overstrained. At this level, cognitive resources are saturated, decision-making deteriorates, tunnel vision narrows attention to one problem while others are missed, and errors multiply rapidly. Point A (answer C) on the curve represents under-arousal; Point B (answer D) is the peak of optimal performance; Point C (answer B) is above optimal but still on the descending slope before total collapse.

Q115: The swiss cheese model is used to explain the... ^t40q115

Correct: C)

Explanation: James Reason's Swiss Cheese Model illustrates how accidents result from an error chain (C): multiple defensive layers — representing procedures, training, equipment, and oversight — each contain "holes" (latent and active failures). An accident occurs only when all holes align simultaneously, allowing a hazard to pass through every layer of defence. A is wrong because pilot readiness is assessed through medical and proficiency checks, not the Swiss Cheese Model. B is wrong because it is an accident causation model, not a problem-solving tool. D is wrong because emergency procedures are prescribed checklists unrelated to this model.

Q116: What does the term Red-out mean? ^t40q116

Correct: C)

Explanation: Red-out (C) occurs when sustained negative g-forces — such as those experienced during a bunt, pushover, or inverted flight — push blood toward the head and eyes, engorging the conjunctival and retinal blood vessels. The result is a reddish tinge flooding the visual field, the reverse of the grey-out and blackout sequence caused by positive g-forces. A is wrong because decompression sickness causes joint pain, skin mottling, and neurological symptoms — not a visual red field. B is wrong because colour changes at sunrise and sunset are atmospheric optical phenomena entirely unrelated to g-force physiology. D is wrong because anaemia is a blood condition with no association with the visual red-out phenomenon.