Correct: B)
Explanation: The correct stall recovery technique is to immediately reduce the angle of attack by lowering the nose with the elevator, while using coordinated rudder and aileron to keep the wings level. Option A applies rudder in the wrong direction (toward the dropping wing). Option C uses aileron alone without coordinated rudder, which near the stall can increase adverse yaw and potentially trigger a spin entry. Option D also prioritizes aileron over elevator, missing the critical first step of reducing the angle of attack.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Under EASA regulations for gliders, flight time is defined as the total time from the aircraft's first movement for the purpose of flight until it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. This includes ground handling and taxiing, not just airborne time. Option A only counts from takeoff to landing, excluding ground movement. Option B applies to powered aircraft with engines, not gliders. Option D is too narrow, covering only the takeoff run to touchdown and missing ground handling phases.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Wind shear is defined as any change in wind speed and/or direction over a relatively short distance, which can occur in both the vertical and horizontal planes. It is not limited to any particular speed threshold (option C), altitude range (option B), or geographic setting (option A). Wind shear is particularly dangerous during takeoff and landing when the aircraft is close to the ground with limited recovery margins.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Thunderstorms generate the most severe wind shear through their powerful updrafts, downdrafts, and microburst outflows, which can cause sudden wind reversals exceeding 50 knots within seconds. Stable high-pressure systems (option A) typically produce calm, uniform conditions. Fog (option C) is associated with light winds, not shear. Warm fronts (option D) can produce mild shear, but thunderstorms are by far the most common and dangerous source.
Correct: C)
Explanation: A temperature inversion creates a stable boundary layer between two air masses that can move at different speeds and directions, producing wind shear at the inversion level. Inversions are common in the early morning and can significantly affect glider operations near the ground, particularly during approach and landing. Option A describes conditions with minimal shear risk. Option B and D can occasionally produce shear but are not the primary conditions associated with it.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When headwind suddenly decreases, the airflow over the wings drops, causing IAS to decrease and lift to reduce. With less lift, the aircraft sinks below the intended glide path. The aircraft's inertia maintains its groundspeed briefly, but the reduced relative airflow means less aerodynamic force. This is the most dangerous wind shear scenario on approach because both effects — lower path and lower airspeed — combine to reduce safety margins simultaneously.
Correct: D)
Explanation: An increasing headwind temporarily increases the relative airflow over the wings, raising both IAS and lift. The additional lift pushes the aircraft above the intended glide path. Although initially this appears favorable, the pilot must be alert — if the headwind later decreases, the aircraft will experience the opposite effect and may sink rapidly below the desired path. Options involving decreased IAS or a lower flight path contradict the aerodynamic response to an increasing headwind.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When a tailwind decreases, the aircraft's forward momentum is maintained while the air mass effectively decelerates around it, increasing the relative airflow over the wings. This raises IAS and lift, pushing the aircraft above the glide path. A decreasing tailwind has the same aerodynamic effect as an increasing headwind. Options with decreased IAS or lower flight path misinterpret the relationship between tailwind changes and relative airflow.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The most severe wind shear is associated with thunderstorms and heavy showers, which produce microbursts and gust fronts. Avoiding takeoffs and landings when such weather is passing through eliminates the most dangerous wind shear exposure during the most vulnerable flight phases. Option A addresses thermals, which cause turbulence but not dangerous shear. Option C targets winter precipitation, which is a lesser shear risk. Option D is overly restrictive and does not address the primary cause.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When VFR conditions deteriorate below minima, the safest action is to turn back to the area where adequate visual meteorological conditions (VMC) were confirmed. Continuing into worsening visibility is the leading cause of VFR-into-IMC accidents. Option A is inappropriate because gliders typically lack radio navigation equipment and VFR pilots should not rely on instrument navigation. Option B relies on forecasts rather than actual conditions, which is unsafe. Option C is not appropriate for gliders operating under VFR rules.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Wake turbulence intensity is directly related to the strength of wingtip vortices, which are strongest when the wing operates at high lift coefficients — that is, at low speeds and high angles of attack. The slower aircraft generates more intense vortices because it must produce the same lift at a lower speed, requiring a higher angle of attack and greater circulation around the wing. Altitude (options A and D) is not the determining factor. The faster aircraft (option B) produces weaker vortices at its lower lift coefficient.
Correct: C)
Explanation: In light crosswind conditions, wake vortices from a heavy aircraft tend to remain on or near the runway rather than being blown clear. With a strong crosswind, the vortices drift away from the runway centerline, but a light crosswind is insufficient to displace them, creating a lingering hazard for departing aircraft. Option A incorrectly states vortices are amplified. Option B is wrong because vortices sink, not climb. Option D is incorrect because light crosswinds do not cause significant lateral twisting of vortices across the runway.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A harvested cornfield offers a firm, relatively flat surface with short stubble that provides good ground friction without excessive deceleration forces — ideal for an emergency landing. Option A (ploughed field) has soft, uneven furrows that can cause the glider to nose over or ground-loop. Option C (long dry grass) may conceal obstacles such as rocks, ditches, or fences. Option D (sports ground) is typically surrounded by buildings, fences, and spectators, creating collision hazards.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A precautionary landing is a proactive decision to land while options remain available, made to preserve flight safety before the situation worsens. It differs from a forced landing (option D), which is an immediate necessity with no alternative. Option A describes a normal glider landing or engine-out scenario, not specifically a precautionary landing. Option C describes a configuration choice, not a type of landing. The key distinction is that a precautionary landing involves foresight and planning.
Correct: C)
Explanation: A light brown field with short crops indicates a harvested or nearly harvested surface that is firm and free of tall obstructions, making it suitable for a safe off-field landing. Option A (a lake) should only be considered as a last resort since water landings carry drowning risk. Option B (meadow without livestock) sounds safe but may have hidden obstacles; and option D (ripe, waving crops) indicates tall vegetation that could obscure hazards and cause the glider to nose over on landing.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Wet grass increases rolling resistance during the takeoff ground roll, requiring a longer distance to reach flying speed. On landing, wet grass reduces wheel braking friction (similar to aquaplaning), resulting in a longer stopping distance. Both phases are adversely affected. Option A reverses both effects. Option B correctly identifies the takeoff increase but incorrectly predicts a shorter landing roll. Option C reverses both effects entirely.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Thermalling above industrial facilities exposes the pilot to harmful pollutants (smoke, chemical emissions), significantly reduced visibility from haze and particulates, and turbulence from the uneven heating of industrial structures. Option A describes a lee-side downdraft but not the full hazard picture. Option B exaggerates with "heavy precipitation," which is not caused by industrial plants. Option D describes electrostatic effects that are not typically associated with industrial thermal flying.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The most common cause of off-field landing accidents is delaying the decision too long, leaving insufficient altitude for proper field selection, a stabilized approach, and obstacle avoidance. Late decisions force rushed approaches, poor field choices, and inadequate speed management. Option A (distinct segments) is standard good practice. Option C (harvested cornfield) is actually a good surface choice. Option D (deciding above minimum safe altitude) is the correct time to decide, not a risk factor.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When sharing a thermal, all gliders should circle in the same direction and coordinate their turns to maintain consistent spacing and predictable flight paths. This minimizes the risk of convergence. Option A (entering quickly and pulling back sharply) can surprise other pilots and create a collision hazard. Option B (alternating directions) creates head-on crossing situations within the thermal. Option C (mimicking the glider ahead) could lead to following too closely without maintaining safe separation.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When altitude drops to circuit height, the pilot must commit to landing — continuing to search for lift at this altitude is dangerous and leaves no margin for error. Option A is hazardous because lee-side air typically contains sink, not thermals. Option C describes a good post-landing practice but does not address the immediate danger of low altitude. Option D risks flying into sink between thermals with no altitude reserve, potentially resulting in a crash rather than a controlled off-field landing.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In a steep turn, the load factor increases (n = 1/cos(bank angle)), which raises the stall speed. The pilot must have adequate speed before entering the turn to maintain a safe margin above the increased stall speed. Option A (reducing speed before a steep turn) would dangerously bring the aircraft closer to stall. Option B (pushing forward during the turn) would cause altitude loss and nose-down pitch. Option C (opposite rudder) is not the primary concern — speed margin is the critical safety factor.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The correct response to an incipient stall with wing drop is to release back pressure on the elevator (reducing angle of attack) and apply opposite rudder to prevent the yaw that would develop into a spin. Option A applies rudder toward the dropping wing, which would accelerate spin entry. Option B attempts to maintain level flight with rudder alone, which is ineffective near the stall. Option C pulls back on the elevator, which deepens the stall, and uses ailerons which can worsen the situation near the critical angle of attack.
Correct: A)
Explanation: A side-mounted (belly or CG) release hook creates a tow force that acts below and possibly offset from the aircraft's center of gravity. The cable pull from below the CG generates a nose-up pitching moment, which the pilot must actively counter with forward stick pressure. Option B is incorrect — side-mounted hooks do not improve stability. Option C (rapid roll) is not characteristic of this configuration. Option D describes yaw, which would occur with an asymmetric attachment but is not the primary effect.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The safest correction for being too high behind the tug is to gently deploy spoilers to increase drag and lose excess height while steering back to the correct tow position. Option A (sideslip) would create erratic lateral movements that could endanger both aircraft. Option B (pushing firmly forward) could put the tug into a dangerous nose-down attitude by pulling its tail up via the cable. Option C (pulling then releasing) is dangerous — pulling when high compounds the problem, potentially lifting the tug's tail catastrophically.
Correct: B)
Explanation: After a cable break during winch launch, the immediate priority is to lower the nose to maintain flying speed (preventing a stall from the steep climb attitude), then release the cable to prevent it from snagging during landing. After establishing safe flight, the pilot decides whether to land straight ahead or fly a modified circuit based on available altitude and terrain. Option A (holding the stick back) risks a stall. Option C (180° turn) is extremely dangerous at low altitude. Option D gets the sequence backward — nose down first, then release.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If a wing touches the ground during the winch launch ground roll, the situation is uncontrollable and the launch must be immediately aborted by releasing the cable. Continuing the launch with a wing on the ground risks a violent ground loop or cartwheel. Option A (opposite aileron) may be insufficient at low speed and could worsen the situation under cable tension. Option B (opposite rudder) cannot correct a wing-down condition. Option D (pulling back) would try to lift off prematurely in an uncontrolled state.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If the glider exceeds VNE (never-exceed speed) during aerotow, the pilot must immediately release the towrope to remove the pulling force causing the excessive speed and avoid structural failure. Option A (pulling back) increases the load factor on an already over-stressed airframe. Option B (radio call) wastes critical time during a structural emergency. Option D (deploying spoilers) while still attached to the tow aircraft could cause dangerous pitch and speed oscillations.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A trailing cable is a serious hazard — it can snag on obstacles, trees, or power lines during approach and landing. The safest action is to climb to a safe height and release the cable over empty terrain or the airfield where it can be recovered safely. Option A (low approach for assessment) risks snagging the trailing cable on obstacles. Option C (releasing after touchdown) means flying the entire approach with a dangerous trailing cable. Option D (releasing immediately regardless) may drop the cable in an unsafe location.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If the glider pilot loses sight of the tug during aerotow, the cable must be released immediately. Continued towing without visual contact with the tug is extremely dangerous because the glider pilot cannot anticipate the tug's movements, risking a mid-air collision or being pulled into an unexpected attitude. Option A (spoilers) does not address the fundamental problem. Option B (alternating elevator) creates dangerous oscillations. Option D (searching turns) could tangle the cable or fly into the tug's path.
Correct: D)
Explanation: The correct technique is to match the tug's bank angle to maintain the same turn radius, then use gentle rudder input to slightly tighten the radius and drift back behind the tug. This is a smooth, controlled correction. Option A (sideslip) creates lateral instability and unpredictable cable tensions. Option B (deploying spoilers) would cause the glider to drop below the tug's level. Option C (strong rudder) risks over-correction and could cause the glider to swing to the opposite side or create dangerous cable loads.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Loss of cable tension during the steep climbing phase means a cable break or winch failure has occurred. The pilot must immediately push forward to lower the nose and prevent a stall (since the glider is at a high pitch angle with rapidly decaying speed), then release the cable. Option A wastes critical time on communication. Option B (pulling) would increase the pitch angle further, guaranteeing a stall. Option D (waiting) is dangerous because speed is decaying rapidly in the climb attitude.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A second cable lying close to the glider poses a serious entanglement hazard during the ground roll and climb-out. The launch must be aborted immediately by releasing the cable, and the airfield controller must be notified to correct the situation before any further launches. Option A risks snagging the loose cable during takeoff. Option C ignores a clear safety hazard. Option D cannot prevent entanglement with a cable on the ground during the critical ground roll phase.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The weak link is calibrated to break before the cable tension exceeds the glider's structural limits, protecting the airframe from being overstressed by excessive winch pull. Its breaking strength is matched to the maximum permitted towing load for the specific glider type. Option A is incorrect — the rate of climb depends on winch power and speed, not the weak link. Option C is wrong because the weak link is a safety device, not a release mechanism. Option D describes a concern unrelated to the weak link's purpose.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Continuing to pull back during the final phase of a winch launch places extreme structural stress on the airframe because the combination of cable tension, aerodynamic loads, and the centripetal force from the curved flight path can exceed design limits. The automatic release tripping is a safety mechanism activating because the load factor is dangerously high. Option A mischaracterizes a dangerous overload as normal procedure. Option B has nothing to do with wind correction. Option D prioritizes altitude gain over structural safety.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Landing uphill on a steep slope requires extra approach speed to account for the rapid deceleration that occurs when the aircraft's momentum encounters the rising terrain. A quick, decisive flare matches the aircraft's flight path to the slope angle, minimizing impact forces. Option A (minimum speed) leaves no energy reserve for the flare on a steep slope. Option C (parallel to ridge) does not utilize the slope for deceleration. Option D (downhill) dramatically increases groundspeed and stopping distance, making it extremely dangerous.
Correct: C)
Explanation: At 6000 m without supplemental oxygen, the time of useful consciousness is very short — hypoxia can impair judgment within minutes. The pilot must descend immediately at maximum permissible speed using spoilers, before oxygen runs out, rather than waiting for symptoms to appear. Option A is extremely dangerous — remaining at 6000 m without oxygen for 30 minutes would cause incapacitation. Option B cannot meaningfully extend oxygen supply. Option D waits for hypoxia symptoms, by which point cognitive function may already be too impaired for safe decision-making.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Emergency canopy release handles are standardized as red to ensure immediate recognition in a crisis. Red is the universal color for emergency controls in aviation, including canopy jettison handles, fire extinguisher handles, and fuel shutoff valves. Options A (blue), B (yellow), and D (green) are incorrect — these colors are reserved for other functions such as trim (green), normal canopy latch, or non-emergency systems.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Unsecured trim masses or ballast can shift during flight, particularly in turbulence or during maneuvers, potentially jamming control linkages (elevator, rudder, or aileron cables) or causing an unplanned shift in the center of gravity that could make the aircraft uncontrollable. Option A addresses weight limits, which is a separate concern from securing ballast. Option C and D are secondary considerations — the primary danger is control jamming and CG displacement.
Correct: B)
Explanation: With a failed ASI, the pilot should continue the launch to normal release altitude (since the launch is already established and stable), then release and fly an immediate circuit using the horizon for pitch reference and wind noise for approximate speed estimation. An immediate landing minimizes exposure to the instrument failure. Option A (aborting the launch) is unnecessarily risky at climb attitude. Option C (continuing the planned flight) is unsafe without airspeed indication. Option D (abrupt speed changes) could overstress the airframe during the launch.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When the CG is too far aft, the moment arm between the CG and the tail becomes too short, reducing the elevator's ability to generate sufficient nose-down pitching moment. This can make the aircraft uncontrollable, particularly during the launch phase when pitch control is critical. Option A is incorrect — aft CG does not directly reduce VNE. Option B is backward — an aft CG reduces the nose-down moment, but the problem is insufficient elevator authority to correct nose-up tendencies. Option C addresses structural limits, which is a separate concern.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Ice accumulation on the wing disrupts the smooth airflow over the aerofoil surface, reducing the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and increasing drag. Since stall speed is inversely proportional to the square root of CLmax, a lower CL_max means a higher stall speed. The aircraft must fly faster to maintain safe flight. Option A is wrong because ice roughness increases friction drag. Options B and C are incorrect because ice degrades aerodynamic performance in every respect.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If the gear will not lock, it must be retracted and a belly (gear-up) landing performed at minimum speed to minimize impact forces and structural damage. An unlocked gear (option B) could collapse asymmetrically on touchdown, causing a violent ground loop or cartwheel. Option A (belly landing at increased speed) unnecessarily increases impact energy. Option D (holding the handle) provides no mechanical lock and the gear could still collapse under landing loads.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The greatest immediate danger when encountering heavy snowfall is the sudden and complete loss of forward visibility, which can disorient the pilot and make terrain avoidance impossible within seconds. While icing (option A) and pitot blockage (option B) are real concerns, they develop more gradually. Option D (mass increase) is negligible in the short term. Loss of visibility is immediate, disorienting, and can lead to controlled flight into terrain.
Correct: D)
Explanation: With a tailwind, the groundspeed is higher than normal for the same indicated airspeed, resulting in a longer flare and longer ground roll. The pilot should maintain normal approach speed (not reduced, which would risk stalling) and prepare for the extended landing distance. Option A (increased speed without spoilers) would make the landing even longer. Option B (pushing the nose down at the field) would cause a hard landing. Option C (reduced speed) risks stalling at the higher groundspeed, and the ground roll will be longer, not shorter.
Correct: C)
Explanation: With a tailwind, the pilot should maintain normal indicated approach speed (since the wing sees the same airflow regardless of wind) and fly a shallower approach angle to account for the increased groundspeed and reduced obstacle clearance gradient. Option A (retracting gear) would cause a belly landing, not shorten the roll. Option B (increasing speed) would extend the ground roll further. Option D (sideslipping) addresses crosswind, not tailwind, and would not be effective compensation.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In gusty conditions (10 kt gust factor), the pilot must add speed margin to the approach speed (typically half the gust factor, so about 5 kt extra) and make firm, positive control inputs to maintain attitude through the turbulent air. Option A avoids spoilers, which may be needed for path control. Option B uses normal speed with no gust margin, leaving the aircraft vulnerable to speed drops in gusts. Option C (minimum speed) is extremely dangerous in gusts — a momentary speed loss could cause a stall.
Correct: A)
Explanation: In strong sink near a ridge, the pilot must increase speed (to improve penetration through the sink) and fly away from the ridge into the valley where conditions may be more benign and landing options exist. Option B is dangerously complacent — mountain downdrafts can be sustained and severe. Option C (moving closer to the ridge) could trap the pilot against the terrain in strong sink. Option D (landing parallel to the ridge) may not be feasible on mountainous terrain and reduces options.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When a cumulus develops into a cumulonimbus, the updrafts intensify dramatically and can suck the glider into the cloud against the pilot's wishes. The pilot must deploy full spoilers and fly at maximum permissible speed (VNE or the spoiler-extended limit) to escape the rapidly increasing updraft. Option A (minimum speed) would maximize the time in the updraft and the risk of being drawn in. Option B (continuing to thermal) is extremely dangerous near a thunderstorm. Option C (entering the cloud) violates VFR rules and exposes the aircraft to severe turbulence, hail, and lightning.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Any loose object in a cockpit — even something as small as a pen — can jam flight controls by lodging in the control linkages, pushrods, or cable runs. The cockpit must be thoroughly inspected before the next flight to locate and remove the object. Option A merely passes the problem along without solving it. Option B is irrelevant — the concern is not having a pen but having a loose object. Option C is dangerously wrong — even small objects can jam critical controls and have caused fatal accidents.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When encountering strong sink near the aerodrome, the pilot needs maximum range to reach the field. Best glide speed gives maximum range in still air, but additional speed is needed to compensate for the downdraft (which steepens the glide path) and any headwind component. Option A (VA) may be too fast and waste altitude. Option B (best glide speed alone) does not account for the sink and wind. Option C (minimum sink speed) maximizes time aloft but minimizes distance covered, which is counterproductive when trying to reach the field.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Under EASA regulations, a newly qualified LAPL(S) holder must accumulate a minimum of 10 hours of flight time or 30 flights as pilot in command after licence issuance before being permitted to carry passengers. This ensures the pilot gains sufficient solo experience before taking responsibility for others. Option A omits the initial experience requirement. Option C is wrong because there is a clear restriction. Option D is incorrect because the LAPL(S) does permit passenger carriage after meeting the experience requirement.
Correct: B)
Explanation: On final approach, the commitment to land has been made. A thermal on final approach will cause the glider to float above the desired glide path, so the pilot must fully extend airbrakes to maintain the correct path and dissipate the extra energy. Option A (retracting brakes to exploit the thermal) abandons the committed approach at a critical phase, which is extremely dangerous at low altitude. Option C assumes thermals always produce compensating sink, which is not reliable. Option D (circling on final) is dangerous at low altitude.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Wet grass significantly reduces friction between the tire and the surface, resulting in less effective wheel braking and a longer ground roll. The pilot must plan for this extended stopping distance. Option A exaggerates — aquaplaning is primarily a concern on paved runways, not grass. Option B is incorrect because wet surfaces reduce, not improve, natural braking. Option C is wrong because reduced friction means a longer, not shorter, ground roll.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Late in the day, shaded slopes create dark backgrounds against which other aircraft become extremely difficult to spot visually. The contrast between sunlit and shaded areas makes visual detection particularly challenging — an aircraft in shadow can be nearly invisible. Option A and B may occur in certain conditions but are not specifically linked to shaded slopes late in the day. Option D (glare) is a concern when looking toward the sun, not toward shaded slopes.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Field selection must be finalized at 300 m AGL for gliders and 400 m AGL for motorgliders to ensure sufficient altitude for a proper circuit, approach, and landing. Below these heights, the pilot should be committed to the chosen field. Option A does not specify a concrete altitude. Option C reverses the altitudes — motorgliders need more height because they may attempt an engine restart. Option D sets the motorglider threshold too low for a safe circuit with potential engine restart attempt.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When thermalling alone with no other aircraft in the thermal, there is no regulation requiring a specific turning direction. The pilot is free to choose whichever direction best centers the thermal or feels most comfortable. Option A imposes a left-turn requirement that does not exist. Option C invents a distance-based rule. Option D (figure-eights) is a technique for locating the thermal core, not a required circling method. The obligation to match another glider's turn direction only applies when sharing a thermal.
Correct: C)
Explanation: After a cable break below safety height, the priority sequence is: establish a safe glide attitude (to maintain flying speed), release the remaining rope by actuating the release twice (to ensure disconnection), and land straight ahead if terrain permits. Option A deploys airbrakes prematurely when every meter of altitude counts. Option B attempts a 180° turn which is extremely dangerous below safety height. Option D releases before establishing a glide — the glide attitude should be established first to ensure safe flying speed.
Correct: C)
Explanation: With a strong crosswind from the right, the wind will tend to lift the right (windward) wing. By holding the right wing slightly lower at the start of the ground roll, the helper compensates for this lifting tendency, keeping the wings level until the aileron becomes effective. Option A refers to engine procedures irrelevant for gliders. Option B (pulling back to lift off quickly) risks a premature liftoff with insufficient airspeed. Option D is impractical and dangerous — the helper cannot keep pace with an accelerating glider.
Correct: B)
Explanation: If acceleration is insufficient by the abort point, the takeoff must be abandoned by releasing the towrope immediately. Continuing the takeoff with insufficient speed risks failing to clear obstacles or running off the end of the runway. Option A might marginally reduce drag but cannot solve a fundamental performance problem. Option C (forcing the aircraft airborne) at inadequate speed leads to an immediate stall or settling back onto the ground. Option D (flaps) cannot compensate for insufficient tow power.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When flying along a slope, a minimum lateral distance of 60 meters must be maintained horizontally from the terrain. This provides a safety buffer against unexpected turbulence, downdrafts, or control difficulty near the slope face. Option A is vague and non-specific. Option C (150 m) is more conservative than the standard requirement. Option D (depends on thermals) introduces a variable condition that does not define a clear minimum standard.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In high mountain environments, weather can deteriorate with extreme speed — thunderstorms can develop in minutes due to orographic lifting and localized heating effects. This is the most significant hazard requiring special attention. Options A, B, and C describe technical inconveniences that may occasionally occur in mountains, but they are not the primary hazard. Rapid weather changes can trap a pilot in valleys with deteriorating visibility and violent turbulence, making option D the critical safety concern.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Oxygen under pressure can react violently with hydrocarbon-based greases and oils, potentially causing a flash fire or explosion. All components in contact with oxygen must be completely grease-free. Option D is directly dangerous — greasing the connector introduces a combustion risk. Options A and C describe good practices but are not the absolute safety-critical requirement. The oxygen-grease incompatibility is a fundamental rule in aviation oxygen system handling.
Correct: D)
Explanation: At only 400 m above ground, there is no time for any delay — the parachute must be deployed immediately after clearing the aircraft. Freefall at terminal velocity covers roughly 50 m per second, so even 2-3 seconds of delay (option A) would consume 100-150 m of precious altitude. Option B (stabilizing in freefall) wastes critical seconds. Option C (before leaving) would entangle the parachute with the aircraft structure. At 400 m, every second counts for a successful deployment and deceleration.
Correct: B)
Explanation: On short final, the commitment to land has been made — the safest action is to continue straight ahead with full airbrakes and use every available means (wheel brake, ground friction) to stop in the shortest distance possible. Option A (reducing to minimum speed) risks stalling close to the ground. Option C is similar to B but less specific about using all stopping means. Option D (turning to find another field) at this low altitude and close range is extremely dangerous and likely to result in a stall-spin accident.
Correct: B)
Explanation: FLARM is a traffic awareness system that calculates collision risk based on the predicted flight paths of nearby FLARM-equipped aircraft and issues warnings when a potential conflict is detected. Option A overstates its precision — it provides approximate positions, not precise ones. Option C is incorrect because FLARM warns but does not recommend specific avoidance maneuvers. Option D is wrong because FLARM only detects other FLARM devices, not transponder-equipped aircraft (that would require a separate ADS-B receiver).
Correct: D)
Explanation: The indicated airspeed (IAS) for the approach should be the same as at sea level because the ASI already accounts for air density — it measures dynamic pressure, which determines aerodynamic forces regardless of altitude. The stall IAS does not change with altitude. However, the true airspeed and groundspeed will be higher at altitude due to lower air density. Options A and C incorrectly adjust IAS, and option B applies a TAS correction to IAS, which is unnecessary.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When entering a downdraft, the descending air mass reduces the effective angle of attack on the wings, temporarily decreasing lift. The pilot feels a brief reduction in g-load (a sensation of lightness or being pushed up from the seat) as the aircraft begins to sink with the descending air. The glider's airspeed initially decreases momentarily. Option B describes what happens entering an updraft (nose pitches up, increased g-load). Options A and C do not accurately describe the symmetrical effect of entering a downdraft center.
Correct: A)
Explanation: Cirrus clouds at high altitude filter incoming solar radiation, reducing the surface heating that drives thermal convection. Less heating means weaker thermals and potentially an earlier end to the soaring day. This is an important warning sign during cross-country flights. Option B is wrong — cirrus does not increase instability at thermal altitudes. Option C describes a shift that may occur but is not the primary effect. Option D underestimates the impact cirrus has on thermal generation through solar radiation reduction.
Correct: C)
Explanation: To maximize distance in a headwind, the pilot must fly faster than best-glide speed. The headwind reduces groundspeed, so the glider spends more time in the air and descends more before covering the desired ground distance. By increasing speed above best-glide, the pilot accepts a steeper glide angle but gains enough extra groundspeed to more than compensate for the altitude loss. Option A (minimum sink) minimizes descent rate but covers minimal distance. Option B (best glide) is optimal only in still air. Option D (McCready zero) equals best-glide speed.
Correct: D)
Explanation: A freshly mown meadow of 200 m provides a smooth, firm surface free of tall vegetation and hidden obstacles — ideal for a short ground roll in a glider, which can typically stop within 100-200 m. Option A (ploughed field) has soft soil and deep furrows that can nose the glider over. Option B (maize field) has tall crops that obscure hazards and create drag inconsistencies. Option C (country lane) is narrow, potentially lined with trees and power lines, and poses collision risks with vehicles.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Pilots may use the on-board radio on dedicated glider frequencies to communicate with their retrieve crew without needing a separate radiotelephony extension or rating. These frequencies are designated for glider operations and permit such operational communications. Option A unnecessarily restricts this established practice. Option C invents a frequency limitation that does not exist. Option D incorrectly prohibits a communication that is routinely permitted.
Correct: D)
Explanation: At 1800 m AMSL, air density is lower than at sea level, so the true airspeed (TAS) is higher than indicated airspeed (IAS) for the same dynamic pressure reading. In nil-wind conditions, groundspeed equals TAS, which exceeds IAS. This means the aircraft approaches the runway at a higher groundspeed than the ASI shows, requiring awareness of a longer ground roll and higher touchdown energy. Options B and C underestimate the density altitude effect. Option A is partially true but the dominant factor is altitude, not temperature.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Wearing a parachute is not compulsory for glider flights under current regulations, although it is strongly recommended and standard practice in the gliding community. The decision is left to the pilot. Option A invents an altitude-based requirement. Option C creates a restriction limited to aerobatics that does not exist in the regulations. Option D overstates the requirement. While practically all glider pilots wear parachutes, it remains a personal safety choice, not a legal obligation.
Correct: D)
Explanation: After a cable break during the climb phase, the immediate priority is to release the remaining cable (which may still be attached and could snag) and then lower the nose to establish a safe glide. The cable release comes first because a dangling cable is an immediate hazard. Option A (airbrakes first) wastes altitude when every meter counts. Option B reverses the priority — establishing the glide before releasing could allow the cable to become entangled. Option C (radio call) wastes precious seconds during a time-critical emergency.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In a strong crosswind aerotow departure, the glider should be positioned upwind of the tow aircraft's centerline to prevent being blown across the tug's path during the ground roll. This offset compensates for the crosswind drift during the critical acceleration phase. Option A states a normal sequence that does not address crosswind specifically. Option B provides a partial technique but does not address the pre-departure setup. Option C is incorrect because crosswinds typically increase takeoff distance slightly.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When entering a thermal alone, the recommended technique is to first perform a figure-eight pattern (or S-turns) to identify the strongest part of the thermal before committing to a circling direction. This allows the pilot to center the thermal efficiently. Option A and C prescribe a fixed direction without first locating the core. Option B is technically correct regarding regulations but does not describe the best practice for thermal exploitation. The figure-eight technique optimizes climb rate by finding the thermal center before circling.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When flying near a slope, the pilot must maintain a sufficient safety distance that accounts for current conditions including wind, turbulence, and terrain features. This is a judgment-based requirement rather than a fixed numeric value. Option A (depends on lift) only considers one factor. Options B (150 m) and C (60 m) specify fixed distances that may be appropriate in some contexts but do not reflect the general guidance, which emphasizes adequate safety margin appropriate to the circumstances.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When joining a thermal occupied by another glider, you must circle in the same direction to maintain a predictable traffic pattern and avoid head-on encounters within the thermal. This is a fundamental rule of shared thermal etiquette. Option A incorrectly dismisses the need for directional coordination. Option C (opposite direction) creates dangerous head-on convergence paths within the confined area of the thermal. Option D invents a non-existent 150 m vertical separation requirement for thermal sharing.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When a glider sustains major damage (70%) without injuries, the pilot must notify the local police within 24 hours. This is classified as a serious incident with substantial damage. Option A (FOCA report in 3 days) does not meet the urgency required. Option C (immediate notification via REGA) is the procedure for accidents involving injuries or fatalities. Option D (report within a week) is too slow for an incident involving 70% airframe damage, which requires prompt reporting.
Correct: D)
Explanation: On a hard paved runway, a glider's main wheel has less rolling resistance compared to grass, which means the groundspeed at liftoff may feel similar but the ground roll can be longer because the wheel offers less drag to help the aircraft become airborne. Additionally, on pavement the aircraft may weathervane more easily. Option A is not specific to hard runways. Option B (pulling back longer) could cause the tail to strike the runway. Option C (wheel brake at start) would impede acceleration during the most critical phase.
Correct: B)
Explanation: For a water landing, the pilot should tighten all harnesses to prevent injury on impact, close ventilation openings to slow water ingress, and approach at slightly above normal speed to maintain control and reduce the descent rate. The gear should be retracted (not extended as in option C) to prevent the aircraft from flipping on water entry. Option A (tail-first) risks a violent pitch-forward on impact. Option D (sideslip) creates an asymmetric water entry that could cartwheel the aircraft.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The most reliable method for determining wind direction from the air is to observe the glider's drift during altitude-loss spirals — the direction the aircraft drifts indicates the downwind direction, and the amount of drift indicates wind strength. This works at any altitude and any location. Option A (tree leaves) requires being low enough to see individual leaves. Option B (wheat field patterns) can be misleading and requires specific crop stages. Option D (livestock behavior) is unreliable as a wind indicator.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When overtaking a slower glider on a ridge, always pass on the valley side (away from the slope) to maintain safe terrain clearance and avoid trapping the other pilot against the hillside. This gives both aircraft escape room toward the valley. Option A (turning back) is unnecessary and wastes energy. Option C (radio contact) takes too long to arrange at closing speed. Option D (diving below) risks flying into the turbulent rotor zone closer to the terrain.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If the glider rolls over the slack tow rope, the rope can become entangled with the landing gear, skid, or other structures beneath the aircraft. The immediate action is to release the rope before any entanglement can occur. Option A (braking) does not prevent entanglement and may worsen it. Option B (airbrakes) is irrelevant to the immediate hazard. Option D (radio warning) wastes time during a situation requiring instant action — by the time the call is made, the rope may already be entangled.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Glider flights are permitted in Class C airspace under specific conditions: the pilot must hold the radiotelephony extension, receive ATC authorization before entering, and maintain continuous radio contact. Certain exceptions for gliders may be published on the soaring chart. Option A assumes gliders carry transponders, which most do not. Option C ignores the mandatory ATC clearance and radio requirements for Class C. Option D incorrectly implies that Class C is open by default unless NOTAMs restrict it.
Correct: B)
Explanation: When meeting an oncoming glider while ridge soaring with the slope on your right, the standard rule is to give way by turning away from the slope (toward the valley). The pilot with the slope on the right has right-of-way in ridge soaring (similar to the rule of the road on mountain roads). However, both pilots should take evasive action by moving away from the ridge. Option A (diving) risks terrain collision. Option C (climbing) may not be possible. Option D (maintaining heading) leads directly to a head-on collision.
Correct: C)
Explanation: With a tailwind on a limited field, the pilot must minimize groundspeed at touchdown to reduce ground roll. This means flying slightly above minimum speed (to maintain a safety margin while being as slow as possible in the air) and approaching at a lower height to steepen the approach angle relative to the ground. Option A (best glide speed) is faster than needed and wastes field length. Option B (sideslip) addresses crosswind, not tailwind. Option D (faster approach) would increase groundspeed and ground roll on an already short field.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A waterlogged grass runway increases rolling resistance because the wheels sink into the soft, saturated surface, creating drag that slows acceleration. This results in a significantly longer takeoff distance for both the tow aircraft and the glider. Option A ignores the substantial difference between dry and waterlogged surfaces. Option D's logic is flawed — while a slippery surface might reduce friction on a hard runway, waterlogged grass creates suction and drag that impede acceleration. Option C is incorrect because option B is the correct answer.
Correct: B)
Explanation: The preferred action is always to fly over the power line if possible. However, if altitude is insufficient to clear the line and no alternative landing path exists, passing under the line is acceptable as a last resort — but only between the pylons where the cable sag provides maximum clearance, not near a pylon (option D) where cables are at their lowest. Option A (always fly over) is not possible when altitude is insufficient. Option C (tight turn near the ground) risks a stall-spin accident. Option D (near a pylon) is where clearance is minimal.
Correct: C)
Explanation: The standard spin recovery procedure is: (1) identify the spin direction, (2) apply full opposite rudder to stop the rotation, (3) keep ailerons neutral (as aileron input during a spin can be counterproductive), (4) ease the stick slightly forward to reduce the angle of attack below the stall angle, and (5) once rotation stops, centralize the rudder and pull out of the resulting dive. Option A omits identifying the spin direction. Option B uses ailerons, which can deepen the spin. Option D uses ailerons instead of rudder as the primary anti-spin control, which is incorrect.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Approach to an aerodrome should follow published VFR guide procedures or any other appropriate method. A mandatory full circuit over the signal area is no longer systematically required.
Correct: B)
Explanation: In mountain flying, to overtake a slower glider on a slope, pass on the side away from the slope (valley side). This rule is consistent with the right-of-way for climbing gliders.
Correct: D)
Explanation: If the rudder jams in flight, control the glider with elevator and ailerons. Make shallow turns and land immediately.
Correct: C)
Explanation: If the glider rolls over the tow rope, immediately releasing the rope is the only correct action.
Correct: A)
Explanation: If the rope breaks on the tow plane side below safety height: actuate the release handle twice (verification) and land straight ahead in the runway extension. Avoid turning.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In strong crosswind on final, take a crab angle into the wind and increase speed slightly to maintain control. The sideslip can be used but crab is the primary method.
Correct: D)
Explanation: For a water landing: tighten harnesses, close ventilation to prevent water entry, and land at slightly above normal speed for better control and to avoid nose-over.
Correct: A)
Explanation: Without other gliders in the thermal, there is no prescribed spiraling direction. The pilot chooses freely.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Glider altitude is expressed according to the country overflown (altitude in feet or meters per local rules, or flight levels per airspace). Regulations vary by country.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Standard spin recovery: 1) Identify direction, 2) Opposite rudder, 3) Ailerons neutral, 4) Slight forward stick, 5) Pull out after rotation stops.
Correct: B)
Explanation: Modifying an accident site is prohibited without formal authorization from the investigation authority, except for essential rescue measures.
Correct: D)
Explanation: If the pilot loses sight of the tow plane, immediately release the rope. Continuing tow flight without seeing the tow plane is extremely dangerous.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Wearing a parachute is not mandatory for gliders in Switzerland for normal flights. It is recommended but not regulatory.
Correct: B)
Explanation: With tailwind on a 400 m field: approach slightly above minimum speed and at a lower height than with headwind. Tailwind increases ground speed.
Correct: C)
Explanation: A powered motorglider coming from the right has right of way (converging routes rule). You must give way to the right to let it pass.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In a glider-specific restricted zone (LS-R), reduced distances apply: 50 m vertically and 100 m horizontally from clouds (instead of standard distances).
Correct: B)
Explanation: In case of parachute bailout: 1) Release canopy 2) Unfasten harness 3) Jump 4) Open parachute. Order is crucial for safety.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Landing on a slope: always downhill into the wind. Uphill + tailwind would dangerously extend the landing distance.
Correct: A)
Explanation: The best field for an off-field landing is a large flat field, oriented into the wind, free of obstacles on the approach axis.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A fuselage broken near the rudder after a ground loop = serious accident. Immediately notify the accident investigation bureau (via REGA if necessary).
Correct: C)
Explanation: When an off-field landing on inclined terrain is unavoidable, the correct technique is to approach with increased speed and perform a quick, firm flare to match the glider's pitch attitude to the slope angle at touchdown — this minimises the relative vertical velocity on contact. Landing down a ridge (option A) dramatically increases ground speed and roll-out distance, risking a collision with terrain ahead. Approaching parallel to the ridge (option D) ignores the slope problem. Minimum speed (option B) leaves no energy margin for the flare on sloped ground.
Correct: D)
Explanation: If the gear is not extended on final approach and there is insufficient height to safely extend it, the safest action is to complete a gear-up landing at minimum speed, accepting a belly-landing with controlled, gentle touchdown. Extending gear at the last moment (option B) risks an asymmetric or partially extended gear, which is more dangerous. Retracting flaps to buy time (option A) alters the approach profile unpredictably close to the ground. Landing without gear at higher speed (option C) worsens the damage and increases risk of injury.
Correct: B)
Explanation: During a winch launch, the maximum pitch (steep climb) attitude should not be adopted until approximately 50 m AGL, while maintaining a safe minimum launch speed. Below 50 m, a cable break would not allow a straight-ahead landing if the nose is too high; above 50 m there is sufficient height to recover. 15 m is too low and dangerous. 150 m is overly conservative and wastes the launch energy. Pitching up immediately after liftoff (option D) is extremely hazardous regardless of headwind.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Approach and landing speed must account for both aircraft weight and wind conditions (including gusts). A heavier aircraft requires a higher approach speed to maintain adequate safety margin above stall. Higher winds — especially gusts — require an additional speed increment to avoid sudden loss of airspeed and lift. Altitude alone does not directly determine approach speed. Options A, B, and D are incomplete; option C correctly names both weight and wind speed.
Correct: C)
Explanation: During an outlanding, visual cues in the environment are the most reliable and immediately available indicators of wind direction and strength: smoke drifting from chimneys, flags, and rippling crops clearly show the current local wind. A weather forecast (option D) may not reflect local conditions precisely at that moment. Radio contact with other pilots (option B) is unreliable and slow. The windsock at the departure airfield (option A) is irrelevant to conditions at the outlanding site.
Correct: B)
Explanation: On a downhill grass area, landing uphill means the aircraft is climbing toward the ground, which naturally decelerates the glider and shortens the roll-out — this is the recommended technique. Landing diagonally downhill (option C) risks ground-looping. Using wheel brakes without airbrakes (option D) may be ineffective or cause a nose-over on rough terrain. Landing with gear retracted and stalled (option A) is dangerous and unnecessary.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Before initiating any turn during flight, the pilot must first check that the airspace in the intended direction is clear of other aircraft, obstacles, and restricted areas. A coordinated turn (option A) is always desirable but is secondary to the lookout. Thermal clouds (option C) and loose objects (option B) are not safety priorities before a heading change. Collision avoidance through a proper lookout is the primary concern.
Correct: B)
Explanation: A tailwind during winch launch means the aircraft has a lower airspeed relative to the ground at any given ground speed, so more ground roll is needed before reaching flying speed — liftoff takes longer and the pilot must monitor the airspeed carefully. Tailwind does not reduce the required cable tension rating (option A). Tailwind from behind reduces effective airspeed, so the roll is longer, not shorter (option D is incorrect). Pulling back immediately after liftoff in a tailwind is hazardous (option C).
Correct: D)
Explanation: On the base-to-final turn, a maximum bank angle of 30° is recommended to keep turn coordination manageable and to avoid the risk of a low-speed stall-spin. The yaw string (slip indicator) and airspeed must be closely monitored because crosswind complicates the turn geometry. If the aircraft overshoots the final track, a gentle track correction is made after the turn — never a steep rudder input to force alignment, as this risks a skidded stall. Options A and C allow up to 60° bank, which is excessive and dangerous near the ground.
Correct: D)
Explanation: When two sailplanes are circling in the same thermal in close proximity, the most effective way to create separation is to increase speed, which increases the turn radius and moves the faster aircraft to a position opposite in the circle (180° apart), creating the maximum safe separation. Reducing speed (option C) tightens the radius and closes the gap. Reducing bank (option B) also increases radius but slowly. Increasing bank (option A) makes the glider smaller in profile but does not solve the proximity problem.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Standard traffic pattern heights for a glider are approximately 150–200 m AGL abeam the threshold (downwind leg) and 100 m AGL after the final turn. These heights give the pilot adequate time and space to plan the approach and use airbrakes effectively for a precise landing. The lower heights in options D and B leave insufficient margin for corrections; the higher values in option A are excessive for unpowered glider operations.
Correct: D)
Explanation: In strong winds, the windward (upwind) wing should be placed on the ground to prevent the wind from getting under it and flipping the aircraft. The wing is then weighted down with a sandbag or similar weight, and the control surfaces (rudder) are secured to prevent them from being damaged by aerodynamic buffeting. Pointing the nose into wind (options A and B) presents a large fuselage surface to cross-gusts and does not protect the wings. Placing the downwind wing on the ground (option C) allows the upwind wing to be lifted by the wind.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Mountain ridges produce significant turbulence on the lee side and in the rotor zone, but turbulence can also occur directly at the ridge crest. Flying slightly faster than normal provides better control authority and reduces the risk of a stall in turbulence. Reducing to minimum speed (option B) is dangerous as turbulence could cause the aircraft to stall. Overflight of national parks (option A) is a regulatory matter, not a primary safety consideration when crossing ridges. Circling birds indicate thermals (option C) but this does not address the turbulence hazard of ridge crossing.
Correct: C)
Explanation: Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is a classic aerodynamic warning of an approaching stall: separated airflow from the wings passes over the tail surface, causing the elevator to vibrate. This occurs at low airspeed when the angle of attack exceeds the critical angle. A forward CG (option A) makes the aircraft more stable and resistant to stall. A dirty airframe (option B) may affect performance but does not directly cause elevator buffeting. Turbulence at high speed (option D) would be felt as general airframe shaking, not specifically at the elevator.
Correct: C)
Explanation: A pre-flight check (walk-around and cockpit check) must be performed before the first flight of the day and after every change of pilot, because each pilot is responsible for verifying the aircraft's airworthiness before they fly it. A check after every assembly (option D) applies to aircraft that are dismantled between flights (trailer gliders) — this is a separate requirement. Monthly checks (option A) describe maintenance intervals, not pre-flight procedures. Option B ('before every flight') is too broad and would be burdensome; it is the daily first-flight and pilot-change rule that is standard practice.
Correct: D)
Explanation: ICAO Annex 1 defines flight time for aircraft as the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight. For sailplanes (non-motorised), this is interpreted as from first movement (e.g., the start of the winch run or aerotow) until the aircraft comes to rest after landing. Option B describes block time for powered aircraft. Option C is too narrow (only the take-off and landing roll). Option A describes a duty period concept, not a single flight.
Correct: D)
Explanation: With strong gusts (here: wind 15 kt, gusts 25 kt — a 10 kt spread), the pilot must add a gust allowance to the normal approach speed to ensure that a sudden drop in airspeed caused by a gust does not reduce speed below the stall speed. Firm rudder inputs are needed to correct attitude changes caused by the gusty conditions. Minimum speed (option A) provides no safety margin in gusts. Normal speed without gust correction (option C) is insufficient. Avoiding spoilers/airbrakes (option B) removes the ability to control the glide path precisely.
Correct: D)
Explanation: Buffeting felt through the elevator stick is the tactile warning that the wing has approached its critical angle of attack and airflow is beginning to separate — the pre-stall buffet. This is caused by turbulent separated airflow from the wing reaching the tail and exciting the elevator. Option C (CG too far forward) makes the aircraft pitch-stable and stall-resistant. Option A (dirty airframe) degrades performance but does not specifically cause elevator buffeting. Option B (high speed turbulence) produces general airframe vibration unrelated to stall.
